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  • Tool to detect use/abuse of String.Concat (where StringBuilder should be used)

    - by Mark Rushakoff
    It's common knowledge that you shouldn't use a StringBuilder in place of a small number of concatenations: string s = "Hello"; if (greetingWorld) { s += " World"; } s += "!"; However, in loops of a significant size, StringBuilder is the obvious choice: string s = ""; foreach (var i in Enumerable.Range(1,5000)) { s += i.ToString(); } Console.WriteLine(s); Is there a tool that I can run on either raw C# source or a compiled assembly to identify where in the source code that String.Concat is being called? (If you're not familiar, s += "foo" is mapped to String.Concat in the IL output.) Obviously, I can't realistically search through an entire project and evaluate every += to identify whether the lvalue is a string. Ideally, it would only point out calls inside a for/foreach loop, but I would even put up with all the false positives of noting every String.Concat. Also, I'm aware that there are some refactoring tools that will automatically refactor my code to use StringBuilder, but I am only interested in identifying the Concat usage at this point. I routinely run Gendarme and FxCop on my code, and neither of those tools identify what I've described.

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  • How to get SimpleRpcClient.Call() to be a blocking call to achieve synchronous communication with RabbitMQ?

    - by Nick Josevski
    In the .NET version (2.4.1) of RabbitMQ the RabbitMQ.Client.MessagePatterns.SimpleRpcClient has a Call() method with these signatures: public virtual object[] Call(params object[] args); public virtual byte[] Call(byte[] body); public virtual byte[] Call(IBasicProperties requestProperties, byte[] body, out IBasicProperties replyProperties); The problem: With various attempts, the method still continues to not block where I expect it to, so it's unable ever handle the response. The Question: Am I missing something obvious in the setup of the SimpleRpcClient, or earlier with the IModel, IConnection, or even PublicationAddress? More Info: I've also tried various paramater configurations of the QueueDeclare() method too with no luck. string QueueDeclare(string queue, bool durable, bool exclusive, bool autoDelete, IDictionary arguments); Some more reference code of my setup of these: IConnection conn = new ConnectionFactory{Address = "127.0.0.1"}.CreateConnection()); using (IModel ch = conn.CreateModel()) { var client = new SimpleRpcClient(ch, queueName); var queueName = ch.QueueDeclare("t.qid", true, true, true, null); ch.QueueBind(queueName, "exch", "", null); //HERE: does not block? var replyMessageBytes = client.Call(prop, msgToSend, out replyProp); } Looking elsewhere: Or is it likely there's an issue in my "server side" code? With and without the use of BasicAck() it appears the client has already continued execution.

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  • Namespace constraint with generic class decleration

    - by SomeGuy
    Good afternoon people, I would like to know if (and if so how) it is possible to define a namespace as a constraint parameter in a generic class declaration. What I have is this: namespace MyProject.Models.Entities <-- Contains my classes to be persisted in db namespace MyProject.Tests.BaseTest <-- Obvious i think Now the decleration of my 'BaseTest' class looks like so; public class BaseTest<T> This BaseTest does little more (at the time of writing) than remove all entities that were added to the database during testing. So typically I will have a test class declared as: public class MyEntityRepositoryTest : BaseTest<MyEntity> What i would LIKE to do is something similar to the following: public class BaseTest<T> where T : <is of the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace> Now i am aware that it would be entirely possible to simply declare a 'BaseEntity' class from which all entities created within the MyProject.Models.Entities namespace will inherit from; public class BaseTest<T> where T : MyBaseEntity but...I dont actually need to, or want to. Plus I am using an ORM and mapping entities with inheritance, although possible, adds a layer of complexity that is not required. So, is it possible to constrain a generic class parameter to a namespace and not a specific type ? Thank you for your time.

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  • Changing where a resource is pulled during runtime?

    - by Brandon
    I have a website that goes out to multiple clients. Sometimes a client will insist on minor changes. For reasons beyond my control, I have to comply no matter how minor the request. Usually this isn't a problem, I would just create a client specific version of the user control or page and overwrite the default one during build time or make a configuration setting to handle it. Now that I am localizing the site, I'm curious about the best way to go about making minor wording changes. Lets say I have a resource file called Resources.resx that has 300 resources in it. It has a resource called Continue. English value is "Continue", the French value is "Continuez". Now one client, for whatever reason, wants it to say "Next" and "Après" and the others want to keep it the same. What is the best way to accomodate a request like this? (This is just a simple example). The only two ways I can think of is to Create another Resources.resx specific to the client, and replace the .dll during build time. Since I'd be completely replacing the dll, the new resource file would have to contain all 300 strings. The obvious problem being that I now have 2 resource files, each with 300 strings to maintain. Create a custom user control/page and change it to use a custom resource file. e.g. SignIn.ascx would be replaced during the build and it would pull its resources from ClientName.resx instead of Resources.resx. Are there any other things I could try? Is there any way to change it so that the application will always look in a ClientResources.resx file for the overridden values before actually look at the specified resource file?

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  • How might I wrap the FindXFile-style APIs to the STL-style Iterator Pattern in C++?

    - by BillyONeal
    Hello everyone :) I'm working on wrapping up the ugly innards of the FindFirstFile/FindNextFile loop (though my question applies to other similar APIs, such as RegEnumKeyEx or RegEnumValue, etc.) inside iterators that work in a manner similar to the Standard Template Library's istream_iterators. I have two problems here. The first is with the termination condition of most "foreach" style loops. STL style iterators typically use operator!= inside the exit condition of the for, i.e. std::vector<int> test; for(std::vector<int>::iterator it = test.begin(); it != test.end(); it++) { //Do stuff } My problem is I'm unsure how to implement operator!= with such a directory enumeration, because I do not know when the enumeration is complete until I've actually finished with it. I have sort of a hack together solution in place now that enumerates the entire directory at once, where each iterator simply tracks a reference counted vector, but this seems like a kludge which can be done a better way. The second problem I have is that there are multiple pieces of data returned by the FindXFile APIs. For that reason, there's no obvious way to overload operator* as required for iterator semantics. When I overload that item, do I return the file name? The size? The modified date? How might I convey the multiple pieces of data to which such an iterator must refer to later in an ideomatic way? I've tried ripping off the C# style MoveNext design but I'm concerned about not following the standard idioms here. class SomeIterator { public: bool next(); //Advances the iterator and returns true if successful, false if the iterator is at the end. std::wstring fileName() const; //other kinds of data.... }; EDIT: And the caller would look like: SomeIterator x = ??; //Construct somehow while(x.next()) { //Do stuff } Thanks! Billy3

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  • most efficient method of turning multiple 1D arrays into columns of a 2D array

    - by Ty W
    As I was writing a for loop earlier today, I thought that there must be a neater way of doing this... so I figured I'd ask. I looked briefly for a duplicate question but didn't see anything obvious. The Problem: Given N arrays of length M, turn them into a M-row by N-column 2D array Example: $id = [1,5,2,8,6] $name = [a,b,c,d,e] $result = [[1,a], [5,b], [2,c], [8,d], [6,e]] My Solution: Pretty straight forward and probably not optimal, but it does work: <?php // $row is returned from a DB query // $row['<var>'] is a comma separated string of values $categories = array(); $ids = explode(",", $row['ids']); $names = explode(",", $row['names']); $titles = explode(",", $row['titles']); for($i = 0; $i < count($ids); $i++) { $categories[] = array("id" => $ids[$i], "name" => $names[$i], "title" => $titles[$i]); } ?> note: I didn't put the name = value bit in the spec, but it'd be awesome if there was some way to keep that as well.

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  • What are the advantages of a query using a derived table(s) over a query not using them?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    I know how derived tables are used, but I still can’t really see any real advantages of using them. For example, in the following article http://techahead.wordpress.com/2007/10/01/sql-derived-tables/ the author tried to show benefits of a query using derived table over a query without one with an example, where we want to generate a report that shows off the total number of orders each customer placed in 1996, and we want this result set to include all customers, including those that didn’t place any orders that year and those that have never placed any orders at all( he’s using Northwind database ). But when I compare the two queries, I fail to see any advantages of a query using a derived table ( if nothing else, use of a derived table doesn't appear to simplify our code, at least not in this example): Regular query: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(O.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN Orders O ON C.CustomerID = O.CustomerID AND YEAR(O.OrderDate) = 1996 GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Query using a derived table: SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName, COUNT(dOrders.OrderID) AS TotalOrders FROM Customers C LEFT OUTER JOIN (SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE YEAR(Orders.OrderDate) = 1996) AS dOrders ON C.CustomerID = dOrders.CustomerID GROUP BY C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName Perhaps this just wasn’t a good example, so could you show me an example where benefits of derived table are more obvious? thanx

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  • Warning: cast increases required alignment

    - by dash-tom-bang
    I'm recently working on this platform for which a legacy codebase issues a large number of "cast increases required alignment to N" warnings, where N is the size of the target of the cast. struct Message { int32_t id; int32_t type; int8_t data[16]; }; int32_t GetMessageInt(const Message& m) { return *reinterpret_cast<int32_t*>(&data[0]); } Hopefully it's obvious that a "real" implementation would be a bit more complex, but the basic point is that I've got data coming from somewhere, I know that it's aligned (because I need the id and type to be aligned), and yet I get the message that the cast is increasing the alignment, in the example case, to 4. Now I know that I can suppress the warning with an argument to the compiler, and I know that I can cast the bit inside the parentheses to void* first, but I don't really want to go through every bit of code that needs this sort of manipulation (there's a lot because we load a lot of data off of disk, and that data comes in as char buffers so that we can easily pointer-advance), but can anyone give me any other thoughts on this problem? I mean, to me it seems like such an important and common option that you wouldn't want to warn, and if there is actually the possibility of doing it wrong then suppressing the warning isn't going to help. Finally, can't the compiler know as I do how the object in question is actually aligned in the structure, so it should be able to not worry about the alignment on that particular object unless it got bumped a byte or two?

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  • Advice on a simple Windows Form

    - by Austin Hyde
    I have a VERY simple windows form that the user uses to manage "Stores". Each store has a name and number, and is kept in a corresponding DB table. The form has a listbox of stores, an add button that creates a new store, a delete button, and an edit button. Beside those I have text boxes for the name and number, and save/cancel buttons. When the user chooses a store from the list box, and clicks 'edit', the textboxes become populated and save/cancel become active. When the user clicks 'add', I create a new Store, add it to the listbox, activate the textboxes and save/cancel buttons, then commit it to the database when the user clicks 'save', or discards it when the user clicks 'cancel'. Right now, my event system looks like this (in psuedo-code. It's just shorter that way.) add->click: store = new Store() listbox.add(store) populateAndEdit(store) delete->click: store = listbox.selectedItem db.deleteOnSubmit(store) listbox.remove(store) db.submit() edit->click: populateAndEdit(listbox.selectedItem) save->click: parseAndSave(listbox.selectedItem) db.submit() disableTexts() cancel->click: disableTexts() The problem is in how I determine if we are inserting a new Store, or updating an existing one. The obvious solution to me would be to make it a "modal" process - that is, when I click edit, I go into edit mode, and the save button does things differently than if I were in add mode. I know I could make this more MVC-like, but I don't really think this simple form merits the added complexity. I'm not very experienced with winforms, so I'm not sure if I even have the right idea for how to tackle this. Is there a better way to do this? I would like to keep it simple, but usable.

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  • Unable to get data from a WCF client

    - by Scott
    I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

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  • Spring security - same page to deliver different content based on user role

    - by Ramesh
    Hello, i tried to search for any previous post related to my issue but couldnt find any. I have a scenario where in page handles 3 different scenarios and one of them not working. This page returns different content depending on if the user is authenticated or anonymous. localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=authenticatedContent - used for Scenario 1 & 2 localhost:8080/myApp/muUrl?test=anonymousContent - used for Scenario 3 Scenario: 1) Authenticated user accesing the page url - the user gets displayed correct information. Works fine 2) Anonymous user accesing page URL with parameters that requires authentication - If anonymous, there is second level of check on the content they are accessing. for example, based on the GET parameters, there is custom logic to determine if the user has to be authenticated. In which case the page gets redirected to login page (WORKS fine). 3) Anonymous user accessing page URL with parameters that doesnt need authentication - in this case i get the SAvedRequest and redirect to the URL which is taking me to an infinite loop. Am i missing something very obvious or is there a way in AuthenticationProcessFilterEntryPoint to say "DON'T redirect to LOGIN page but process it" ? thanks.

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  • Trying to use jquery ui in google chrome extension in the content level

    - by user135697
    The problem is that the scope of the content script is on the web page that your plugin is suppose to be used at. So the css background:url(images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png) becomes url('http://webpageforplugin/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') in order for this to work as far as i understood i need to have it to point to: url('chrome-extension://extensionId/images/ui-bg_inset-hard_100_fcfdfd_1x100.png') So i tried to haxorz the document.styleSheets var ss = document.styleSheets; for (var i=0; i<ss.length; i++) { var found=-1, x,i; var rules = ss[i].cssRules || ss[i].rules; for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if ('.ui-helper-hidden'==rules[j].selectorText){ found=i; break; } } if (found>-1){ for (var j=0; j<rules.length; j++) { if (x=rules[j].style.background){ if ((i=x.indexOf('url'))!=-1) rules[j].style.background = x.replace('http://page/images/','chrome-extension://extensionId/images/'); } } break; } }; I feel that i'm missing the obvious. That there must be an easier way. Even if i manage to change this how will i get the extension id to build the string. Btw this doesn't work, the icons are not properly fetched. (I hardcoded the extension id) Any ideas?

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  • DataGridView with row-specific DataGridViewComboBoxColumn contents

    - by XXXXX
    So I have something like the following data structure (constructors omitted) class Child { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } class Parent { public string Name { get; set; } public List <Child> Children { get; private set; } // never null; list never empty public Child FavoriteChild { get; set; } // never null; always a reference to a Child in Children } List < Parent > Parents; What I want to do is show a DataGridView where each row is a Parent from Parent list. Each row should have two columns: a text box showing the parent's name and a DataGridViewComboBoxColumn containing that parent's children, from which the user can select the parent's favorite child. I suppose I could do the whole thing manually, but I'd like to do all this with more-or-less standard Data Binding. It's easy enough to bind the DataGridView to the list of parents, and easy enough to bind the selected child to the FavoriteChild property. The part that's giving me difficulty is that it looks like the Combo Box column wants to bind to one data source for all the combo-box's contents on all rows. I'd like each instance of the combo box to bind to the list of each parent's children. I'm fairly new to C#/Windows Forms, so I may well be missing something obvious. Or it could be that "you can't get there from here." It's not too tough to make a separate list of all the children and filter it by parent; I'm looking into that possibility right now. Is this feasible, or is there a better way?

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  • Creating a RESTful service in CakePHP

    - by NathanGaskin
    I'm attempting to create a RESTful service in CakePHP but I've hit a bit of a brick wall. I've enabled the default RESTful routing using Router::mapResources('users') and Router::parseExtensions(). This works well if I make a GET request, and returns some nicely formatted XML. So far so good. The problem is if I want to make a POST or PUT request. CakePHP doesn't seem to be able to read the data from the request. At the moment my add(), edit() and delete() actions don't contain any logic, they're simply setting $this-data to the view. I'm testing with the following cURL command: curl -v -d "<user><username>blahblah</username><password>blahblah</password>" http://localhost/users.xml --header 'content-type: text/xml' Which only returns a 404 header. If I remove the --header parameter then it returns the view but no data is set. It feels like I'm missing something obvious here. Any ideas?

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  • Is there a way to transfrom a list of key/value pairs into a data transfer object

    - by weevie
    ...apart from the obvious looping through the list and a dirty great case statement! I've turned over a few Linq queries in my head but nothing seems to get anywhere close. Here's the an example DTO if it helps: class ClientCompany { public string Title { get; private set; } public string Forenames { get; private set; } public string Surname { get; private set; } public string EmailAddress { get; private set; } public string TelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string AlternativeTelephoneNumber { get; private set; } public string Address1 { get; private set; } public string Address2 { get; private set; } public string TownOrDistrict { get; private set; } public string CountyOrState { get; private set; } public string PostCode { get; private set; } } We have no control over the fact that we're getting the data in as KV pairs, I'm afraid.

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  • Error creating Google Calendar

    - by Don
    Hi, I'm trying to use the Google Calendar Java API to create a secondary calendar for a Google apps user. The relevant code is: // Initialise the API client CalendarService googleCalendar = new GCalendarService("canimo.ca"); googleCalendar.setUserCredentials("[email protected]", "secret"); // Create the calendar CalendarEntry cal = new CalendarEntry(); cal.title = new PlainTextConstruct(user.email); cal.summary = new PlainTextConstruct("Collection calendar"); cal.timeZone = new TimeZoneProperty("America/Montreal"); cal.hidden = HiddenProperty.FALSE; googleCalendar.insert(CALENDAR_URL, calendar); The call to insert() above results in com.google.gdata.util.ServiceException: Internal Server Error and no calendar is created. If I try and perform the same operation through the Google calendar website, it also fails with the error message: We could not save changes. Please try again in a few minutes. An obvious conclusion is that there's some problem on Google's side, but this has been going on for several days now. Strangely, if I create a new user, everything works fine for a while. I can create calendars via the website, and download them via the API. But as soon as I try and create a new calendar using the API, I get the exception above, and thereafter can't create new calendars using either the website or the API. Thanks, Don

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  • How to install previously-archived apps from xcode organizer to my iphone

    - by Ben Clayton
    Hi all. Xcode keeps an archive of all the versions of my apps that I've submitted to the app store in the 'archived applications' section. I assumed using this I could install an old version of an app to my device, in order to reproduce any problems my client may have had with that particular version. However, when I try to do this I get an error: 'this executable was signed with invalid entitlements, the entitlements specified in your applications code signing entitlements do not match those specified in your provisioning profile' The original app was signed using our App Store distribution certificate, and I use the Organizer interface to re-sign it using our Developer profile. select the archived app select the version I want to test click 'share' select 'iphone developer' next to identity save to disk (saves the ipa file) then copy the ipa to the device using the little + button you see next to 'applications' on the screen you get when you select the connected device. Then I get the error, and the app isn't installed. Is there something obvious I'm doing wrong here? Or is there a different process to re-install an archived app to my device? Thanks,

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  • How should I secure my webapp written using Wicket, Spring, and JPA?

    - by Martin
    So, I have an web-based application that is using the Wicket 1.4 framework, and it uses Spring beans, the Java Persistence API (JPA), and the OpenSessionInView pattern. I'm hoping to find a security model that is declarative, but doesn't require gobs of XML configuration -- I'd prefer annotations. Here are the options so far: Spring Security (guide) - looks complete, but every guide I find that combines it with Wicket still calls it Acegi Security, which makes me think it must be old. Wicket-Auth-Roles (guide 1 and guide 2) - Most guides recommend mixing this with Spring Security, and I love the declarative style of @Authorize("ROLE1","ROLE2",etc). I'm concerned about having to extend AuthenticatedWebApplication, since I'm already extending org.apache.wicket.protocol.http.WebApplication, and Spring is already proxying that behind org.apache.wicket.spring.SpringWebApplicationFactory. SWARM / WASP (guide) - This looks the newest (though the main contributor passed away years ago), but I hate all of the JAAS-styled text files that declare permissions for principals. I also don't like the idea of making an Action class for every single thing a user might want to do. Secure models also aren't immediately obvious to me. Plus, there isn't an Authn example. Additionally, it looks like lots of folks recommend mixing the first and second options. I can't tell what the best practice is at all, though.

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  • Database design - table relationship question

    - by iama
    I am designing schema for a simple quiz application. It has 2 tables - "Question" and "Answer Choices". Question table has 'question ID', 'question text' and 'answer id' columns. "Answer Choices" table has 'question ID', 'answer ID' and 'answer text' columns. With this simple schema it is obvious that a question can have multiple answer choices & hence the need for the answer choices table. However, a question can have only one correct answer and hence the need for the 'answer ID' in the question table. However, this 'answer ID' column in the question table provides a illusion as though there can be multiple questions for a single answer which is not correct. The other alternative to eliminate this illusion is to have another table just for correct answer that will have just 2 columns namely the question ID and the answer ID with a 1-1 relationship between the two tables. However, I think this is redundant. Any recommendation on how best to design this thereby enforcing the rules that a question can have multiple answer choices but only one correct answer? Many Thanks.

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  • How to make HTML layout whitespace-agnostic?

    - by ssg
    If you have consecutive inline-blocks white-space becomes significant. It adds some level of space between elements. What's the "correct" way of avoiding whitespace effect to HTML layout if you want those blocks to look stuck to each other? Example: <span>a</span> <span>b</span> This renders differently than: <span>a</span><span>b</span> because of the space inbetween. I want whitespace-effect to go away without compromising HTML source code layout. I want my HTML templates to stay clean and well-indented. I think these options are ugly: 1) Tweaking text-indent, margin, padding etc. (Because it would be dependent on font-size, default white-space width etc) 2) Putting everything on a single line, next to each other. 3) Zero font-size. That would require overriding font-size in blocks, which would otherwise be inherited. 4) Possible document-wide solutions. I want the solution to stay local for a certain block of HTML. Any ideas, any obvious points which I'm missing?

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  • How to map (large) integer on (small in size( alphanumeric string with PHP? (Cantor?)

    - by Glooh
    Dear all, I can't figure out how to optimally do the following in PHP: In a database, I have messages with a unique ID, like 19041985. Now, I want to refer to these messages in a short-url service but not using generated hashes but by simply 'calculate' the original ID. In other words, for example: http://short.url/sYsn7 should let me calculate the message ID the visitor would like to request. To make it more obvious, I wrote the following in PHP to generate these 'alphanumeric ID versions' and of course, the other way around will let me calculate the original message ID. The question is: Is this the optimal way of doing this? I hardly think so, but can't think of anything else. $alphanumString = '0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ-_'; for($i=0;$i < strlen($alphanumString);$i++) { $alphanumArray[$i] = substr($alphanumString,$i,1); } $id = 19041985; $out = ''; for($i=0;$i < strlen($id);$i++) { if(isset($alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]) && strlen($alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]) 0) { $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,2).""]; } else { $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,$i,1).""]; $out.=$alphanumString["".substr($id,($i+1),1).""]; } $i++; } print $out;

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  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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  • Providing less than operator for one element of a pair

    - by Koszalek Opalek
    What would be the most elegant way too fix the following code: #include <vector> #include <map> #include <set> using namespace std; typedef map< int, int > row_t; typedef vector< row_t > board_t; typedef row_t::iterator area_t; bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; int main( int argc, char* argv[] ) { int row_num; area_t it; set< pair< int, area_t > > queue; queue.insert( make_pair( row_num, it ) ); // does not compile }; One way to fix it is moving the definition of less< to namespace std (I know, you are not supposed to do it.) namespace std { bool operator< ( area_t const& a, area_t const& b ) { return( a->first < b->first ); }; }; Another obvious solution is defining less than< for pair< int, area_t but I'd like to avoid that and be able to define the operator only for the one element of the pair where it is not defined.

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  • Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

    - by stormin986
    I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

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  • WPF Usercontrol with textboxes

    - by benPearce
    I have a WPF user control with a number of textboxes, this is hosted on a WPF window. The textboxes are not currently bound but I cannot type into any of them. I have put a breakpoint in the KeyDown event of one of the textboxes and it hits it fine and I can see the key I pressed. The textboxes are declared as <TextBox Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="4" x:Name="PostcodeSearch" Style="{StaticResource SearchTextBox}" KeyDown="PostcodeSearch_KeyDown"/> The style is implemented as <Style x:Key="SearchTextBox" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="Control.Margin" Value="2"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="140"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left"/> </Style> I am hoping I have overlooked something obvious. EDIT: I only added the KeyDown and KeyUp events just to prove that the keys presses were getting through. I do not have any custom functionality.

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