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  • client-server syncing methodology [theoretical]

    - by Kenneth Ballenegger
    I'm in the progress of building an web-app that syncs with an iOS client. I'm currently tackling trying to figure out how to go about about syncing. I've come up with following two directions: I've got a fairly simple server web-app with a list of items. They are ordered by date modified and as such syncing the order does not matter. One direction I'm considering is to let the client deal with syncing. I've already got an API that lets the client get the data, as well as do certain actions on it, such as update, add or remove single items. I was considering: 1) on each sync asking the server for all items modified since the last successful sync and updating the local records based on what's returned by the server, and 2) building a persistent queue of create / remove / update requests on the client, and keeping them until confirmation by the server. The risk with this approach is that I'm basically asking each side to send changes to the other side, hoping it works smoothly, but risking a diversion at some point. This would probably be more bandwidth-efficient, though. The other direction I was considering was a more traditional model. I would have a "sync" process in which the client would send its whole list to the server (or a subset since last modified sync), the server would update the data on the server (by fixing conflicts by keeping the last modified item, and keeping deleted items with a deleted = 1 field), and the server would return an updated list of items (since last successful sync) which the client would then replace its data with. Thoughts?

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  • DDD: Persisting aggregates

    - by Mosh
    Hello, Let's consider the typical Order and OrderItem example. Assuming that OrderItem is part of the Order Aggregate, it an only be added via Order. So, to add a new OrderItem to an Order, we have to load the entire Aggregate via Repository, add a new item to the Order object and persist the entire Aggregate again. This seems to have a lot of overhead. What if our Order has 10 OrderItems? This way, just to add a new OrderItem, not only do we have to read 10 OrderItems, but we should also re-insert all these 10 OrderItems again. (This is the approach that Jimmy Nillson has taken in his DDD book. Everytime he wants to persists an Aggregate, he clears all the child objects, and then re-inserts them again. This can cause other issues as the ID of the children are changed everytime because of the IDENTITY column in database.) I know some people may suggest to apply Unit of Work pattern at the Aggregate Root so it keeps track of what has been changed and only commit those changes. But this violates Persistence Ignorance (PI) principle because persistence logic is leaking into the Domain Model. Has anyone thought about this before? Mosh

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  • Bringing ideas to life

    - by danixd
    I understand that this forum is filled with computer science genius's but there must come a point where your expertise in coding can not keep up with your creativity. I am a front end programmer and designer of sorts. I have so many ideas, with no ways of implementing them. I know of platforms that can help, I am really into the arduino project for physical ideas and I know Flash is an amazing platform for software, but when it comes to complex ideas, even such as a 3D game, things can be too much to handle individually. When you have an idea, what is your typical methodology of bring them to life? Write down the idea, save if for later (never gets made right...) Try building it yourself, on the platforms you work with and are good at Consult people on what platform it is best suited to and collaborate with an expert in that field to do the dirty work Consult people on what platform it is best suited to and try to learn it and make it yourself (at least the alpha stages) Are there any communities that support this idea of bringing things to life? Can you pitch ideas to x company as a business model and hope they take you on / sponsor you? Do you have to spend lots of $$$ to get things made?

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  • Entity Framework 4 and SYSUTCDATETIME ()

    - by GIbboK
    Hi, I use EF4 and C#. I have a Table in my DataBase (MS SQL 2008) with a default value for a column SYSUTCDATETIME (). The Idea is to automatically add Date and Time as soon as a new record is Created. I create my Conceptual Model using EF4, and I have created an ASP.PAGE with a DetailsView Control in INSERT MODE. My problems: When I create a new Record. EF is not able to insert the actual Date and Time value but it inserts instead this value 0001-01-01 00:00:00.00. I suppose the EF is not able to use SYSUTCDATETIME () defined in my DataBase Any idea how to solve it? Thanks Here my SQL script CREATE TABLE dbo.CmsAdvertisers ( AdvertiserId int NOT NULL IDENTITY CONSTRAINT PK_CmsAdvertisers_AdvertiserId PRIMARY KEY, DateCreated dateTime2(2) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_DateCreated DEFAULT sysutcdatetime (), ReferenceAdvertiser varchar(64) NOT NULL, NoteInternal nvarchar(256) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_NoteInternal DEFAULT '' ); My Temporary solution: Please guys help me on this e.Values["DateCreated"] = DateTime.UtcNow; More info here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb387157.aspx How to use the default Entity Framework and default date values http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd296755.aspx

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  • Convert ADO.Net EF Connection String To Be SQL Azure Cloud Connection String Compatible!?

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I have written a Silverlight 3 Application that uses an SQL Server database. I'm moving the application onto the Cloud (Azure Platform). In order to do this I have had to setup my database on SQL Azure. I am using the ADO.Net Entity Framework to model my database. I have got the application running on the cloud, but I cannot get it to connect to the database. Below is the original localhost connection string, followed by the SQL Azure connection string that isn't working. The application itself runs fine, but fails when trying to retrieve data. The Original Localhost Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Data Source=localhost; Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith; Integrated Security=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Converted SQL Azure Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Server=tcp:MYSERVER.ctp.database.windows.net; Database=InmarsatZenith; UserID=MYUSERID;Password=MYPASSWORD; Trusted_Connection=False; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Question Anyone know if this connection string for SQL Azure is correct? Help greatly appreciated.

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  • Date formats in ActiveRecord / Rails 3

    - by cbmeeks
    In my model, I have a departure_date and a return_date. I am using a text_field instead of the date_select so that I can use the JQuery datepicker. My app is based in the US for now but I do hope to get international members. So basically this is what is happening. The user (US) types in a date such as 04/01/2010 (April 1st). Of course, MySQL stores it as a datetime such as 2010-04-01... Anyway, when the user goes to edit the date later on, it shows "01/04/2010" because I am using a strftime("%m/%d/%Y) which doesn't make sense....so it thinks it is January 4th instead of the original April 1st. It's like the only way to accurately store the data is for the user to type in: 2010-04-01 I hope all of this makes sense. What I am really after is a way for the user to type in (or use the datepicker) a date in their native format. So someone in Europe could type in 01/04/2010 for April 1st but someone in the US would type in 04/01/2010. Is there an easy, elegant solution to this? Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • alternative to JQuery form.submit() to do ajax post

    - by BluntTool
    Hello, I have a mvc2 application with a view like this <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("UserApprove", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "statusLights", OnSuccess = "HideButtons" }, new { id = "UserApprove" })) {%> <input type="button" value="Approve" onclick="$('#dialogApprove').dialog('open')" /> <div id="dialogApprove" title="Confirm"> <p> Are you sure you want to approve this request? </p> </div> <% } %> FYI, the controller returns a partial view back. I used to not have the jquery dialog and just simple a <input type="Submit" value="Approve" /> that used to work fine I added the jquery dialog and I have something like this to initialize the dialog. $("#dialogApprove").dialog({ autoOpen: false, draggable: true, resizable: false, buttons: { "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog("close") }, "Approve": function() { $("#UserApprove").submit(); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); The $("#UserApprove").submit(); does not seem to be doing an ajax post. It comes back with just the text from the partial view returned in a new page. I dont want to use the jquery form plugin which has .ajaxSubmit(). Is there any other way to force an ajax post from the jquery dialog "approve" button?

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  • Are there any ASP.NET MVC subscription-based starter kits or examples?

    - by Wayne M
    Basically something that handles the low-level "plumbing" code for a subscription-based service. I see a lot of things dealing with basic membership, but nothing that handles the subscription aspect (recurring billing, automated jobs for setting up billing, notification for billing, etc). This might be the one thing that keeps me from using ASP.NET MVC for my SaaS idea, since it would take a fair amount of development time to write my own; if I go with my other option, Ruby on Rails, I can buy a kit that does all of this for $250. I haven't found anything even remotely close to this for .NET - all of the SaaS sample apps I've seen are more like StackOverflow et all where you have one site that multiple people log on to, not the web application model where you have subscribers who are billed monthly, each of whom has users and other entities (e.g. Customers, Tasks, etc) for their own site. Is there anything similar for ASP.NET, or some kind of guidelines for writing my own if I have to, so I don't waste too much time? As a startup that means that I'm doing all the coding myself. I've found this, but it seems to only be for billing and didn't seem to have much (any?) documentation on exactly how to set it up.

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  • How can I save an entire list of items true or false?

    - by JZ
    I'm following Ryan Bates, Railscast episode 52 and I've translated relevant parts of the code to work with Rails 3.0.0.beta2. In Ryan's case, he simply marks items incomplete and saves a timestamp. If an Item contains a timestamp the model returns the item in the completed list. I'm attempting to save ALL values true or false, depending on whether the check_box_tag is selected or not (using boolean). I am able to save ONLY selected items, true or false. How can I save an entire list of items true or false, depending on whether the checkbox is selected? The following is my attempt: controller logic: def yardsign Add.update_all(["yardsign=?", true], :id => params[:yard_ids]) redirect_to adds_path end html.erb: <%= form_tag yardsign_adds_path, :method => :put do %> <% @adds.each do |add| %> <td><%= check_box_tag "yard_ids[]", add.id %></td> <% end %> <% end %> routes.rb resources :adds do collection do put :yardsign end end Terminal Started POST "/adds/yardsign" for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-15 19:22:49 Processing by AddsController#yardsign as HTML Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "yardsigntakers"=>["1", "2"], "authenticity_token"=>"3arhsxg/Ky+0W7RNM2T3QditMTJmOnLR5CqmMYWN4Qw="} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT "users".* FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."id" = 1) LIMIT 1 SQL (1.8ms) UPDATE "adds" SET yardsign='t' WHERE ("adds"."id" IN (1, 2)) Redirected to http://localhost:3000/adds

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  • MVVM Light - master / child views and dependency properties

    - by Carl Dickinson
    I'm getting an odd problem when implementing a master / child view and custom dependency properties. Within my master view I'm binding the view model declaratively in the XAML as follows: DataContext="{Binding MainViewModelProperty, Source={StaticResource Locator}}" and my MainViewModel is exposing an observable collection which I'm binding to an ItemsControl as follows: <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Lists}" Height="490" Canvas.Top="10" Width="70"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Canvas> <local:TaskListControl Canvas.Left="{Binding ListLeft}" Canvas.Top="{Binding ListTop}" Width="{Binding ListWidth}" Height="{Binding ListHeight}" ListDetails="{Binding}"/> </Canvas> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> TaskListControl in turn declares and bind to it's ViewModel and I've also defined a dependency property for the ListDetails property. The ListDetails property is not being set and if I remove the declarative reference to it's viewmodel the dependency property's callback does get fired. Is there a conflict with declaratively binding to viewmodels and definig dependency properties? I really like MVVM Light's blendability and want to perserve with this problem so any help would be apprectiated. If you'd like to receive the source for my project then please ask

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  • How to render a DateTime in a specific format in ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Slauma
    If I have in my model class a property of type DateTime how can I render it in a specific format - for example in the format which ToLongDateString() returns? I have tried this... @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString()) ...which throws an exception because the expression must point to a property or field. And this... @{var val = item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString(); Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => val); } ...which doesn't throw an exception, but the rendered output is empty (although val contains the expected value, as I could see in the debugger). Thanks for tips in advance! Edit ToLongDateString is only an example. What I actually want to use instead of ToLongDateString is a custom extension method of DateTime and DateTime?: public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime dateTime) { if (dateTime.TimeOfDay == TimeSpan.Zero) return dateTime.ToString("d"); else return dateTime.ToString("g"); } public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return dateTime.Value.FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(); else return ""; } So, I think I cannot use the DisplayFormat attribute and DataFormatString parameter on the ViewModel properties.

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  • Prevent empty tooltips at a wpf datagrid

    - by TheCalendarProgrammer
    I am working on a calendar program, which consists mainly of a WPF DataGrid. As there is not always enough space to display all the entries of a day (which is a DataGridCell), a tooltip with all the entries of the day shell appear at mouse over. This works so far with the code snippet shown below. And now the (little) problem: If there are no entries for a day, no tooltip shell pop up. With the code below an empty tooltip pops up. <DataGridTemplateColumn x:Name="Entry" IsReadOnly="True"> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock Text="{Binding EntryText}" Foreground="{Binding EntryForeground}" FontWeight="{Binding EntryFontWeight}"> </TextBlock> <TextBlock Text="{Binding RightAlignedText}" Foreground="Gray" Background="Transparent"> <TextBlock.ToolTip> <TextBlock Text="{Binding AllEntriesText}"/> </TextBlock.ToolTip> </TextBlock> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> The Databinding is made via myCalDataGrid.Itemssource = _listOfDays; in code behind, where a 'Day' is the view model for a single calendar row.

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  • How can i ignore map property in NHibernate with setter

    - by Emilio Montes
    i need ignore map property with setter in NHibernate, because the relationship between entities is required. this is my simple model public class Person { public virtual Guid PersonId { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string SecondName { get; set; } //this is the property that do not want to map public Credential Credential { get; set; } } public class Credential { public string CodeAccess { get; set; } public bool EsPremium { get; set; } } public sealed class PersonMap : ClassMapping<Person> { public PersonMap() { Table("Person"); Cache(x => x.Usage(CacheUsage.ReadWrite)); Id(x => x.Id, m => { m.Generator(Generators.GuidComb); m.Column("PersonId"); }); Property(x => x.FirstName, map => { map.NotNullable(true); map.Length(255); }); Property(x => x.SecondName, map => { map.NotNullable(true); map.Length(255); }); } } I know that if I leave the property Credential {get;} I was not going to take the map of NHibernate, but I need to set the value. Thanks in advance.

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  • Unittesting aspect-oriented features.

    - by Tomas Brambora
    Hi, I'd like to know what would you propose as the best way to unit test aspect-oriented application features (well, perhaps that's not the best name, but it's the best I was able to come up with :-) ) such as logging or security? These things are sort of omni-present in the application, so how to test them properly? E.g. say that I'm writing a Cherrypy web server in Python. I can use a decorator to check whether the logged-in user has the permission to access a given page. But then I'd need to write a test for every page to see whether it works oK (or more like to see that I had not forgotten to check security perms for that page). This could maybe (emphasis on maybe) be bearable if logging and/or security were implemented during the web server "normal business implementation". However, security and logging usually tend to be added to the app as an afterthough (or maybe that's just my experience, I'm usually given a server and then asked to implement security model :-) ). Any thoughts on this are very welcome. I have currently 'solved' this issue by, well - not testing this at all. Thanks.

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  • UITableView, having problems changing accessory when selected

    - by zpasternack
    I'm using a UITableView to allow selection of one (of many) items. Similar to the UI when selecting a ringtone, I want the selected item to be checked, and the others not. I would like to have the cell selected when touched, then animated back to the normal color (again, like the ringtone selection UI). A UIViewController subclass is my table's delegate and datasource (not UITableViewController, because I also have a toolbar in there). I'm setting the accessoryType of the cells in cellForRowAtIndexPath:, and updating my model when cells are selected in didSelectRowAtIndexPath:. The only way I can think of to set the selected cell to checkmark (and clear the previous one) is to call [tableView reloadData] in didSelectRowAtIndexPath:. However, when I do this, the animating of the cell deselection is weird (a white box appears where the cell's label should be). If I don't call reloadData, of course, the accessoryType won't change, so the checkmarks won't appear. I suppose I could turn the animation off, but that seems lame. I also toyed with getting and altering the cells in didSelectRowAtIndexPath:, but that's a big pain. Any ideas? Abbreviated code follows... - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell* aCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:kImageCell]; if( aCell == nil ) { aCell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:kImageCell]; } aCell.text = [imageNames objectAtIndex:[indexPath row]]; if( [indexPath row] == selectedImage ) { aCell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark; } else { aCell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; } return aCell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; selectedImage = [indexPath row] [tableView reloadData]; }

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  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validator

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

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  • Importing fixtures with foreign keys and SQLAlchemy?

    - by Chris Reid
    I've been experimenting with using fixture to load test data sets into my Pylons / PostgreSQL app. This works great except that it fails to properly create foreign keys if they reference an auto increment id field. My fixture looks like this: class AuthorsData(DataSet): class frank_herbert: first_name = "Frank" last_name = "Herbert" class BooksData(DataSet): class dune: title = "Dune" author_id = AuthorsData.frank_herbert.ref('id') And the model: t_authors = sa.Table("authors", meta.metadata, sa.Column("id", sa.types.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column("first_name", sa.types.String(100)), sa.Column("last_name", sa.types.String(100)), ) t_books = sa.Table("books", meta.metadata, sa.Column("id", sa.types.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column("title", sa.types.String(100)), sa.Column("author_id", sa.types.Integer, sa.ForeignKey('authors.id')) ) When running "paster setup-app development.ini", SQLAlchemey reports the FK value as "None" so it's obviously not finding it: 15:59:48,683 INFO [sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...9eb0] INSERT INTO books (title, author_id) VALUES (%(title)s, %(author_id)s) RETURNING books.id 15:59:48,683 INFO [sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...9eb0] {'author_id': None, 'title': 'Dune'} The fixture docs actually warn that this might be a problem: "However, in some cases you may need to reference an attribute that does not have a value until it is loaded, like a serial ID column. (Note that this is not supported by the SQLAlchemy data layer when using sessions.)" http://farmdev.com/projects/fixture/using-dataset.html#referencing-foreign-dataset-classes Does this mean that this is just not supported with SQLAlchemy? Or is it possible to load the data without using SA "sessions"? How are other people handling this issue?

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  • Selecting values from a multiselect not working in webkit

    - by azz0r
    Hello! The code below works fine in Firefox. However in Chrome and Safari it doesn't. Essentially it returns an array of values, then selects them from multiselect. However in Chrome and safari it doesn't select the items from the multiselect. $('form#movie select#movie_movie').click(function(){ var id = $(this).val(); $("#movie_category option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_model option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_gallery option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_playlist option:selected").attr('selected', ''); if (id != 0) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/administration/link/movie/id/"+id, dataType: 'json', beforeSend: function(x) { $.blockUI({theme: true, title: 'Loading', message: '<p>Please wait...</p>', timeout: 1000}); if(x && x.overrideMimeType) { x.overrideMimeType("application/json;charset=UTF-8"); } }, error: function() { $.unblockUI(); alert('Error loading object, please try again'); }, success: function(returned_values) { $.unblockUI(); $.each(returned_values.object.playlist || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_playlist option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.category || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_category option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.model || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_model option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.gallery || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_gallery option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); } }); } }); So the part that isn't working in them is: $("#movie_playlist option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected'); Any ideas??

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  • understanding the models in MVC

    - by fayer
    i cant fully understand the models in MVC. so i am using symfony with doctrine. the doctrine models are created. does this mean that i don't have to create any models? are the doctrine models the only models i need? where should i put the code that uses the doctrine models: eg. $phoneIds = array(); $phone1 = new Phonenumber(); $phone1['phonenumber'] = '555 202 7890'; $phone1->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone1['id']; $phone2 = new Phonenumber(); $phone2['phonenumber'] = '555 100 7890'; $phone2->save(); $phoneIds[] = $phone2['id']; $user = new User(); $user['username'] = 'jwage'; $user['password'] = 'changeme'; $user->save(); $user->link('Phonenumbers', $phoneIds); should this code be in the controller or in another model? and where should i validate these fields (check if it exists in database, that email is email etc)? could someone please shed a light on this. thanks.

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  • Mostly PJAX site with some AngularJS

    - by jrhicks
    I have a site using PJAX all over the place and I have a few pages that are using AngularJS. For the AngularJS pages I would like to continue to use PJAX to get all the benefits associated with not reloading the entire HTML page, assets etc. Unfortunately, PJAX just loads some HTML into the page and doesn't fire any javascript. This is okay, because I can fire the javascript manually on pjax success, but I can't quite figure out what makes AngularJS initialize. For a simple scenario, lets say I AJAX the following HTML into a page. Also assume, the page already had Angular.js included. What could I call to have the following behave like an Angular App? <div> <label>Name:</label> <input type="text" ng-model="yourName" placeholder="Enter a name here"> <hr> <h1>Hello {{yourName}}!</h1> </div> Thanks

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  • Sending multi-part email from Google App Engine using Spring's JavaMailSender fails

    - by hleinone
    It works without the multi-part (modified from the example in Spring documentation): final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage); message.setTo(toAddress); message.setFrom(fromAddress); message.setSubject(subject); final String htmlText = FreeMarkerTemplateUtils .processTemplateIntoString(configuration .getTemplate(htmlTemplate), model); message.setText(htmlText, true); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); But once I change it to: final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage, true); ... message.setText(plainText, htmlText); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); I get: Failed message 1: javax.mail.MessagingException: Converting attachment data failed at com.google.appengine.api.mail.stdimpl.GMTransport.sendMessage(GMTransport.java:231) at org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl.doSend(JavaMailSenderImpl.java:402) ... This is especially difficult since the GMTransport is proprietary Google class and no sources are available, which would make it a bit easier to debug. Anyone have any ideas what to try next? My bean config, for helping you to help me: <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" p:username="${mail.username}" p:password="${mail.password}" p:protocol="gm" />

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  • Override ActiveRecord#save, Method Alias? Trying to mixin functionality into save method...

    - by viatropos
    Here's the situation: I have a User model, and two modules for authentication: Oauth and Openid. Both of them override ActiveRecord#save, and have a fair share of implementation logic. Given that I can tell when the user is trying to login via Oauth vs. Openid, but that both of them have overridden save, how do "finally" override save such that I can conditionally call one of the modules' implementations of it? Here is the base structure of what I'm describing: module UsesOauth def self.included(base) base.class_eval do def save puts "Saving with Oauth!" end def save_with_oauth save end end end end module UsesOpenid def self.included(base) base.class_eval do def save puts "Saving with OpenID!" end def save_with_openid save end end end end module Sequencer def save if using_oauth? save_with_oauth elsif using_openid? save_with_openid else super end end end class User < ActiveRecord::Base include UsesOauth include UsesOpenid include Sequencer end I was thinking about using alias_method like so, but that got too complicated, because I might have 1 or 2 more similar modules. I also tried using those save_with_oauth methods (shown above), which almost works. The only thing that's missing is that I also need to call ActiveRecord::Base#save (the super method), so something like this: def save_with_oauth # do this and that super.save # the rest end But I'm not allowed to do that in ruby. Any ideas for a clever solution to this?

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  • Represent multiple Null/Generic objects in an ActiveRecord association?

    - by slothbear
    I have a Casefile model that belongs_to a Doctor. In additional to all the "real" doctors, there are several generic Doctors: "self-treated", "not specified", and "removed" (it used to have a real doctor, but no longer does). I suspect there will be even more generic values in the future. I started with special "doctors" in the database, generated from seed. The generic Doctors only need to respond to the "name" and "real_doctor?" methods. This worked with one, was strained with two, and now feels completely broken. I want to change the behavior and can't figure out how to test it, a bad sign. Creating all the generic objects for testing is also trouble, including fake values to pass validation of the required Doctor attributes. The Null Object pattern works well for one generic object. The "name" method could check casefile.doctor.nil? and return "self-treated", as demonstrated by Craig Ambrose. What pattern should I use when there are multiple generic objects with very limited state?

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  • Eclipselink update existing tables

    - by javydreamercsw
    Maybe I got it wrong but i though that JPA was able to update an existing table (model changed adding a column) but is not working in my case. I can see in the logs eclipselink attempting to create it but failing because it already exists. Instead of trying an update to add the column it keeps going. (Had to remove some < so it displays) property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/jwrestling"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.password" value="password"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.user" value="user"/ property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="create-tables"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.logger" value="org.eclipse.persistence.logging.DefaultSessionLog"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.level" value="INFO"/ And here's the table with the change (online column added) [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.044--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLSyntaxErrorException: Table 'account' already exists Error Code: 1050 Call: CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID)) Query: DataModifyQuery(sql="CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID))") [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.074--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException After this it continues with the following. Am I doing something wrong or is a bug?

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  • Jquery datatable Hidden column showing after calling another script .how can i hide the column specified permanently?

    - by Sreenath Plakkat
    My table is <table id="EmployeesTable" style="width: 100%;" class="grid-table06 border-one"> <thead> <tr> <th width="80%" align="left" valign="middle">Name</th> <th width="20%" align="left" valign="middle">Department</th> <th>Id</th> </tr> </thead> </table> My script as follows $(function () { $(".switchDate").click(function () { var id = $(this).attr("rel"); fetchEmployeedetails(id); }); fetchEmployeedetails(@model.Id); //on load function fetchEmployeedetails(id) { $("#EmployeesTable").dataTable({ "bProcessing": true, "bServerSide": true, "sAjaxSource": "/Employees/FetchDetails?Deptid=" + id + "&thresholdLow=4&threshold=100", "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "bDestroy": true, "aaSorting": [[1, 'desc']], "asStripClasses": ['color01', 'color03'], "aoColumnDefs": [{ "aTargets": [2], "bVisible": false }, { "aTargets": [1], "fnRender": function (oObj) { return "<a href='#showemployees' rel='" + oObj.aData[2] + "'></a>"; } }] }); } }); On load it works fine not showing the hidden "Id" column but in case when I choose the id by switchDate on click function it causes the hidden column to be visible for second. How can I hide the column permanently?

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