Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 456/2164 | < Previous Page | 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463  | Next Page >

  • ggplot: showing % instead of counts in charts of categorical variables

    - by wishihadabettername
    I'm plotting a categorical variable and instead of showing the counts for each category value, I'm looking for a way to get ggplot to display the percentage of values in that category. Of course, it is possible to create another variable with the calculated percentage and plot that one, but I have to do it several dozens of times and I hope to achieve that in one command. I was experimenting with something like qplot (mydataf) + stat_bin(aes(n=nrow(mydataf), y=..count../n)) + scale_y_continuous(formatter="percent") but I must be using it incorrectly, as I got errors. To easily reproduce the setup, here's a simplified example: mydata <- c ("aa", "bb", null, "bb", "cc", "aa", "aa", "aa", "ee", null, "cc"); mydataf <- factor(mydata); qplot (mydataf); #this shows the count, I'm looking to see % displayed. In the real case I'll probably use ggplot instead of qplot, but the right way to use stat_bin still eludes me. Thank you. UPDATE: I've also tried these four approaches: ggplot(mydataf, aes(y = (..count..)/sum(..count..))) + scale_y_continuous(formatter = 'percent'); ggplot(mydataf, aes(y = (..count..)/sum(..count..))) + scale_y_continuous(formatter = 'percent') + geom_bar(); ggplot(mydataf, aes(x = levels(mydataf), y = (..count..)/sum(..count..))) + scale_y_continuous(formatter = 'percent'); ggplot(mydataf, aes(x = levels(mydataf), y = (..count..)/sum(..count..))) + scale_y_continuous(formatter = 'percent') + geom_bar(); but all 4 give: Error: ggplot2 doesn't know how to deal with data of class factor The same error appears for the simple case of ggplot (data=mydataf, aes(levels(mydataf))) + geom_bar() so it's clearly something about how ggplot interacts with a single vector. I'm scratching my head, googling for that error gives a single result.

    Read the article

  • How to determine if a target will be executed?

    - by Scott Langham
    Hi, I'm writing an msbuild file and have something like this: <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateA</ValidateDependsOn> <ValidateDependsOn>$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn> <Target Name="BuildA"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="BuildB"> <!-- stuff --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateA"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildA --> </Target> <Target Name="ValidateB"> <Error /> <!-- check properties and machine environment are suitable to run BuildB --> </Target> Builds can take a while. Originally we had the Build steps depending on the Validate steps, but sometimes a validate step wouldn't run until the middle of the build and you would have wasted time getting there. So, we moved the validate steps to the start by using the ValidateDependsOn pattern to insert the targets to run up front. The problem now though is that sometimes during a build BuildB may not actually run, and this means I don't need and in fact, don't want ValidateB to run. Is there any way I can selectively update ValidateDependsOn by conditionally knowing which targets will actually be run? I'm looking for something equivalent to: <ValidateDependsOn Condition="TargetWillRun(BuildB)">$(ValidateDependsOn);ValidateB</ValidateDependsOn>

    Read the article

  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

    Read the article

  • Div's are not filtered as :hidden when display:none; is appended as style

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hey folks I have some simple HTML: <div id="selectorContainer"> <div id="chainedSelector" style="display: none;"><% Html.RenderPartial("ProjectSuggest/ChainedProjectSelector"); %></div> <div id="suggestSelector"><% Html.RenderPartial("ProjectSuggest/SuggestControl", new SuggestModeDTO{RegistrationMode = Model.RegistrationMode}); %></div> </div> which is two containers for controls. I have jQuery code to toggle between displaying these, but I need to store as a cookie which one was used last time the user was logged in (i.e. which one was visible). The storing of the cookie is not the problem. The problem is that I for some reason am not able to detect which one is the hidden one, using .is(":hidden"), and not able to detect which one is visible using .is(":visible") When I use those two selectors, I always get both. "true" and "true" for both, eventhough one has display: none; and the other doesn't. Please note that they are NOT placed inside a hidden container which otherwise would hide both, so there are not any hidden ancestor containers. Can anyone maybe explain why this could happen? jQuery code containing source for getting the Id's and for getting the selected one (which currently is broken): getChainedSelectorId: function() { return "#chainedSelector"; }, getSuggestSelectorId: function() { return "#suggestSelector"; }, getSelectedSelector: function() { alert($(this.getChainedSelectorId()).is(":hidden")); alert($(this.getSuggestSelectorId()).is(":hidden")); var selected = ($(this.getChainedSelectorId()).is(":visible") ? this.getChainedSelectorId() : this.getSuggestSelectorId()); alert(selected); return selected; }, Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Receiving 404 error when trying to get to MVC application in local IIS

    - by Corey Sunwold
    I have an existing web site setup on my local IIS built with web forms setup in this format: -MainSite -Application1 -Application2 -Application3 There are separate applications in each location, so MainSite has an application, and Application1 has another application and so on. This way development on different applications in the same site can be broken out. I want to add a new Application that is MVC instead of web forms. I created a new MVC project which runs in Cassini just fine, but when I create a new IIS application for it and point it to the MVC project I am unable to navigate to it in the browser and get a 404 error. I am expecting to be able to navigate to http://MainSite/NewMVCApplication/. I want the root of NewMVCApplication to point to my Contacts Controller. My global.asax in the new MVC application currently looks like this: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Root", // Route name "", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Contacts", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } }

    Read the article

  • jsf custom control strange behaviour

    - by Cristian Boariu
    hi, I have a jsf custom control which contains this: <rich:column> <c:if test="#{not empty columnTitle}"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:spacer/> </f:facet> </c:if> <s:link view="#{view}" value="#{messages['edit']}" propagation="#{propagation}"> <f:param name="${paramName}" value="${paramValue}"/> </s:link> &#160; <h:commandLink action="#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}" value="#{messages['remove']}"/> </rich:column> You see that command link action. I want it to call an action like this: action="#{documentHome.removeProperty(property)"} Well, in order to do this i call the control like: <up:columnDetails view="/admin/property.xhtml" columnTitle="yes" entity="#{property}" paramValue="#{property.propertyId}" propagation="nest" entityHome="documentHome" removeMethodName="removeProperty"/> So, i hardcode entityHome and removeMethodName. Well an error is firing. Caused by javax.servlet.ServletException with message: "#{entityHome.removeMethodName(entity)}: javax.el.MethodNotFoundException It seems that it cannot interpret "removeMethodName". If i print entityHome or removeMethodName it correctly shows the values i pass. But i think jsf has an error like not beeing able to "believe" that after an object.something, that something can be a parameter... Can anyone guide me...?

    Read the article

  • regexp to match string with (comma-separated) number at start and to split into number and rest?

    - by mix
    Given a string such as: 23,234,456 first second third How can I split string this into two parts, where part 1 contains the number at the beginning and part 2 contains the rest---but only if the string STARTS with a number, and the number can be comma-separated or not? In other words, I want two results: 23,234,456 and first second third. If there's a number in that string that isn't part of the first number then it should be in the second result. My best stab at this so far, to grab the number at the beginning, is something like this: ^[0-9]+(,[0-9]{3})* Which seems to grab a comma-separated or non-comma-separated number that starts the line. However, when I run this in the Javascript console I get not only the full number, but also a match on just the last 3 digits with their preceeding ,. (e.g. 23,234,456 and ,456). As for getting the rest into another var I'm having trouble. I tried working with \b, etc., but I think I must be missing something fundamental about grabbing the rest of the line. I'm doing this in Javascript in case it matters. More examples of what to match and what not to match. 2 one two three should return 2 and one two three 2345 one two three should return 2345 and one two three 2 one 2 three should return 2 and one 2 three 2,234 one two 3,000 should return 2,234 and one two 3,000 The space between parts 1 and two could be included in the beginning of part 2.

    Read the article

  • Monads with Join() instead of Bind()

    - by MathematicalOrchid
    Monads are usually explained in turns of return and bind. However, I gather you can also implement bind in terms of join (and fmap?) In programming languages lacking first-class functions, bind is excruciatingly awkward to use. join, on the other hand, looks quite easy. I'm not completely sure I understand how join works, however. Obviously, it has the [Haskell] type join :: Monad m = m (m x) - m x For the list monad, this is trivially and obviously concat. But for a general monad, what, operationally, does this method actually do? I see what it does to the type signatures, but I'm trying to figure out how I'd write something like this in, say, Java or similar. (Actually, that's easy: I wouldn't. Because generics is broken. ;-) But in principle the question still stands...) Oops. It looks like this has been asked before: Monad join function Could somebody sketch out some implementations of common monads using return, fmap and join? (I.e., not mentioning >>= at all.) I think perhaps that might help it to sink in to my dumb brain...

    Read the article

  • How can I [simply] consume JSON Data in a Line of Business Web Application

    - by Atomiton
    I usually use JSON with jQuery to just return a string with html. However, I want to start to use Javascript objects in my code. What's the simplest way to get started using json objects on my page? Here's a sample Ajax call ( after $(document).ready( { ... }) of course: $('#btn').click(function(event) { event.preventDefault(); var out = $('#result'); $.ajax({ url: "CustomerServices.asmx/GetCustomersByInvoiceCount", success: function(msg) { // // Iterate through the json results and spit them out to a page? // }, data: "{ 'invoiceCount' : 100 }" }); }); My WebMethod: [WebMethod(Description="Gets customers with more than n invoices")] public List<Customer> GetCustomersByInvoiceCount(int? invoiceCount) { using (dbDataContext db = new dbDataContext()) { return db.Customers.Where(c => c.InvoiceCount >= invoiceCount); } } What gets returned: {"d":[{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116317","Name":"SOME COMPANY","Address":"UNit 1 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1268294400000)\/","HighestBalance":13922.34},{"__type":"Customer","Account":"1116318","Name":"ANOTHER COMPANY","Address":"UNIT #345 , 392 JOHN ST. ","LastTransaction":"\/Date(1265097600000)\/","HighestBalance":549.42}]} What I'd LIKE to know, is what are people generally doing with this returned json? Do you iterate through the properties and create an html table on the fly? Is there way to "bind" JSON data using a javascript version of reflection ( something like the .Net GridView Control ) Do you throw this returned data into a Javascript Object and then do something with it? An example of what I want to achieve is to have an plain ol' html page ( on a mobile device )with a list of a Salesperson's Customers. When one of those customers are clicked, the customer id gets sent to a webservice which retrieves the customer details that are relevant to a sales person. I know the SO talent pool is quite deep so I figured you all here would be able to guide in the right direction and give me a few ideas on the best way to approach this.

    Read the article

  • How to get a category listing from Magento?

    - by alex
    I want to create a page in Magento that shows a visual representation of the categories.. example CATEGORY product 1 product 2 ANOTHER CATEGORY product 3 My problem is, their database is organised very differently to what I've seen in the past. They have tables dedicated to data types like varchar, int, etc. I assume this is for performance or similiar. I haven't found a way to use MySQL to query the database and get a list of categories. I'd then like to match these categories to products, to get a listing of products for each category. Unfortunately Magento seems to make this very difficult. Also I have not found a method that will work from within a page block.. I have created showcase.phtml and put it in the XML layout and it displays and runs it's PHP code. I was hoping for something easy like looping through $this-getAllCategories(); and then a nested loop inside with something like $category-getChildProducts(); Can anyone help me? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Fade in an HTML element with raw javascript over 500 miliseconds.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, Once again I find myself stuck by something that I just don't understand. Any help would be appreciated. I'm working on a modal window, you click something and the background is masked and a modal window shows some content. I have a div with "display:none" and "opacity:0", and when the user triggers the modal, this div will overlay everything and have certain transparency to it. In my mind, what I need to do is: Set the opacity Perform a "for" loop that will check if the opacity is less than the desired value. Inside this loop, perform a "setInterval" to gradually increment the value of the opacity until it reaches the desired value. When the desired value has been reached, perform an "if" statement to "clearInterval". My code so far is as follows: var showMask = document.getElementById('mask'); function fireModal(){ showMask.style.opacity = 0; showMask.style.display = 'block'; var getCurrentOpacity = showMask.style.opacity; var increaseOpacity = 0.02; var finalOpacity = 0.7; var intervalIncrement = 20; var timeLapse = 500; function fadeIn(){ for(var i = getCurrentOpacity; i < finalOpacity; i++){ setInterval(function(){ showMask.style.opacity = i; }, intervalIncrement) } if(getCurrentOpacity == finalOpacity){ clearInterval(); } } fadeIn(); } As you all can guess, this is not working, all it does is set the opacity to "1" without gradually fade it in. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • How to add "missing" columns in a column group in reporting services?

    - by Gimly
    Hello, I'm trying to create a report that displays for each months of the year the quantity of goods sold. I have a query that returns the list of goods sold for each month, it looks something like this : SELECT Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month, SUM(SellingHistory.QuantitySold) FROM SellingHistory JOIN Seller on SellingHistory.SellerId = Seller.SellerId WHERE SellingHistory.Year = @Year GOUP BY Seller.FirstName, Seller.LastName, SellingHistory.Month What I want to do is display a report that has a column for each months + a total column that will display for each Seller the quantity sold in the selected month. Seller Name | Jan | Feb | Mar | Apr | May | Jun | Jul | Aug | Sep | Oct | Nov | Dec | Total What I managed to do is using a matrix and a column group (group on Month) to display the columns for existing data, if I have data from January to March, it will display the 3 first columns and the total. What I would like to do is always display all the columns. I thought about making that by adding the missing months in the SQL request, but I find that a bit weird and I'm sure there must be some "cleanest" solution as this is something that must be quite frequent. Thanks. PS: I'm using SQL Server Express 2008

    Read the article

  • Generating HTML Programmatically in C#, Targeting Printed Reports

    - by John Passaniti
    I've taken over a C# (2.0) code base that has the ability to print information. The code to do this is insanely tedious. Elements are drawn onto each page, with magic constants representing positioning. I imagine the programmer sitting with a ruler, designing each page by measuring and typing in the positions. And yes, one could certainly come up with some nice abstractions to make this approach rational. But I am looking at a different method. The idea is that I'll replace the current code that prints with code that generates static HTML pages, saves them to a file, and then launches the web browser on that file. The most obvious benefit is that I don't have to deal with formatting-- I can let the web browser do that for me with tags and CSS. So what I am looking for is a very lightweight set of classes that I can use to help generate HTML. I don't need anything as heavyweight as HTMLTextWriter. What I'm looking for is something to avoid fragments like this: String.Format("<tr><td>{0}</td><td>{1}</td></tr>", foo, bar); And instead take have this kind of feel: ... table(). tr(). td(foo). td(bar) Or something like that. I've seen lightweight classes like that for other languages but can't find the equivalent (or better) for C#. I can certainly write it myself, but I'm a firm believer in not reinventing wheels. Know anything like this? Know anything better than this?

    Read the article

  • Rails - Dynamic name routes namespace

    - by Kuro
    Hi, Using Rails 2.3, I'm trying to configure my routes but I uncounter some difficulties. I would like to have something like : http:// mydomain.com/mycontroller/myaction/myid That should respond with controllers in :front namespace http:// mydomain.com/aname/mycontroller/myaction/mydi That should respond with controllers in :custom namespace I try something like this, but I'm totaly wrong : map.namespace :front, :path_prefix => "" do |f| f.root :controller => :home, :action => :index f.resources :home ... end map.namespace :custom, :path_prefix => "" do |m| m.root :controller => :home, :action => :index m.resources :home ... m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action/:id' m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action/:id' m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action/:id.:format' m.match ':sub_url/site/:controller/:action.:format' end I put matching instruction in custom namespace but I'm not sure it's the right place for it. I think I really don't get the way to customize fields in url matching and I don't know how to find documentation about Rails 2.3, most of my research drove me to Rails 3 doc about the topic... Somebody to help me ?

    Read the article

  • Random Alpha numeric generator

    - by AAA
    Hi, I want to give our users in the database a unique alpha-numeric id. I am using the code below, will this always generate a unique id? Below is the old and updated version of the code: New php: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Old PHP: // Generate Guid function NewGuid() { $s = strtoupper(md5(uniqid("something",true))); $guidText = substr($s,0,8) . '-' . substr($s,8,4) . '-' . substr($s,12,4). '-' . substr($s,16,4). '-' . substr($s,20); return $guidText; } // End Generate Guid $Guid = NewGuid(); echo $Guid; echo "<br><br><br>"; Will this first code guarantee uniqueness?

    Read the article

  • Entities used to serialize data have changed. How can the serialized data be upgraded for the new entities?

    - by i8abug
    Hi, I have a bunch of simple entity instances that I have serialized to a file. In the future, I know that the structure of these entities (ie, maybe I will rename Name to Header or something). The thing is, I don't want to lose the data that I have saved in all these old files. What is the proper way to either load the data from the old entities into new entities upgrade the old files so that they can be used with new entities Note: I think I am stuck with binary serialization, not xml serialization. Thanks in advance! Edit: So I have an answer for the case I have described. I can use a dataContractSerializer and do something like [DataMember("bar")] private string foo; and change the name in the code and keep the same name that was used for serialization. But what about the following additional cases: The original entity has new members which can be serialized Some serialized members that were in the original entity are removed Some members have actually changed in function (suppose that the original class had a FirstName and LastName member and it has been refactored to have only a FullName member which combines the two) To handle these, I need some sort of interpreter/translator deserialization class but I have no idea what I should use

    Read the article

  • How do I do a table join on two fields in my second table?

    - by Cannonade
    I have two tables: Messages - Amongst other things, has a to_id and a from_id field. People - Has a corresponding person_id I am trying to figure out how to do the following in a single linq query: Give me all messages that have been sent to and from person x (idself). I had a couple of cracks at this. Not quite right MsgPeople = (from p in db.people join m in db.messages on p.person_id equals m.from_id where (m.from_id == idself || m.to_id == idself) orderby p.name descending select p).Distinct(); This almost works, except I think it misses one case: "people who have never received a message, just sent one to me" How this works in my head So what I really need is something like: join m in db.messages on (p.people_id equals m.from_id or p.people_id equals m.to_id) Gets me a subset of the people I am after It seems you can't do that. I have tried a few other options, like doing two joins: MsgPeople = (from p in db.people join m in AllMessages on p.person_id equals m.from_id join m2 in AllMessages on p.person_id equals m2.to_id where (m2.from_id == idself || m.to_id == idself) orderby p.name descending select p).Distinct(); but this gives me a subset of the results I need, I guess something to do with the order the joins are resolved. My understanding of LINQ (and perhaps even database theory) is embarrassingly superficial and I look forward to having some light shed on my problem.

    Read the article

  • Python - Access a class from a list using a key

    - by Fake Name
    Is there any way to make a list of classes behave like a set in python? Basically, I'm working on a piece of software that does some involved string comparison, and I have a custom class for handling the strings. Therefore, there is an instance of the class for each string. As a result, I have a large list containing all these classes. I would like to be able to access them like list[key], where in this case, the key is a string the class is based off of. It seems to me that I sould be able to do this somewhat easily, by adding something like __cmp__ to the class, but either I'm being obtuse (likely), or Im missing someting in the docs. Basically, I want to be able to do something like this (Python prompt example): >>class a: ... def __init__(self, x): ... self.var = x ... >>> from test import a >>> cl = set([a("Hello"), a("World"), a("Pie")]) >>> print cl set([<test.a instance at 0x00C866C0>, <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8>, <test.a instance at 0x00C86710>]) >>> cl["World"] <test.a instance at 0x00C866E8> Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery - Moving background arrow in menu

    - by B M
    I would expect something like this to be pretty popular in demand but I had much trouble finding a suiting script. I've got a basic menu build like this: <div id="menu"> <ul> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn1.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn2.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn3.png"></a></li> </ul> </div> The div #menu has a background image of a small arrow. I want the arrow to move vertically in front of the corresponding menu image when you mouseover/mousemove the whole #menu div. Also when one of the menu images has been clicked the arrow should stay in it's position in front of the corresponding menu image. I started something but I notice it's going downwards, since it's only working when you're at the top of the page. What I have is this: $('#menu').css({backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}); //Starting position $('#menu').mousemove(function(e){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px ' + (e.pageY-60) + ' px'}, {duration:100} ) }).mouseout(function(){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}, {duration:100} ) }); Please help! ps. I'm using this plugin to move background images smoothly.

    Read the article

  • Howto display or view encrypted data in encrypted form?

    - by Brian Gianforcaro
    In the Wikipedia Article on Block Cipher Modes they have a neat little diagram of an unencrypted image, the same image encrypted using ECB mode and another version of the same image encrypted using another method. At university I have developed my own implementation of DES (you can find it here) and we must demo our implementation in a presentation. I would like to display a similar example as shown above using our implementation. However most image files have header blocks associated with them, which when encrypting the file with our implementation, also get encrypted. So when you go to open them in an image viewer, they are assumed to be corrupted and can't be viewed. I was wondering if anybody new of a simple header-less image format which we could use to display these? Or if anyone had any idea's as to how the original creator of the images above achieved the above result? Any help would be appreciated, Thanks Note: I realise rolling your own cryptography library is stupid, and DES is considered broken, and ECB mode is very flawed for any useful cryptography, this was purely an academic exercise for school. So please, no lectures, I know the drill.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to send back a json array along with seperate variables

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have an ajax jquery function that receives data from a php script. I want to return an array with all the online users which is retrieved from a mysql statement, and I want to send other separate variables I need for other purposes along with it. If anyone has any ideas, I would greatly appreciate it. NOTE: the example below is to illustrate what I want to do, I understand that json-encoding the array with other variables is dysfunctional. JQUERY $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "parameters", url: "retrieval.php", dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { $('#div1').html(json.array); $('#div2').html(json.variable1); $('#div3').html(json.variable2); } }) PHP $qryuserscount1="SELECT * FROM active_users"; $userscount1=mysql_query($qryuserscount1); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($userscount1)) { $onlineuser= $row['username']; $id=$row['id']; $data[]=$onlineuser.$id; //for example there are 3 users, should send 3 entries back } $data['variable1']='something'; $data['variable2']='something else'; $out = json_encode($data); print $out;

    Read the article

  • Problem in homemade function to merge objects

    - by Eric
    I'm trying to make a function that merges arrays. The reason is, I have a function that supposed to get the settings of an entity, and merge them with the global defaults. //So for example, let's say globalOptions is something like this var globalOptions={opt1:'foo',opt2:'something'}; //and this is entityOptions var entityOptions={opt1:'foofoo',opt2:null}; The only difference is it has objects in objects and objects in objects in objects, so what I made was a function that loops through all objects, thinking I would later, easily be able to loop through it all. Please ignore the array thing. That is defected, but unneeded. function loopObj(obj, call, where, objcall, array) { if ($.isArray(obj) || $.isPlainObject(obj)) { for (i in obj) { if ($.isArray(obj)) { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = i, true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'['+i+']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } else { if (array) { loopObj(obj[i], call, where[where.length] = parseInt(i), true); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } else { loopObj(obj[i], call, where+'[\''+i+'\']', false); if (objcall) { call(obj[i],where,true); } } } } } else { return call(obj,where); } } Then I made this program to convert it: function mergeObj(a,b) { temp.retd = new Object(); loopObj(a,function (c,d) { if (c) { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=c; } else { eval(d.replace('%par%','temp.retd'))=eval(d.replace('%par%','b')); } },'%par%', true); return temp.retd(); } I get the error: Uncaught ReferenceError: Invalid left-hand side in assignment (anonymous function)base.js:51 loopObjbase.js:40 loopObjbase.js:31 mergeObjbase.js:46 (anonymous function)base.js:72 I know what it means, the eval returns an anonomys variable (copy of the variable), so I can't set it, only get it.

    Read the article

  • Selenium - Wait for network traffic

    - by Joel
    We're using Selenium with the Java API and some Javascript user extensions. We use a lot of AJAX calls in our app. A lot of our tests fail randomly because sometimes the AJAX calls finish slower than other times so the page isn't fully loaded. We fix that by waiting for specific elements or Thread.sleep. I was trying to find a way to instead just wait for the network traffic to finish. So that we could do this: selenium.click("some JS button"); selenium.waitForNetwork(); assertTrue(something); That way we can get rid of the thread sleep and have tests pass faster when the server responds faster and not have so many tests fail due to timing issues. I haven't been able to find a way to do this searching Google. Does anyone have any ideas how we can accomplish this? (Preferably either through Javascript or the Java API but all suggestions are welcome). Note: the other variations of "waitFor" are not what I'm looking for. We're already using those in clicks and other things. I'm looking for something that waits for the NETWORK TRAFFIC. Thanks for all the feedback, I'll be trying out a couple of the suggestions, but I'm still open to other ideas. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Is there a jQuery Equivalent of YUI 2 Custom Event Publish/Subscribe Event Model?

    - by Abe
    Hello! I learned how to develop in Javascript using the YUI 2 library and was wondering if there is a jQuery equivalent of Custom Events (http://developer.yahoo.com/yui/event/#customevent) Specifically, I want to be able to define custom events without having to attach the listeners initially. In YUI, I would create a page class and declare different custom events that can be subscribed to. Below is some example code to demonstrate what I want to do, but with jQuery function ListPage() { var me = this; this.initEvent = new YAHOO.util.CustomEvent("initEvent"); this.init = function() { // initialize events, DOM, etc this.initEvent.fire(me); } } In application Javascript, I would then like to subscribe to the initEvent. var page = new ListPage(); page.initEvent.subscribe( function (type, args) { // do stuff here } ); page.init(); Are there any tutorials/examples of something this in jQuery? I understand I can do something similar using bind() and trigger(), but the impression I get is I have to pass in the event handler when I call bind(). Is it possible in jQuery to create the custom event, but pass in the event handler later? I hope my question makes sense. thanks!

    Read the article

  • Security benefits from a second opinion, are there flaws in my plan to hash & salt user passwords vi

    - by Tchalvak
    Here is my plan, and goals: Overall Goals: Security with a certain amount of simplicity & database-to-database transferrability, 'cause I'm no expert and could mess it up and I don't want to have to ask a lot of users to reset their passwords. Easy to wipe the passwords for publishing a "wiped" databased of test data. (e.g. I'd like to be able to use a postgresql statement to simply reset all passwords to something simple so that testers can use that testing data for themselves). Plan: Hashing the passwords Account creation records the original email that an account is created with, forever. A global salt is used, e.g. "90fb16b6901dfceb73781ba4d8585f0503ac9391". An account specific salt, the original email the account was created with, is used, e.g. "[email protected]". The users's password is used, e.g. "password123" (I'll be warning against weak passwords in the signup form) The combination of the global salt, account specific salt, and password is hashed via some hashing method in postgresql (haven't been able to find documentation for hashing functions in postgresql, but being able to use sha-2 or something like that would be nice if I could find it). The hash gets stored in the database. Recovering an account To change their password, they have to go through standard password reset (and that reset email gets sent to the original email as well as the most recent account email that they have set). Flaws? Are there any flaws with this that I need to address? And are there best practices to doing hashing fully within postgresql?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463  | Next Page >