Search Results

Search found 54098 results on 2164 pages for 'something broken'.

Page 452/2164 | < Previous Page | 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459  | Next Page >

• Visual Studio internal project references not always working

  - by Chris

  I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

  Read the article

• WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

  - by d3j4vu

  I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

  Read the article

• How to lazy load a data structure (python)

  - by Anton Geraschenko

  I have some way of building a data structure (out of some file contents, say): def loadfile(FILE): return # some data structure created from the contents of FILE So I can do things like puppies = loadfile("puppies.csv") # wait for loadfile to work kitties = loadfile("kitties.csv") # wait some more print len(puppies) print puppies[32] In the above example, I wasted a bunch of time actually reading kitties.csv and creating a data structure that I never used. I'd like to avoid that waste without constantly checking if not kitties whenever I want to do something. I'd like to be able to do puppies = lazyload("puppies.csv") # instant kitties = lazyload("kitties.csv") # instant print len(puppies) # wait for loadfile print puppies[32] So if I don't ever try to do anything with kitties, loadfile("kitties.csv") never gets called. Is there some standard way to do this? After playing around with it for a bit, I produced the following solution, which appears to work correctly and is quite brief. Are there some alternatives? Are there drawbacks to using this approach that I should keep in mind? class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE self.F = None def __getattr__(self,name): if not self.F: print "loading %s" % self.FILE self.F = loadfile(self.FILE) return object.__getattribute__(self.F, name) What might be even better is if something like this worked: class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE def __getattr__(self,name): self = loadfile(self.FILE) # this never gets called again # since self is no longer a # lazyload instance return object.__getattribute__(self, name) But this doesn't work because self is local. It actually ends up calling loadfile every time you do anything.

  Read the article

• Is there any way to configure what reCAPTCHA is actually displaying?

  - by trejder

  Is there any way to control, what kind of image is displayed to user in reCAPTCHA or what kind of puzzle he/she is required to solve? I noticed at least two significant changes to what reCAPTCHA is serving (and I must admit, that I don't much like these changes): For years reCAPTCHA was serving two words from scanned books and user was required to solve one of them. They were clearly readable (even those "second" ones, that could be ommitted) and with nearly no problem in solving them by a human. For past few month, I noticed a significant change at all of my sites, that are using reCAPTCHA. They started to show combination of computer-generated long numbers string and something, that looks for me as street/house number photographed in Google StreetView. They're even easier to solve, but what is most important -- it started to happen more and more often that user is obligated to solve both of them. Now, I have noticed another change/regression. Now some of my sites remain at so called "level 2" (like above) and some of them started to serve two words again ("level 1"?). And again, there are more and more situations, where solving both words is required. But, what is most important, on this "level" words are nearly impossible to solve (on my old mobile devices with 3.5'' display I need 5-6 attempts to pass on!). They're cluttered, written in some strange font, mostly in italics with a lot of black and white stains or drops on letters etc. Plus: reCAPTCHA stopped to be equal -- some of my pages are still serving "level2" while some of them are "killing" end users with a need to solve "level3". Is there anyway, I can control this -- force it to use only "level2" and on all my pages? (of course, I'm using exactly the same piece of code to serve reCAPTCHA on all my pages) Note, that I'm not asking for something like in this question. I don't want to change what reCAPTCHA shows (to disable words in favor of only numbers for example). I only want to control, which "version" of puzzles (among described above) reCAPTCHA shows and I want to make it equal on all my sites.

  Read the article

• download large files using servlet

  - by niks

  I am using Apache Tomcat Server 6 and Java 1.6 and am trying to write large mp3 files to the ServletOutputStream for a user to download. Files are ranging from a 50-750MB at the moment. The smaller files aren't causing too much of a problem but with the larger files it and getting socket exception broken pipe. File fileMp3 = new File(objDownloadSong.getStrSongFolder() + "/" + strSongIdName); FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream(fileMp3); response.setContentType("audio/mpeg"); response.setHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=\"" + strSongName + ".mp3\";"); response.setContentLength((int) fileMp3.length()); OutputStream os = response.getOutputStream(); try { int byteRead = 0; while ((byteRead = fis.read()) != -1) { os.write(byteRead); } os.flush(); } catch (Exception excp) { downloadComplete = "-1"; excp.printStackTrace(); } finally { os.close(); fis.close(); }

  Read the article

• How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

  - by qstarin

  I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC Inserting object and related object into 2 tables

  - by ile

  I have two tables: Users and UserOwners. Table UserOwners contains list of users that certain user created (list of child-users) - or to be more precise, it contains UserOwnerID and UserID fields. So, now I want to create a new user... in Controller I have something like this: var userOwner = accountRepository.GetUser(User.Identity.Name); var userOwnerID = userOwner.UserID; UserReference userReference = new UserReference(); userReference.UserOwnerID = userOwnerID; if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { //accountRepository.Add(user); //accountRepository.Save(); return View(); } catch { return View(); } } What is the easiest way to add new user to a table Users and matching UserOwner to UserOwners table. Is it suppose to be something like this? public void Add(User user) { db.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); db.UserReferences.InsertOnSubmit(user.UserReference); } ...or I will have to pass two objects and after adding user I must read it's ID and than assign it to userReference object and add that object to DB? If so, how to read ID of the last object added? Thanks, Ile

  Read the article

• RIA Service/oData ... "Requests that attempt to access a single element using key values from a resu

  - by user327911

  I've recently started working up a sample project to play with an oData feed coming from a RIA service. I am able to view the feed and the metadata via any web browser, however, if I try to perform certain query operations on the feed I receive "unsupported" exceptions. Sample oData feed: ProductSet http://localhost:50880/Services/Rebirth-Web-Services-ProductService.svc/OData/ProductSet/ 2010-04-28T14:02:10Z http://localhost:50880/Services/Rebirth-Web-Services-ProductService.svc/OData/ProductSet(guid'b0a2b170-c6df-441f-ae2a-74dd19901128') 2010-04-28T14:02:10Z b0a2b170-c6df-441f-ae2a-74dd19901128 Product 0 Type 1 Active Sample web.config entry: Sample service: [EnableClientAccess()] public class ProductService : DomainService { [Query(IsDefault = true)] public IQueryable GetProducts() { IList products = new List(); for (int i = 0; i < 90; i++) { Product product = new Product { Id = Guid.NewGuid(), Name = "Product " + i.ToString(), ProductType = i < 30 ? "Type 1" : ((i > 30 && i < 60) ? "Type 2" : "Type 3"), Status = i % 2 == 0 ? "Active" : "NotActive" }; products.Add(product); } return products.AsQueryable(); } } If I provide the url "http://localhost:50880/Services/Rebirth-Web-Services-ProductService.svc/OData/ProductSet(guid'b0a2b170-c6df-441f-ae2a-74dd19901128')" to my web browser I receive the following xml: Requests that attempt to access a single element using key values from a result set are not supported. I'm new to RIA and oData. Could this be something as simple as my web browsers not supporting this type of querying on the result set or something else? Thanks ahead! Corey

  Read the article

• Software usage analytics in C#

  - by TiernanO

  I have a project i am working on currently and would like to implement some sort of software tracking in the code. ideally, stuff like how often its launched. how long it runs for, feature tracking, etc. I already use Exceptioneer for unhandled exceptions, but would like something similar for usage tracking. this data should all be anonymous and ideally run as a service by someone else. and i would like to give the users the option to turn it off, if they so wish to... So, is this something i should implement myself, or are there third parties out there that do this sort of things? i know it might be a sticky area, but i have seen stats about iPhone app usage. they do it, so why cant we? (if the user agrees, of course) [Update] Based on the comments, i should have been more clear. this is a Winforms .NET 4. application, though i am thinking of updating it later with WCF. i would only be tracking my own application, though i would also want to know minor information about environment (Windows OS Version, SP, maybe proc and ram...)

  Read the article

• C++ Printing: Printer jams, what am I doing wrong?

  - by Kleas

  I have a problem with printing in C++. As far as I know, this code used to work on my previous printer, but ever since I got another one (an HP C7280) it started giving problems. Whenever I try to print anything, even an empty page, the page JAMS the printer. I have to manualy remove the page from the printer. I have no clue why this is happening. Am I doing something wrong, is it a driver problem, are there better ways to print in C++? I am using Windows 7 64 bit, but this problem also presented itself when I was using Windows Vista 64 bit. I use the following code: PRINTDLG pd; ZeroMemory(&pd, sizeof(pd)); pd.lStructSize = sizeof(pd); pd.hwndOwner = mainWindow; pd.hDevMode = NULL; pd.hDevNames = NULL; pd.Flags = PD_USEDEVMODECOPIESANDCOLLATE | PD_RETURNDC; pd.nCopies = 1; pd.nMinPage = 1; pd.nMaxPage = 0xFFFF; if (PrintDlg(&pd)==TRUE) { DOCINFO di; di.cbSize = sizeof(DOCINFO); di.lpszDocName = "Rumitec en Roblaco Print"; di.lpszOutput = (LPTSTR)NULL; di.fwType = 0; // Start printing StartDoc(pd.hDC, &di); StartPage(pd.hDC); initPrinter(pd.hDC); // ... // Do some drawing // ... // End printing EndPage(pd.hDC); EndDoc(pd.hDC); DeleteDC(pd.hDC); } Am I doing something wrong? Alternatively, is there a better, easier, more modern way to do it?

  Read the article

• What is the best approach to embed mp4 for the iPhone without using JavaScript?

  - by usingtechnology

  I am trying to troubleshoot this code and am running into a dead-end, so I thought I would ask my first question here. I have three questions: 1) What is the best approach to embed an mp4 for an iPhone specific view, preferably without using Javascript? 2) Are there any preferred practices to debug code on an iPhone? 3) Can anyone tell me what is wrong with my specific code below? I should mention upfront that the variable $fileName does indeed contain the correct info, I've just omitted that portion of the code. Also, the poster image does flicker for a brief moment before I receive the greyed out, broken QuickTime image so that is an indication that this is partially working. Code: <object width="448" height="335" classid="clsid:02BF25D5-8C17-4B23-BC80-D3488ABDDC6B" codebase="http://www.apple.com/qtactivex/qtplugin.cab"> <param name="src" value="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" /> <param name="href" value="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" /> <param name="target" value="myself" /> <param name="controller" value="true" /> <param name="autoplay" value="false" /> <param name="scale" value="aspect" /> <embed src="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" href="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" type="video/mp4" target="myself" width="448" height="335" scale="aspect" controller="false" autoplay="false"> </embed> </object>

  Read the article

• How to access frame (not iframe) contents from jQuery.

  - by kazanaki

  Hello I have 2 frames in one page like this (home.html) <frameset rows="50%, 50%"> <frame id="treeContent" src="treeContent.html" /> <frame id="treeStatus" src="treeStatus.html" /> </frameset> and then in one frame (treeStatus.html) I have something like <body style="margin: 0px"> <div id="statusText">Status bar for Tree</div> </body> I want from the top window to manipulate the div located in the child frame via jquery (e.g show and hide). I have seen several questions like this and they suggest the following $(document).ready(function(){ $('#treeStatus').contents().find("statusText").hide(); }); I do not know if this works with iframes but in my case where I have simple frames it does not seem to work. The code is placed inside home.html Here is some output from firebug console >>> $('#treeStatus') [frame#treeStatus] >>> $('#treeStatus').contents() [] >>> $('#treeStatus').children() [] So how do I access frame elements from the top frame? Am I missing something here?

  Read the article

• photo upload with codeigniter

  I know there are many tutorials online, but I could not make them work :( maybe something particularly wrong with my system :/ My Controller localpath is: /localhost/rl/applications/backend/controller/ Controller: function do_upload() { $config['upload_path'] = './uploads/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '100'; $config['max_width'] = '1024'; $config['max_height'] = '768'; $this->load->library('upload', $config); if ( ! $this->upload->do_upload()) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); $this->load->view('add_image', $error); } else { $data = array('upload_data' => $this->upload->data()); $data['id'] = $this->input->post['id_work']; $this->load->view('add_image', $data); } } My View localpath is: /localhost/rl/applications/backend/view/ View: echo form_open_multipart('do_upload'); <ul class="frm"> <li><label>File: *</label><input type="file" name="userfile" class="frmlmnt" size="50" /></li> <li><label></label><input type="submit" class="btn" value="Upload" /></li> </ul> </form> Maybe I do something wrong with path

  Read the article

• Efficient mapping of game entity positions in Java

  - by byte

  In Java (Swing), say I've got a 2D game where I have various types of entities on the screen, such as a player, bad guys, powerups, etc. When the player moves across the screen, in order to do efficient checking of what is in the immediate vicinity of the player, I would think I'd want indexed access to the things that are near the character based on their position. For example, if player 'P' steps onto element 'E' in the following example... | | | | | | | | | |P| | | | |E| | | | | | | | | ... would be to do something like: if(player.getPosition().x == entity.getPosition().x && entity.getPosition.y == thing.getPosition().y) { //do something } And thats fine, but that implies that the entities hold their positions, and therefor if I had MANY entities on the screen I would have to loop through all possible entities available and check each ones position against the player position. This seems really inefficient especially if you start getting tons of entities. So, I would suspect I'd want some sort of map like Map<Point, Entity> map = new HashMap<Point, Entity>(); And store my point information there, so that I could access these entities in constant time. The only problem with that approach is that, if I want to move an entity to a different point on the screen, I'd have to search through the values of the HashMap for the entity I want to move (inefficient since I dont know its Point position ahead of time), and then once I've found it remove it from the HashMap, and re-insert it with the new position information. Any suggestions or advice on what sort of data structure / storage format I ought to be using here in order to have efficient access to Entities based on their position, as well as Position's based on the Entity?

  Read the article

• optimized search using ajax and keypress

  - by ooo

  i have the following code as i want to search a database as a user is typing into a textbox. This code below works fine but it seems a little inefficient as if a user is typing really fast, i am potentially doing many more searches than necessary. So if a user is typing in "sailing" i am searching on "sail", "saili", "sailin", and "sailing" i wanted to see if there was a way to detect any particular time between keypresses so only search if user stops typing for 500 milliseconds or something like this. is there a best practices for something like this? $('#searchString').keypress(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 13) { var url = '/Tracker/Search/' + $("#searchString").val(); $.get(url, function(data) { $('div#results').html(data); $('#results').show(); }); } else { var existingString = $("#searchString").val(); if (existingString.length > 2) { var url = '/Tracker/Search/' + existingString; $.get(url, function(data) { $('div#results').html(data); $('#results').show(); }); } }

  Read the article

• In Python, how to make sure database connection will always close before leaving a code block?

  - by Cawas

  I want to prevent database connection being open as much as possible, because this code will run on an intensive used server and people here already told me database connections should always be closed as soon as possible. def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # a lot more of workflow done here dbConnection.close() # even more stuff would come below I believe that leaves a database connection open when there is no row on the table, tho I'm still really not sure how it works. Anyway, maybe that is bad design in the sense that I could open and close a DB connection after each small block of execute. And sure, I could just add a close right before the return in that case... But how could I always properly close the DB without having to worry if I have that return, or a raise, or continue, or whatever in the middle? I'm thinking in something like a code block, similar to using try, like in the following suggestion, which obviously doesn't work: def do_something_that_needs_database (): dbConnection = MySQLdb.connect(host=args['database_host'], user=args['database_user'], passwd=args['database_pass'], db=args['database_tabl'], cursorclass=MySQLdb.cursors.DictCursor) try: dbCursor = dbConnection.cursor() dbCursor.execute('SELECT COUNT(*) total FROM table') row = dbCursor.fetchone() if row['total'] == 0: print 'error: table have no records' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', whatever_value) return None print 'table is ok' dbCursor.execute('UPDATE table SET field="%s"', another_value) # again, that same lot of line codes done here except ExitingCodeBlock: closeDb(dbConnection) # still, that "even more stuff" from before would come below I don't think there is anything similar to ExitingCodeBlock for an exception, tho I know there is the try else, but I hope Python already have a similar feature... Or maybe someone can suggest me a paradigm move and tell me this is awful and highly advise me to never do that. Maybe this is just something to not worry about and let MySQLdb handle it, or is it?

  Read the article

• R optimization: How can I avoid a for loop in this situation?

  - by chrisamiller

  I'm trying to do a simple genomic track intersection in R, and running into major performance problems, probably related to my use of for loops. In this situation, I have pre-defined windows at intervals of 100bp and I'm trying to calculate how much of each window is covered by the annotations in mylist. Graphically, it looks something like this: 0 100 200 300 400 500 600 windows: |-----|-----|-----|-----|-----|-----| mylist: |-| |-----------| So I wrote some code to do just that, but it's fairly slow and has become a bottleneck in my code: ##window for each 100-bp segment windows <- numeric(6) ##second track mylist = vector("list") mylist[[1]] = c(1,20) mylist[[2]] = c(120,320) ##do the intersection for(i in 1:length(mylist)){ st <- floor(mylist[[i]][1]/100)+1 sp <- floor(mylist[[i]][2]/100)+1 for(j in st:sp){ b <- max((j-1)*100, mylist[[i]][1]) e <- min(j*100, mylist[[i]][2]) windows[j] <- windows[j] + e - b + 1 } } print(windows) [1] 20 81 101 21 0 0 Naturally, this is being used on data sets that are much larger than the example I provide here. Through some profiling, I can see that the bottleneck is in the for loops, but my clumsy attempt to vectorize it using *apply functions resulted in code that runs an order of magnitude more slowly. I suppose I could write something in C, but I'd like to avoid that if possible. Can anyone suggest another approach that will speed this calculation up?

  Read the article

• When do Symfony's user attributes get written to session?

  - by Rob Wilkerson

  I have a Symfony app that populates the "widgets" of a portal application and I'm noticing something (that seems) odd. The portal app has iframes that make calls to the Symfony app. On each of those calls, a random user key is passed on the query string. The Symfony app stores that key its session using myUser->setAttribute(). If the incoming value is different from what it has in session, it overwrites the session value. In pseudo-code (and applying a synchronous nature for clarity even though it may not exist): # Widget request arrives with ?foo=bar if the user attribute 'foo' does not equal 'bar' overwrite the user attribute 'foo' with 'bar' end What I'm noticing is that, on a portal page with multiple widgets (read: multiple requests coming in more or less simultaneously) where the value needs to be overwritten, each request is trying to overwrite. Is this a timing problem? When I look at the log prints, I'd expect the first request that arrives to overwrite and subsequent requests to see that the user attribute they received matches what was just put into cache by the initial request. In this scenario, it could be that subsequent requests begin (and are checked) even before the first one--the one that should overwrite the cached value--has completely finished. Are session values not really available to subsequent requests until one request has completed entirely or could there be something else that I'm missing? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Creating UTF-8 files in Java from a runnable Jar

  - by RuntimeError

  I have a little Java project where I've set the properties of the class files to UTF-8 (I use a lot of foreign characters not found on the default CP1252). The goal is to create a text file (in Windows) containing a list of items. When running the class files from Eclipse itself (hitting Ctrl+F11) it creates the file flawlessly and opening it in another editor (I'm using Notepad++) I can see the characters as I wanted. +--------------------------------------------------+ ¦ Universidade2010 (18/18)¦ ¦ hidden: 0¦ +--------------------------------------------------¦ But, when I export the project (using Eclipse) as a runnable Jar and run it using 'javaw -jar project.jar' the new file created is a mess of question marks ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? ? Universidade2010 (19/19)? ? hidden: 0? ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? I've followed some tips on how to use UTF-8 (which seems to be broken by default on Java) to try to correct this so now I'm using Writer w = new OutputStreamWriter(fos, "UTF-8"); and writing the BOM header to the file like in this question already answered but still without luck when exporting to Jar Am I missing some property or command-line command so Java knows I want to create UTF-8 files by default ?

  Read the article

• TDD approach for complex function

  - by jamie

  I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

  Read the article

• 1.8.x Ruby on Rails RESTful nested admin page and form_for problems

  - by Loomer

  So I am creating a website that I want to have an admin directory in rails 1.8.x and I'm struggling a bit to get the form_for to link to the right controller. I am trying to be RESTful. What I basically want is an admin page that has a summary of actions which can then administer sub models such as: /admin (a summary of events) /admin/sales (edit sales on the site) /admin/sales/0 (the normal RESTful stuff) I can't use namespaces since they were introduced in Rails 2.0 (production site that I don't want to mess with updating rails and all that). Anyway, what I have in the routes.rb is: map.resource :admin do |admin| admin.resources :sales end I am using the map.resource as a singleton as recommended by another site. The problem comes in when I try to use the form_for to link to the subresource RESTfully. If i do : form_for(:sales, @sale) it never links to the right controller no matter what I try. I have also tried: form_for [@admin, @sale] do |f| and that doe not work either (I am guessing since admin is a singleton which does not have a model, it's just a placeholder for the admin controller). Am I supposed to add a prefix or something? Or something into the sales controller to specify that it is a subcontroller to admin? Is there an easier way to do this without manually creating a bunch of routes? Thanks for any help.

  Read the article

• With ASP.NET MVC, what is the preferred way to Ajaxify a simple form?

  - by Swoop

  I am trying to add a simple comments/message box to a web page. When the user enters the comment and hits submit, I would like to save this message to the database and add the comment to the list displayed on the page, without refreshing the entire page. However, I am not sure of the best way to do that these days. I am using ASP.NET MVC 2. I have been trying to read up on using JQuery for this type of functionality, but I am having problems getting a full picture of the correct approach that isn't also out of date (i.e. it is using an preview version of MVC 1 or older version of JQuery). I can either find snippets of different pieces without the information of how they work together, or the information appears to be quite dated and no longer valid. Can someone point me in the right direction for something like this? Ideally, I am looking for a simple example of the JQuery code, a snippet of any key differences in an HTML form from a normal post method, and the basic method used in the MVC Controller. I need something to help the lightbulb of understanding to turn on. :) Any help would be greatly appreciated!!

  Read the article

• Performance of stored proc when updating columns selectively based on parameters?

  - by kprobst

  I'm trying to figure out if this is relatively well-performing T-SQL (this is SQL Server 2008). I need to create a stored procedure that updates a table. The proc accepts as many parameters as there are columns in the table, and with the exception of the PK column, they all default to NULL. The body of the procedure looks like this: CREATE PROCEDURE proc_repo_update @object_id bigint ,@object_name varchar(50) = NULL ,@object_type char(2) = NULL ,@object_weight int = NULL ,@owner_id int = NULL -- ...etc AS BEGIN update object_repo set object_name = ISNULL(@object_name, object_name) ,object_type = ISNULL(@object_type, object_type) ,object_weight = ISNULL(@object_weight, object_weight) ,owner_id = ISNULL(@owner_id, owner_id) -- ...etc where object_id = @object_id return @@ROWCOUNT END So basically: Update a column only if its corresponding parameter was provided, and leave the rest alone. This works well enough, but as the ISNULL call will return the value of the column if the received parameter was null, will SQL Server optimize this somehow? This might be a performance bottleneck on the application where the table might be updated heavily (insertion will be uncommon so the performance there is not a problem). So I'm trying to figure out what's the best way to do this. Is there a way to condition the column expressions with something like CASE WHEN or something? The table will be indexed up the wazoo as well for read performance. Is this the best approach? My alternative at this point is to create the UPDATE expression in code (e.g. inline SQL) and execute it against the server. This would solve my doubts about performance, but I'd rather leave this in a stored proc if possible.

  Read the article

• Java constructor using generic types

  - by user37903

  I'm having a hard time wrapping my head around Java generic types. Here's a simple piece of code that in my mind should work, but I'm obviously doing something wrong. Eclipse reports this error in BreweryList.java: The method initBreweryFromObject() is undefined for the type <T> The idea is to fill a Vector with instances of objects that are a subclass of the Brewery class, so the invocation would be something like: BreweryList breweryList = new BreweryList(BrewerySubClass.class, list); BreweryList.java package com.beerme.test; import java.util.Vector; public class BreweryList<T extends Brewery> extends Vector<T> { public BreweryList(Class<T> c, Object[] j) { super(); for (int i = 0; i < j.length; i++) { T item = c.newInstance(); // initBreweryFromObject() is an instance method // of Brewery, of which <T> is a subclass (right?) c.initBreweryFromObject(); // "The method initBreweryFromObject() is undefined // for the type <T>" } } } Brewery.java package com.beerme.test; public class Brewery { public Brewery() { super(); } protected void breweryMethod() { } } BrewerySubClass.java package com.beerme.test; public class BrewerySubClass extends Brewery { public BrewerySubClass() { super(); } public void androidMethod() { } } I'm sure this is a complete-generics-noob question, but I'm stuck. Thanks for any tips!

  Read the article

• Can g++ fill uninitialized POD variables with known values?

  - by Bob Lied

  I know that Visual Studio under debugging options will fill memory with a known value. Does g++ (any version, but gcc 4.1.2 is most interesting) have any options that would fill an uninitialized local POD structure with recognizable values? struct something{ int a; int b; }; void foo() { something uninitialized; bar(uninitialized.b); } I expect uninitialized.b to be unpredictable randomness; clearly a bug and easily found if optimization and warnings are turned on. But compiled with -g only, no warning. A colleague had a case where code similar to this worked because it coincidentally had a valid value; when the compiler upgraded, it started failing. He thought it was because the new compiler was inserting known values into the structure (much the way that VS fills 0xCC). In my own experience, it was just different random values that didn't happen to be valid. But now I'm curious -- is there any setting of g++ that would make it fill memory that the standard would otherwise say should be uninitialized?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459  | Next Page >