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Surprising results with .NET multi-theading algorithm

- by Myles J

Hi, I've recently wrote a C# console time tabling algorithm that is based on a combination of a genetic algorithm with a few brute force routines thrown in. The initial results were promising but I figured I could improve the performance by splitting the brute force routines up to run in parallel on multi processor architectures. To do this I used the well documented Producer/Consumer model (as documented in this fantastic article http://www.albahari.com/threading/part2.aspx#_ProducerConsumerQWaitHandle). I changed my code to create one thread per logical processor during the brute force routines. The performance gains on my work station were very pleasing. I am running Windows XP on the following hardware: Intel Core 2 Quad CPU 2.33 GHz 3.49 GB RAM Initial tests indicated average performance gains of approx 40% when using 4 threads. The next step was to deploy the new multi-threading version of the algorithm to our higher spec UAT server. Here is the spec of our UAT server: Windows 2003 Server R2 Enterprise x64 8 cpu (Quad-Core) AMD Opteron 2.70 GHz 255 GB RAM After running the first round of tests we were all extremely surprised to find that the algorithm actually runs slower on the high spec W2003 server than on my local XP work station! In fact the tests seem to indicate that it doesn't matter how many threads are generated (tests were ran with the app spawning between 2 to 32 threads). The algorithm always runs significantly slower on the UAT W2003 server? How could this be? Surely the app should run faster on a 8 cpu (Quad-Core) than my 2 Quad work station? Why are we seeing no performance gains with the multi-threading on the W2003 server whilst the XP workstation tests show gains of up to 40%? Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Regards Myles

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symfony get data from array

- by iggnition

Hi, I'm trying to use an SQL query to get data from my database into the template of a symfony project. my query: SQL: SELECT l.loc_id AS l__loc_id, l.naam AS l__naam, l.straat AS l__straat, l.huisnummer AS l__huisnummer, l.plaats AS l__plaats, l.postcode AS l__postcode, l.telefoon AS l__telefoon, l.opmerking AS l__opmerking, o.org_id AS o__org_id, o.naam AS o__naam FROM locatie l LEFT JOIN organisatie o ON l.org_id = o.org_id This is generated by this DQL: DQL: $this->q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('l.naam, o.naam, l.straat, l.huisnummer, l.plaats, l.postcode, l.telefoon, l.opmerking') ->from('Locatie l') ->leftJoin('l.Organisatie o') ->execute(); But now when i try to acces this data in the template by either doing: <?php foreach ($q as $locatie): ?> <?php echo $locatie['o.naam'] ?> or <?php foreach ($q as $locatie): ?> <?php echo $locatie['o__naam'] ?> i get the error from symfony: 500 | Internal Server Error | Doctrine_Record_UnknownPropertyException Unknown record property / related component "o__naam" on "Locatie" Does anyone know what is going wrong here? i dont know how to call the value from the array if the names in both query's dont work.

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Execute Ant task with Maven

- by Gonzalo

Hi, I'm trying to execute with Maven some test written using Ant tasks. I generated the files required to import the task into Maven, but I can't execute them. My POM is defined this way: <build> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-ant-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.1</version> <executions> <execution> <phase>generate-sources</phase> <configuration> <tasks> <echo message="Hello, maven"/> </tasks> </configuration> <goals> <goal>run</goal> </goals> </execution> </executions> </plugin> </plugins> </build> I try to execute that message, but I get an error with run: [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] 'run' was specified in an execution, but not found in the plugin But, if I run: "mvn antrun:run", I know that this can not run the task. An if I've different targets, how do I call them from Maven? I've the pom.xml, and build.xml with the ant tasks. Thanks. Gonzalo

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Problem with custom Equality and GetHashCode in a mutable object

- by Shimmy

Hello! I am using Entity Framework in my application. I implemented with the partial class of an entity the IEquatable<T> interface: Partial Class Address : Implements IEquatable(Of Address) 'Other part generated Public Overloads Function Equals(ByVal other As Address) As Boolean _ Implements System.IEquatable(Of Address).Equals If ReferenceEquals(Me, other) Then Return True Return AddressId = other.AddressId End Function Public Overrides Function Equals(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean If obj Is Nothing Then Return MyBase.Equals(obj) If TypeOf obj Is Address Then Return Equals(DirectCast(obj, Address)) Else Return False End Function Public Overrides Function GetHashCode() As Integer Return AddressId.GetHashCode End Function End Class Now in my code I use it this way: Sub Main() Using e As New CompleteKitchenEntities Dim job = e.Job.FirstOrDefault Dim address As New Address() job.Addresses.Add(address) Dim contains1 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'True e.SaveChanges() Dim contains2 = job.Addresses.Contains(address) 'False 'The problem is that I can't remove it: Dim removed = job.Addresses.Remoeve(address) 'False End Using End Sub Note (I checked in the debugger visualizer) that the EntityCollection class stores its entities in HashSet so it has to do with the GetHashCode function, I want it to depend on the ID so entities are compared by their IDs. The problem is that when I hit save, the ID changes from 0 to its db value. So the question is how can I have an equatable object, being properly hashed. Please help me find what's wrong in the GetHashCode function (by ID) and what can I change to make it work. Thanks a lot.

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How does Subsonic handle connections?

- by Quintin Par

In Nhibernate you start a session by creating it during a BeginRequest and close at EndRequest public class Global: System.Web.HttpApplication { public static ISessionFactory SessionFactory = CreateSessionFactory(); protected static ISessionFactory CreateSessionFactory() { return new Configuration() .Configure(Path.Combine(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory, "hibernate.cfg.xml")) .BuildSessionFactory(); } public static ISession CurrentSession { get{ return (ISession)HttpContext.Current.Items["current.session"]; } set { HttpContext.Current.Items["current.session"] = value; } } protected void Global() { BeginRequest += delegate { CurrentSession = SessionFactory.OpenSession(); }; EndRequest += delegate { if(CurrentSession != null) CurrentSession.Dispose(); }; } } What’s the equivalent in Subsonic? The way I understand, Nhibernate will close all the connections at endrequest. Reason: While trouble shooting some legacy code in a Subsonic project I get a lot of MySQL timeouts,suggesting that the code is not closing the connections MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlException: error connecting: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to obtaining a connection from the pool. This may have occurred because all pooled connections were in use and max pool size was reached. Generated: Tue, 11 Aug 2009 05:26:05 GMT System.Web.HttpUnhandledException: Exception of type 'System.Web.HttpUnhandledException' was thrown. --- MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlException: error connecting: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to obtaining a connection from the pool. This may have occurred because all pooled connections were in use and max pool size was reached. at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlPool.GetConnection() at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlConnection.Open() at SubSonic.MySqlDataProvider.CreateConnection(String newConnectionString) at SubSonic.MySqlDataProvider.CreateConnection() at SubSonic.AutomaticConnectionScope..ctor(DataProvider provider) at SubSonic.MySqlDataProvider.GetReader(QueryCommand qry) at SubSonic.DataService.GetReader(QueryCommand cmd) at SubSonic.ReadOnlyRecord`1.LoadByParam(String columnName, Object paramValue) My connection string is as follows <connectionStrings> <add name="xx" connectionString="Data Source=xx.net; Port=3306; Database=db; UID=dbuid; PWD=xx;Pooling=true;Max Pool Size=12;Min Pool Size=2;Connection Lifetime=60" /> </connectionStrings>

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Credit card system implementation?

- by Mark

My site is going to have a credit system that basically works a lot like a credit card. Each user has an unlimited credit limit, but at the end of each week, they have to pay it off. For example, a user might make several purchases between March 1st and 7th, and then at the end of March 7th, they would be emailed an invoice that lists all their purchases during the week and a total that is due by the 14th. If they don't pay it off, their account is simply deactivated until they do. I'm just trying to wrap my head around how to implement this. I have a list of all their purchases, that's not a problem, but I'm just trying to figure out what to do with it. On the end of the 7th day, I could set up a cronjob to generate an invoice, which would basically have an id, and due date, and then I would need another many-to-many table to link all the purchases to the invoice. Then when a user adds money to their account, I guess it's applied against their current outstanding invoice? And what if they don't pay off their invoice by the time a new invoice rolls around, so now they have 2 outstanding ones, how do I know which to apply it against? Or do I make the cronjob check for any previous outstanding invoices, cancel them, and add a new item to the new invoice as "balance forward (+interest)"? How would you apply the money against an invoice? Would each payment have to be linked to an invoice, or could I just deposit it to their account credit, and then somehow figure out whats been paid and what hasn't? What if they pay in advance, before their invoice has been generated? Do I deduct it from their credit from the invoice upon generation, or at the end of the week when its due? There are so many ways to do this... Can anyone describe what approach they would take?

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TeamCity and pending Git merge branch commit keeps build with failed tests

- by Vladimir

We use TeamCity for continuous integration and Git for source control. Generally it works pretty well - convenient, modern and good us quick feedback when tests fails. There is a strange behavior related to Git merge specifics. Here are steps of the case: First developer pulls from master repo. Second developer pulls from master repo. First developer makes commit A locally. Second developer makes commit B locally; Second developer pushes commit B. First developer want to push commit A but unable because he have to pull commit B first. First developer pull's from remote reposity. First developer pushes commit A and generated merge branch commit. The history of commits in master repo is following: B second developer A first developer merge branch first developer. Now let's assume that Second Developer fixed some failing tests in his commit B. What TeamCity will do is following: Commit B arrives - TeamCity makes build #1 with all tests passed Commit A arrives - TeamCity makes build #2 (without commit B) test bar becomes Red! TeamCity thought that Pending "Merge Branch" commit doesn't contain any changes (any new files) - but it actually does contain the merge of commit B, so the TeamCity don't want to make new build here and make tests green. Here are two problems: 1. In our case we have failed tests returning back in second commit (commit A) 2. TeamCity don't want to make a new build and make tests back green. Does anybody know how to fix both of this problems. I consider some reasonable general approach.

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Rails: Ajax: Changes Onload

- by Jay Godse

Hi. I have a web layout of a for that looks something like this <html> <head> </head> <body> <div id="posts"> <div id="post1" class="post" >  </div> <div id="post2" class="post" >  </div>  <div id="post99" class="post" >  </div> </div> </body> </html> I would like to be able to load and render the page with a blank , and then have a function called when the page is loaded which goes in and load up the posts and updates the page dynamically. In Rails, I tried using "link_to_remote" to update with all of the elements. I also tweaked the posts controller to render the collection of posts if it was an ajax request (request.xhr?). It worked fine and very fast. However the update of the blank div is triggered by clicking the link. I would like the same action to happen when the page is loaded so that I don't have to put in a link. Is there a Rails Ajax helper or RJS function or something in Rails that I could use to trigger the loading of the "posts" after the page has loaded and rendered (without the posts)? (If putsch comes to shove, I will just copy the generated JS code from the link_to_remote call and have it called from the onload handler on the body).

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Invalidating Memcached Keys on save() in Django

- by Zack

I've got a view in Django that uses memcached to cache data for the more highly trafficked views that rely on a relatively static set of data. The key word is relatively: I need invalidate the memcached key for that particular URL's data when it's changed in the database. To be as clear as possible, here's the meat an' potatoes of the view (Person is a model, cache is django.core.cache.cache): def person_detail(request, slug): if request.is_ajax(): cache_key = "%s_ABOUT_%s" % settings.SITE_PREFIX, slug # Check the cache to see if we've already got this result made. json_dict = cache.get(cache_key) # Was it a cache hit? if json_dict is None: # That's a negative Ghost Rider person = get_object_or_404(Person, display = True, slug = slug) json_dict = { 'name' : person.name, 'bio' : person.bio_html, 'image' : person.image.extra_thumbnails['large'].absolute_url, } cache.set(cache_key) # json_dict will now exist, whether it's from the cache or not response = HttpResponse() response['Content-Type'] = 'text/javascript' response.write(simpljson.dumps(json_dict)) # Make sure it's all properly formatted for JS by using simplejson return response else: # This is where the fully templated response is generated What I want to do is get at that cache_key variable in it's "unformatted" form, but I'm not sure how to do this--if it can be done at all. Just in case there's already something to do this, here's what I want to do with it (this is from the Person model's hypothetical save method) def save(self): # If this is an update, the key will be cached, otherwise it won't, let's see if we can't find me try: old_self = Person.objects.get(pk=self.id) cache_key = # Voodoo magic to get that variable old_key = cache_key.format(settings.SITE_PREFIX, old_self.slug) # Generate the key currently cached cache.delete(old_key) # Hit it with both barrels of rock salt # Turns out this doesn't already exist, let's make that first request even faster by making this cache right now except DoesNotExist: # I haven't gotten to this yet. super(Person, self).save() I'm thinking about making a view class for this sorta stuff, and having functions in it like remove_cache or generate_cache since I do this sorta stuff a lot. Would that be a better idea? If so, how would I call the views in the URLconf if they're in a class?

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Templates vs. coded HTML

- by Alan Harris-Reid

I have a web-app consisting of some html forms for maintaining some tables (SQlite, with CherryPy for web-server stuff). First I did it entirely 'the Python way', and generated html strings via. code, with common headers, footers, etc. defined as functions in a separate module. I also like the idea of templates, so I tried Jinja2, which I find quite developer-friendly. In the beginning I thought templates were the way to go, but that was when pages were simple. Once .css and .js files were introduced (not necessarily in the same folder as the .html files), and an ever-increasing number of {{...}} variables and {%...%} commands were introduced, things started getting messy at design-time, even though they looked great at run-time. Things got even more difficult when I needed additional javascript in the or sections. As far as I can see, the main advantages of using templates are: Non-dynamic elements of page can easily be viewed in browser during design. Except for {} placeholders, html is kept separate from python code. If your company has a web-page designer, they can still design without knowing Python. while some disadvantages are: {{}} delimiters visible when viewed at design-time in browser Associated .css and .js files have to be in same folder to see effects in browser at design-time. Data, variables, lists, etc., must be prepared in advanced and either declared globally or passed as parameters to render() function. So - when to use 'hard-coded' HTML, and when to use templates? I am not sure of the best way to go, so I would be interested to hear other developers' views. TIA, Alan

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Optional route parameters in ASP.NET 4 RTM no longer work as before

- by Simon_Weaver

I upgraded my project to ASP.NET 4 RTM with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM today. I was previously using ASP.NET 3.5 with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM. Some of my routes don't work suddenly and I don't know why. I'm not sure if something changed between 3.5 and 4.0 - or if this was a regression type issue in the 4.0 RTM. (I never previously tested my app with 4.0). I like to use Url.RouteUrl("route-name", routeParams) to avoid ambiguity when generating URLs. Here's my route definition for a gallery page. I want imageID to be optional (you get a thumbnail page if you don't specify it). // gallery id routes.MapRoute( "gallery-route", "gallery/{galleryID}/{imageID}/{title}", new { controller = "Gallery", action = "Index", galleryID = (string) null, imageID = (string) null, title = (string) null} ); In .NET 3.5 / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => /gallery/cats Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles In .NET 4.0 RTM / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => null Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles Previously I could supply only the galleryID and everything else would be ignored in the generated URL. But now it's looking like I need to specify all the parameters up until title - or it gives up in determining the URL. Incoming URLs work fine for /gallery/cats and that is correctly mapped through this rule with imageID and title both being assigned null in my controller. I also tested the INCOMING routes with http://haacked.com/archive/2008/03/13/url-routing-debugger.aspx and they all work fine.

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Render label for a field inside ASP.NET MVC 2 editor templates

- by artvolk

I'm starting to use DataAnnotations in ASP.NET MVC and strongly typed template helpers. Now I have this in my views (Snippet is my custom type, Created is DateTime): <tr> <td><%= Html.LabelFor(f => Model.Snippet.Created) %>:</td> <td><%= Html.EditorFor(f => Model.Snippet.Created)%></td> </tr> The editor template for DateTime is like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<System.DateTime>" %> <%=Html.TextBox("", Model.ToString("g"))%> But now I want to put inside editor template the whole <tr>, so I'd like to have just this in my view: <%= Html.EditorFor(f => Model.Snippet.Created)%> And something like this in editor template, but I don't know how to render for for label attribute, it should be Snippet_Created for my example, the same as id\name for textbox, so pseudo code: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<System.DateTime>" %> <tr> <td><label for="<What to place here???>"><%=ViewData.ModelMetadata.DisplayName %></label></td> <td><%=Html.TextBox("", Model.ToString("g"))%></td> </tr> The Html.TextBox() have the first parameter empty and id\name for textbox is generated corectly. Thanks in advance!

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Blueprint CSS & Boks: strange behavior with prepend and append in FF and Chrome

- by Shyam

Hi, I am working a bit with Blueprint CSS framework and I stumbled upon Boks. I am pretty unfamiliar with the BPCSS framework, but it seems that when using prepend and append, Firefox and Chrome (both) are not liking the input. I generated the code from Boks and for my newbe eye-sight, I can't directly see what went wrong in the export. Even though the span-sizes are correct, they are mutated :S Please help me! <div class="container showgrid">  <div class="span-3 prepend-2" id="bar-menuitems"> </div> <div class="span-6 prepend-4" id="banner-logo"> </div> <div class="span-3 prepend-4 append-2 last" id="bar-socialmedia"> </div>  <div class="clear span-20 prepend-2 append-2 last" id="pane-graphics"> </div>  <div class="clear span-5 prepend-2" id="banner-xx1"> </div> <div class="span-5" id="banner-xx2"> </div> <div class="span-5" id="banner-xx3"> </div> <div class="span-5 append-2 last" id="banner-xx4"> </div>  <div class="clear span-6 prepend-9 append-9 last" id="bar-footer"> </div> </div>

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semi dynamic cdn

- by dwi kristianto

i'm developing couple of websites using php (directory script, etc.) and wordpress as cms. i need to improve its performance, by using cdn for static files (css, js, images). the problem is, css and javascript files are generated on the fly. i did that due to yahoo and some expert advice to combine the files into one file. also changing basic color of css files. for the time being, i use couple of small vps but still its not fast enough. i already contact maxcdn and the support guy said that they dont have such kind of services. what i need is: a cdn that will serve the request from user/visitor and there's no file in local disk, the cdn will redirect/fetch it from another domain/server. in vps, it could be done easily using combination of .htaccess and php, but NOT in the cdn. most of cdn only support purely static files. is there any such cdn that will server semi-dynamic files?

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Write binary data as a response in an ASP.NET MVC web control

- by Lou Franco

I am trying to get a control that I wrote for ASP.NET to work in an ASP.NET MVC environment. Normally, the control does the normal thing, and that works fine Sometimes it needs to respond by clearing the response, writing an image to the response stream and changing the content type. When you do this, you get an exception "OutputStream is not available when a custom TextWriter is used". If I were a page or controller, I see how I can create custom responses with binary data, but I can't see how to do this from inside a control's render functions. To simplify it -- imagine I want to make a web control that renders to: <img src="pageThatControlIsOn?controlImage"> And I know how to look at incoming requests and recognize query strings that should be routed to the control. Now the control is supposed to respond with a generated image (content-type: image/png -- and the encoded image). In ASP.NET, we: Response.Clear(); Response.OutputStream.Write(thePngData); // this throws in MVC // set the content type, etc Response.End(); How am I supposed to do that in an ASP.NET MVC control?

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Why can't Doctrine retrieve my model data?

- by scottm

So, I'm trying to use Doctrine to retrieve some data. I have some basic code like this: $conn = Doctrine_Manager::connection(CONNECTION_STRING); $site = Doctrine_Core::getTable('Site')->find('00024'); echo $site->SiteName; However, this keeps throwing a SQL error that 'column siteid does not exist'. When I look at the exception the SQL query is this (you can see the error is that the inner_tbl alias for siteid is set to s__siteid, so querying inner_tabl.siteid is what's broken): SELECT TOP 1 [inner_tbl].[siteid] AS [s__siteid] FROM (SELECT TOP 1 [s].[siteid] AS [s__siteid], [s].[name] AS [s__name], [s].[address] AS [s__address], [s].[city] AS [s__city], [s].[zip] AS [s__zip], [s].[state] AS [s__state], [s].[region] AS [s__region], [s].[callprocessor] AS [s__callprocessor], [s].[active] AS [s__active], [s].[dateadded] AS [s__dateadded] FROM [Sites] [s] WHERE ([s].[siteid] = '00024') ) AS [inner_tbl] Why is the query being generated this way? Could it be the way the Yaml schema is laid out? Site: connection: 0 tableName: Sites columns: siteid: type: string(5) fixed: true unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false name: type: string(300) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false address: type: string(100) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: false primary: false autoincrement: false city: type: string(100) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: false primary: false autoincrement: false zip: type: string(5) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: false primary: false autoincrement: false state: type: string(2) fixed: true unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false region: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true default: (5) primary: false autoincrement: false callprocessor: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false active: type: integer(1) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false dateadded: type: timestamp(16) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true default: (getdate()) primary: false autoincrement: false

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How to use Svn Version Task to set the Version of a vb project

- by SchlaWiener

I have a Visual Studio 2008 Solution where the main output exe is a VB.Net Winforms exe which has several VB.Net and C# dll's linked from the same solution. The whole solution is under version control with subversion. Now I want to automagically update by generated files with the current svn revision number. For this purpose I found this neat project: http://svnversiontasks.codeplex.com/ You also need the MSBuild.Communuity.Tasks for this to work. There was a msbuild example on how to update the rev number for every single project in your solution which I use: <Import Project="$(MSBuildExtensionsPath)\SvnTools.Targets\SvnTools.Tasks.VersionManagement.Tasks" /> <Target Name="build"> <CreateItem Include="../**/AssemblyInfo.vb;../**/AssemblyInfo.cs;../**/Properties/AssemblyInfo.cs"> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="AssemblyInfoFiles" /> </CreateItem> <CreateItem Include="../**/*.vdproj;*.vdproj"> <Output TaskParameter="Include" ItemName="DeploymentProjectFiles" /> </CreateItem> <UpdateVersion AssemblyInfoFiles="@(AssemblyInfoFiles)" DeploymentProjectFiles="@(DeploymentProjectFiles)" Format="yyyy.mm.dd.rev" /> <Exec Command=""$(VS90COMNTOOLS)..\IDE\devenv" ..\MyApp.sln /build" /> <RevertVersionChange AssemblyInfoFiles="@(AssemblyInfoFiles)" DeploymentProjectFiles="@(DeploymentProjectFiles)" /> </Target> I modified the original file to also include the AssemblyInfo.vb file and saved it as a msbuild.proj file. However if I execute msbuild from the console I see that the C# projects are updated (I can also confirm that from the properties of the output dll but my vb project remains unchanged: Reverting version number change: ../App1\AssemblyInfo.vb Updating version number (to rev 0) for file: ../App1\AssemblyInfo.vb D:\Source\MyApp\MyAppDeploy\MyAppDeploy.csproj : warning : Version attribute not found, file not updated. Reverting version number change: ../App2\Properties\AssemblyInfo.cs Updating version number (to rev 0) for file: ../App2\Properties\AssemblyInfo.cs Successfully updated file. Maybe the task does not support VB.Net. But maybe someone has a solution for this...

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How to use jaxp 3 with jdk 1.6?

- by Michal

I'm trying to migrate application from jdk 1.5 to jdk 1.6 without introducing any changes visible to the end user. Application's output is an xml generated using jaxp which is a part of the jdk libraries. Since jaxp versions are different in jdk 1.5 and 1.6, the resulting xml looks different in each version. An example: DatatypeFatory.newInstance().newDuration(60) produces 'PT2H17M0.000S' in jdk 1.5 and 'P0Y0M0DT2H17M0.000S' in jdk 1.6. Both are correct, but i want to avoid any visible changes. Classes like DatatypeFactory have a mechanism which allows specifying which implementation should be used, but it relies on specifying full qualified class name. So theoretically i could download jaxp jars with the same version which is used in jdk 1.5 and let the application use them. Unfortunately the package and class names are the same in both versions, so i would have to somehow tell java to load classes from jar and not jdk. I was trying to put jaxp jars at the beginning of the classpath, but it didn't help. Is it possible to tell java to load classes from external jar and not jdk libraries? Can i solve this problem in any other way? Thanks in advance

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writing a web service with dynamically determined web methods

- by quillbreaker

Let's say I have a text file of basic mathematical functions. I want to make a web service that answers these mathematical functions. Say the first one is y=x*x. If I wanted to turn this into a web service, I could simply do this: [WebMethod] public int A(int x) { return x*x; } However, I've extracted the function from the list by hand and coded it into a function by hand. That's not what I want to do. I want the wsdl for the service to be generated at call time directly from the text file, and I want the web method calls to the service to go to a specific method that also parses the text file at run time. How much heavy lifting is this? I've found a sample on how to generate WSDLs dynamically at this link, but there's a lot more to do beyond that and I don't want to bark up this tree if there are parts of the project that arn't feasible. Does anyone have any links, guides, books, or positive experiences trying this kind of thing?

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Is it possible to use OAuth starting from the service provider website?

- by Brian Armstrong

I want to let people create apps that use my API and authenticate them with OAuth. Normally this process starts from the consumer service website (say TwitPic) and they request an access token from the service provider (Twitter). The user is then taken to the service provider website where they have to allow/deny access to to the consumer. I'm wondering if it's possible to initiate this process from the service provider website instead. So in this example you would start on Twitter's site, and maybe there is a section marked "do you want to turn on access for TwitPic?". If you click yes, it passes the access token directly to TwitPic which now has access to your account. Basically, fewer steps. I'm looking at the OAuth docs and it looks like the request token is generated on the consumer side and used later to turn it into an access token. So it's not really designed with what I described above in mind, but I thought there might be a way. http://oauth.net/core/1.0/ (Search for "steps") Thanks!

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How can I attach a file using Wordpress custom fields / meta boxes?

- by shipshape

I am using Wordpress's add_meta_box() function to add customized meta fields to the Add New Post page, like this. I want one of these fields to allow the user to upload a file, so that a single image, pdf, audio file, or video can be associated with the post. The closest example I've seen is this one. Unfortunately it does not suit my needs, as I want my file to be processed by Wordpress's Media Uploader - so it should appear in the Media Library afterwards, and thumbnails should be generated according to the Media settings. I think ideally there would be a way to tap into Wordpress's existing Add Media dialog, and simply output the URL of the uploaded file into a text box, but I don't see how to do that. This question is similar, but the answers are a little clunky - I would like to keep this super simple for my end users. How can I accomplish this? Please do not recommend plugins such as Flutter or Magic Fields - I have tried these and they do not suit my purposes (I want the images to be processed by Wordpress's Media Uploader). I am using Wordpress 3.0-alpha. Thanks!

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UTL_FILE.FOPEN() procedure not accepting path for directory ?

- by Vineet

I am trying to write in a file stored in c:\ drive named vin1.txt and getting this error .Please suggest! > ERROR at line 1: ORA-29280: invalid > directory path ORA-06512: at > "SYS.UTL_FILE", line 18 ORA-06512: at > "SYS.UTL_FILE", line 424 ORA-06512: at > "SCOTT.SAL_STATUS", line 12 ORA-06512: > at line 1 HERE is the code create or replace procedure sal_status ( p_file_dir IN varchar2, p_filename IN varchar2) IS v_filehandle utl_file.file_type; cursor emp Is select * from employees order by department_id; v_dep_no departments.department_id%TYPE; begin v_filehandle :=utl_file.fopen(p_file_dir,p_filename,'w');--Opening a file utl_file.putf(v_filehandle,'SALARY REPORT :GENERATED ON %s\n',SYSDATE); utl_file.new_line(v_filehandle); for v_emp_rec IN emp LOOP v_dep_no :=v_emp_rec.department_id; utl_file.putf(v_filehandle,'employee %s earns:s\n',v_emp_rec.last_name,v_emp_rec.salary); end loop; utl_file.put_line(v_filehandle,'***END OF REPORT***'); UTL_FILE.fclose(v_filehandle); end sal_status; execute sal_status('C:\','vin1.txt');--Executing

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Getting SSL to work with Apache/Passenger on OSX

- by jonnii

I use apache/passenger on my development machine, but need to add SSL support (something which isn't exposed through the control panel). I've done this before in production, but for some reason I can't seem to get it work on OSX. The steps I've followed so far are from a default apache osx install: Install passenger and passenger preference pane. Add my rails app (this works) Create my ca.key, server.crt and server.key as detailed on the apple website. At this point I need to start editing the apache configs, so I added: # Apache knows to listen on port 443 for ssl requests. Listen 443 Listen 80 I thought I'd try editing the passenger pref pane generated config first to get everything working, when I add: It starts off looking like this <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName myapp.local DocumentRoot "/Users/jonnii/programming/ruby/myapp/public" RailsEnv development <Directory "/Users/jonnii/programming/ruby/myapp/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost> I then append this: <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName myapp.local DocumentRoot "/Users/jonnii/programming/ruby/myapp/public" RailsEnv development <directory "/Users/jonnii/programming/ruby/myapp/public"> Order allow,deny Allow from all </directory> # SSL Configuration SSLEngine on SSLCipherSuite ALL:!ADH:!EXPORT56:RC4+RSA:+HIGH:+MEDIUM:+LOW:+SSLv2:+EXP SSLOptions +FakeBasicAuth +ExportCertData +StdEnvVars +StrictRequire #Self Signed certificates SSLCertificateFile /private/etc/apache2/ssl.key/server.crt SSLCertificateKeyFile /private/etc/apache2/ssl.key/server.key SSLCertificateChainFile /private/etc/apache2/ssl.key/ca.crt SetEnvIf User-Agent ".*MSIE.*" nokeepalive ssl-unclean-shutdown downgrade-1.0 force-response-1.0 </VirtualHost> The files referenced all exist (I doubled checked that), but now when I restart my apache I can't even get to myapp.local. However apache can still server the default page when I click on it in the sharing preference panel. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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haskell: a data structure for storing ascending integers with a very fast lookup

- by valya

Hello! (This question is related to my previous question, or rather to my answer to it.) I want to store all qubes of natural numbers in a structure and look up specific integers to see if they are perfect cubes. For example, cubes = map (\x -> x*x*x) [1..] is_cube n = n == (head $ dropWhile (<n) cubes) It is much faster than calculating the cube root, but It has complexity of O(n^(1/3)) (am I right?). I think, using a more complex data structure would be better. For example, in C I could store a length of an already generated array (not list - for faster indexing) and do a binary search. It would be O(log n) with lower ?oefficient than in another answer to that question. The problem is, I can't express it in Haskell (and I don't think I should). Or I can use a hash function (like mod). But I think it would be much more memory consuming to have several lists (or a list of lists), and it won't lower the complexity of lookup (still O(n^(1/3))), only a coefficient. I thought about a kind of a tree, but without any clever ideas (sadly I've never studied CS). I think, the fact that all integers are ascending will make my tree ill-balanced for lookups. And I'm pretty sure this fact about ascending integers can be a great advantage for lookups, but I don't know how to use it properly (see my first solution which I can't express in Haskell).

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Spelling correction for data normalization in Java

- by dareios

I am looking for a Java library to do some initial spell checking / data normalization on user generated text content, imagine the interests entered in a Facebook profile. This text will be tokenized at some point (before or after spell correction, whatever works better) and some of it used as keys to search for (exact match). It would be nice to cut down misspellings and the like to produce more matches. It would be even better if the correction would perform well on tokens longer than just one word, e.g. "trinking coffee" would become "drinking coffee" and not "thinking coffee". I found the following Java libraries for doing spelling correction: JAZZY does not seem to be under active development. Also, the dictionary-distance based approach seems inadequate because of the use of non-standard language in social network profiles and multi-word tokens. APACHE LUCENE seems to have a statistical spell checker that should be much more suited. Question here would how to create a good dictionary? (We are not using Lucene otherwise, so there is no existing index.) Any suggestions are welcome!

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