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  • Java: how to have try-catch as conditional in for-loop?

    - by HH
    I know how to solve the problem by comparing size to an upper bound but I want a conditional that look for an exception. If an exception occur in conditinal, I want to exit. import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class listTest{ public static void main(String[] args){ Stack<Integer> numbs=new Stack<Integer>(); numbs.push(1); numbs.push(2); for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& !numbs.isEmpty(); ){ System.out.println(j); } // I waited for 1 to be printed, not 2. } } Some Errors javac listTest.java listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^ listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^

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  • How do I search & replace all occurrences of a string in a ms word doc with python?

    - by Mark
    Hello there, I am pretty stumped at the moment. Based on http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1045628/can-i-use-win32-com-to-replace-text-inside-a-word-document I was able to code a simple template system that generates word docs out of a template word doc (in Python). My problem is that text in "Text Fields" is not find that way. Even in Word itself there is no option to search everything - you actually have to choose between "Main Document" and "Text Fields". Being new to the Windows world I tried to browse the VBA docs for it but found no help (probably due to "text field" being a very common term). word.Documents.Open(f) wdFindContinue = 1 wdReplaceAll = 2 find_str = '\{\{(*)\}\}' find = word.Selection.Find find.Execute(find_str, False, False, True, False, False, \ True, wdFindContinue, False, False, False) while find.Found: t = word.Selection.Text.__str__() r = process_placeholder(t, answer_data, question_data) if type(r) == dict: errors.append(r) else: find.Execute(t, False, True, False, False, False, \ True, False, False, r, wdReplaceAll) This is the relevant portion of my code. I was able to get around all problems by myself by now (hint: if you want to replace strings with more than 256 chars, you have to do it via clipboard, etc ...) Hope, someone can help me.

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  • Parsing custom time format with SimpleDateFormat

    - by ggrigery
    I'm having trouble parsing a date format that I'm getting back from an API and that I have never seen (I believe is a custom format). An example of a date: /Date(1353447000000+0000)/ When I first encountered this format it didn't take me long to see that it was the time in milliseconds with a time zone offset. I'm having trouble extracting this date using SimpleDateFormat though. Here was my first attempt: String weirdDate = "/Date(1353447000000+0000)/"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("'/Date('SSSSSSSSSSSSSZ')/'"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); System.out.println(); Date d2 = new Date(Long.parseLong("1353447000000")); System.out.println(d2.toString()); System.out.println(d2.getTime()); And output: Tue Jan 06 22:51:41 EST 1970 532301760 Tue Nov 20 16:30:00 EST 2012 1353447000000 The date (and number of milliseconds parsed) is not even close and I haven't been able to figure out why. After some troubleshooting, I discovered that the way I'm trying to use SDF is clearly flawed. Example: String weirdDate = "1353447000000"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("S"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); And output: Wed Jan 07 03:51:41 EST 1970 550301760 I can't say I've ever tried to use SDF in this way to just parse a time in milliseconds because I would normally use Long.parseLong() and just pass it straight into new Date(long) (and in fact the solution I have in place right now is just a regular expression and parsing a long). I'm looking for a cleaner solution that I can easily extract this time in milliseconds with the timezone and quickly parse out into a date without the messy manual handling. Anyone have any ideas or that can spot the errors in my logic above? Help is much appreciated.

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  • Proper status codes for JSON responses to Ajax calls?

    - by anonymous coward
    My project is returning JSON to Ajax calls from the browser. I'm wondering what the proper status code is for sending back with responses to invalid (but successfully handled) data submissions. For example, jQuery has the following two particular callbacks when making Ajax requests: success: Fired when a 200/2xx status code is delivered along with the response. error: Fired when 4xx, 5xx, etc, status codes come back with the response. If a user attempts to create a new "Person" object, I send back a JSON representation of the newly created object upon success, thus giving javascript access to the necessary unique ID's for the new object, etc. This, of course, is sent with a 200 status code. If a user submits malformed or invalid data (say, an invalid/incomplete "name" field), I would like to send back the validation error messages via JSON. (I don't see why this would be a bad thing). My question is: in doing so, should I send a 200 status code, because I successfully handled their invalid data? Therefore, I'd be using the jQuery success callback, but simply check for errors... Or, should I use a 4xx status code, perhaps 'Bad Request', because the data they sent me is invalid? (and thus, use the error callback to do the necessary client-side notifications).

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  • Is this WPF error handling a good idea ?

    - by Adiel
    I have a multi threaded wpf application with various HW interfaces. I want to react to several HW failures that can happen. For example : one of the interfaces is a temperature sensor and i want that from a certain temp. a meesage would appear and notify the user that it happened. i came up with the follwing design : /// <summary> /// This logic reacts to errors that occur during the system run. /// The reaction is set by the component that raised the error. /// </summary> public class ErrorHandlingLogic : Logic { } the above class would consume ErrorEventData that holds all the information about the error that occurred. public class ErrorEventData : IEventData { #region public enum public enum ErrorReaction { } #endregion public enum #region Private Data Memebers and props private ErrorReaction m_ErrorReaction; public ErrorReaction ErrorReactionValue { get { return m_ErrorReaction; } set { m_ErrorReaction = value; } } private string m_Msg; public string Msg { get { return m_Msg; } set { m_Msg = value; } } private string m_ComponentName; public string ComponentName { get { return m_ComponentName; } set { m_ComponentName = value; } } #endregion Private Data Memebers and props public ErrorEventData(ErrorReaction reaction, string msg, string componenetName) { m_ErrorReaction = reaction; m_Msg = msg; m_ComponentName = componenetName; } } the above ErrorHandlingLogic would decide what to do with the ErrorEventData sent to him from various components of the application. if needed it would be forwarded to the GUI to display a message to the user. so what do you think is it a good design ? thanks, Adiel.

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  • Extremely strange glitch in Chrome - parses contents of string!

    - by George Edison
    Okay - this is the dumbest glitch I have seen in a while: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <script type='text/javascript'> var data = "</script>"; </script> </head> <body> This should break! </body> </html> This causes syntax errors because the JavaScript parser is actually reading the contents of the string. How stupid! How can I put </script> in my code. Is there any way? Is there a valid reason for this behavior?

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  • Why do I get "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid"

    - by Brian Ojeda
    Why do I get a "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid" for the first... $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); In the following code... $bId = trim($_POST['bId']); $title = trim($_POST['title']); $story = trim($_POST['story']); $q = "SELECT * "; $q .= "FROM " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` "; $q .= "WHERE `blog`.`id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); //confirm_query($r); if (mysql_num_rows($r) == 1) { $q = "UPDATE " . DB_NAME . ".`blog` SET `title` = '{$title}', `story` = '{$story}' WHERE `id` = {$bId}"; $r = mysql_query($q, $connection); if (mysql_affected_rows() == 1) { //Successful $data['success'] = true; $date['errors'] = false; $date['message'] = "You are the Greatest!"; } else { //Fail $data['success'] = false; $data['error'] = true; $date['message'] = "You can't do it fool!"; } } I also get an "mysql_num_rows(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL result resource" error too. Side notes: I am using 1&1 Hosting (worst hosting ever), custom .htaccess file with one line text to enable PHP 5.2 (only why with 1&1 Hosting).

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  • javascript error handeling

    - by pankaj
    I have a javascript function for checking errors which i am callin on OnClicentClick event of a button. Once it catch a error i want to stop execution of click event . But in my case it always it always executes the onclick event. Following is my function: function DisplayError() { if (document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length < 6 || document.getElementById('<%=txtPassword.ClientID %>').value.length > 12) { document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Password length must be between 6 to 12 characters"; return false; } var str = <%=PhoneNumber()%>; if(str.length <10) { alert('<%=phoneNum%>'.length); document.getElementById('<%=lblError.ClientID %>').innerText = "Phone Number not in correct format"; return false; } } button html code: <asp:Button runat="server" Text="Submit" ID="btnSubmit" ValidationGroup="submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="DisplayError()"/> It should not execute the button click event once it satisfies any of the IF condition in javascript function.

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  • scanf a byte then print it out?

    - by Sarah
    I've searched around to see if I can find this answer but I can't seem to (please let me know if I'm wrong). I am trying to use scanf to read in a byte, an unsigned int and a char in one .c file and I am trying to access this byte in a different .c file and print it out. (I have already checked to make sure I have included all the appropriate parameters everywhere) But I keep getting errors. The warnings are: database.c: In function ‘addCitizen’: database.c:23:2: warning: format ‘%hhu’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘byte *’ [-Wformat] database.c:24:2: warning: format ‘%u’ expects argument of type ‘unsigned int’, but argument 2 has type ‘int *’ [-Wformat] database.c:25:2: warning: format ‘%c’ expects argument of type ‘int’, but argument 2 has type ‘char *’ [-Wformat] where I'm scanf'ing: // Request loop while (count-- != 0) { while (1){ // Get values from the user int error = scanf ("%79s %hhu %u %c", tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); addCitizen(db, tname, &tdist, &tyear, &tgender); where I'm printing: void addCitizen(Database *db, char *tname, byte *tdist, int *tyear, char *tgender){ //needs to find the right place in memory to put this stuff and then put it there printf("\nName is: %79s\n", tname); printf("District is: %hhu\n", tdist); printf("Year of birth is: %u\n", tyear); printf("Gender is:%c\n", tgender); I'm not sure where I'm going wrong?

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  • JavaApplicationStub with SWT causing problems

    - by mystro
    I created an application in Eclipse that uses SWT for the GUI. I've attempted to deploy the application using the Eclipse deploy, but it seems that when I do that, LSUIElement is not respected, and I can't force the application to disappear from the dock. Nonwhistanding that issue, the application actually deploys ok and is runnable. I attempted to deploy the application using Jar Bundler, but when I try to run the application, I get the following errors: 2010-06-09 21:44:02.564 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10021f260 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.568 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x10010a0a0 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.569 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x1001127a0 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.582 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x7fff70b7af70 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.583 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100123ea0 of class NSCFData autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.587 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225b90 of class NSCFDictionary autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2010-06-09 21:44:02.588 JavaApplicationStub[89045:2003] * __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100225ee0 of class __NSFastEnumerationEnumerator autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking in a very, very, very, long list. The application launches and appears to hang with the icon constantly bouncing in the dock, and the first GUI menu only partially loaded (it looks like one of the text boxes is semi visible, and the overall rectangle is the right size, but the GUI is not showing properly. It is essentially hung.) I'm hoping someone has had experience with this problem, and may be able to help! Thanks!

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  • scanf segfaults and various other anomalies inside while loop

    - by Shadow
    while(1){ //Command prompt char *command; printf("%s>",current_working_directory); scanf("%s",command);<--seg faults after input has been received. printf("\ncommand:%s\n",command); } I am getting a few different errors and they don't really seem reproducible(except for the segfault at this point .<). This code worked fine about 10 minutes ago, then it infinite looped the printf command and now it seg faults on the line mentioned above. The only thing I changed was scanf("%s",command); to what it currently is. If I change the command variable to be an array it works, obviously this is because the storage is set aside for it. 1) I got prosecuted about telling someone that they needed to malloc a pointer* (But that usually seems to solve the problem such as making it an array) 2) the command I am entering is "magic" 5 characters so there shouldn't be any crazy stack overflow. 3) I am running on mac OSX 10.6 with newest version of xCode(non-OS4) and standard gcc 4) this is how I compile the program: gcc --std=c99 -W sfs.c Just trying to figure out what is going on. Being this is for a school project I am never going to have to see again, I will just code some noob work around that would make my boss cry :) But for afterwards I would love to figure out why this is happening and not just make some fix for it, and if there is some fix for it why that fix works.

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  • Glassfish 3: How do I get and use a developers build so I can navigate a stack trace including Glas

    - by Thorbjørn Ravn Andersen
    I am migrating a JSF 1.1 application to JEE 6 Web profile, and doing it in steps. I am in the process of moving from JSP with JSF 1.1 to Facelets under JSF 1.2 using the jsf-facelets.jar for JSF 1.2, and received an "interesting" stack trace when trying to lookup a key in a Map using a "{Bean.foo.map.key}" where the stacktrace complained about "key" not being a valid integer. (After code introspection I am workarounding it using a number as the key). That bug is not what this question is about. In such a situation it is essential to be able to navigate the source of every line in the stack trace. In Eclipse I normally attach a source jar to every jar on the build path, but in this particular case the Glassfish server adapter creates a library automatically containing the jars. Also there is to my knowledge no debug build of Glassfish where sources are included in the bundle. Glassfish is a non-trivial Maven project, and a bit picky too. I am not very familiar with maven, but have managed to checkout the code from Subversion and build it for the 3.0 tag according to http://wiki.glassfish.java.net/Wiki.jsp?page=V3FullBuildInstructions#section-V3FullBuildInstructions-CheckoutTheWorkspace - it appears to be the code corresponding to the official released 3.0 version. After finishing the "mvn -U install" part, I have then tried to create Eclipse projects by first using "mvn -DdownloadSources=true eclipse:eclipse" and then import them in Eclipse JEE 3.5.2 and specifying the M2_REPO variable but many of the projects still have compilation errors, and I cannot locate any instructions from Oracle about how to do this. I'd appreciate some help in just getting a functional IDE workspace reflecting the 3.0 version of Glassfish. I have Eclipse 3.5.2, Netbeans 6.8 and 6.9 beta, and IntelliJ IDEA 9, and Linux/Windows/OS X do do it on.

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  • duplicate rows in join table with has_many => through and accepts_nested_attributes_for

    - by shalako
    An event has many artists, and an artist has many events. The join of an artist and an event is called a performance. I want to add artists to an event. This works except that I'm getting duplicate entries into my join table when creating a new event. This causes problems elsewhere. event.rb has_many :performances, :dependent => :destroy has_many :artists, :through => :performances accepts_nested_attributes_for :artists, :reject_if => proc {|a| a['name'].blank?} accepts_nested_attributes_for :performances, :reject_if => proc { |a| a['artist_id'].blank? }, :allow_destroy => true artist.rb has_many :performances, :dependent => :destroy has_many :artists, :through => :performances performance.rb belongs_to :artist belongs_to :event events_controller.rb def new @event = Event.new @event.artists.build respond_to do |format| format.html # new.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @event } end end def create @event = Event.new(params[:event]) respond_to do |format| if @event.save flash[:notice] = 'Event was successfully created.' format.html { redirect_to(admin_events_url) } format.xml { render :xml => @event, :status => :created, :location => @event } else format.html { render :action => "new" } format.xml { render :xml => @event.errors, :status => :unprocessable_entity } end end end output Performance Create (0.2ms) INSERT INTO `performances` (`event_id`, `artist_id`) VALUES(7, 19) Performance Create (0.1ms) INSERT INTO `performances` (`event_id`, `artist_id`) VALUES(7, 19)

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  • UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

    - by user1461135
    I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

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  • Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

    - by Chris Boyle
    I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

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  • Android shared library which is not JNI based

    - by Mondain
    I am developing a library for Android applications which does not use native code (JNI). I have tried suppling the library as an external jar in my Android projects but this method does not include the library contents in the apk and thus throws class not found errors when run in the emulator or device. I have also tried creating the library as an Android project in itself and this does work, but only for public static properties (not methods). With the library and application both being in separate apk's I can see that the VM notices references to the library and can read some properties, but when an attempt to instantiate a class in the library is executed I get class not found even though I can read the public static properties from it (very frustrating!!). I realize that Davlik byte code is not the same as Java byte code but I am having trouble even finding good information about how to solve what would seem to be a very simple issue in Android. I am looking into the old PlatformLibrary stuff right now but I am not convinced this will work either since the sample has been removed from the Android site :( So help me out if you can, if I find the answer before this happens I will share it. viva la Android!

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  • NUnit for VS has suddenly bombed.. Anyone else experience this?

    - by Ian P
    I'm getting the following set of errors in a project, that previously worked fine, from NUnit for VS when I try to run either individual or all of the tests in a given solution. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.ApplicationTests\bin\Debug\Application.ApplicationTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.FileDetectorTests\bin\Debug\FileDetectorTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.PresentationTests\bin\Debug\Application.PresentationTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. Error loading C:\Path to Application\Application\Application.DomainTests\bin\Debug\Application.DomainTests.dll: The method or operation is not implemented. I've verified that each project is setup with the appropriate ProjectTypeGuids for a test project in the Project file. I've tried uninstalling / reinstalling NUnit for VS, but have had no luck. Does anyone have any advice as to how I might start troubleshooting this? If I open each individual test project outside of the main solution (that includes all projects, by the way,) and save it as it's own solution, they run just fine. Nothing of note has changed since this stopped working. Thanks! Ian

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  • Visual Studio hangs when deploying a cube

    - by Richie
    Hello All, I'm having an issue with an Analysis Services project in Visual Studio 2005. My project always builds but only occasionally deploys. No errors are reported and VS just hangs. This is my first Analysis Services project so I am hoping that there is something obvious that I am just missing. Here is the situation I have a cube that I have successfully deployed. I then make some change, e.g., adding a hierarchy to a dimension. When I try to deploy again VS hangs. I have to restart Analysis Services to regain control of VS so I can shut it down. I restart everything sometimes once, sometimes twice or more before the project will eventually deploy. This happens with any change I make there seems to be no pattern to this behaviour. Sometimes I have to delete the cube from Analysis Services before restarting everything to get a successful deploy. Also I have successfully deployed the cube, and then subsequently successfully reprocessed a dimension then when I open a query window in SQL Server Management Studio it says that it can find any cubes. As a test I have deployed a cube successfully. I have then deleted it in Analysis Services and attempted to redeploy it, without making any changes to the cube, only to have the same behaviour mentioned above. VS just hangs with no reason so I have no idea where to start hunting down the problem. It is taking 15-20 minutes to make a change as simple as setting the NameColumn of a dimension attribute. As you can imagine this is taking hours of my time so I would greatly appreciate any assistance anyone can give me.

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  • Best way to catch a WCF exception in Silverlight?

    - by wahrhaft
    I have a Silverlight 2 application that is consuming a WCF service. As such, it uses asynchronous callbacks for all the calls to the methods of the service. If the service is not running, or it crashes, or the network goes down, etc before or during one of these calls, an exception is generated as you would expect. The problem is, I don't know how to catch this exception. Because it is an asynchronous call, I can't wrap my begin call with a try/catch block and have it pick up an exception that happens after the program has moved on from that point. Because the service proxy is automatically generated, I can't put a try/catch block on each and every generated function that calls EndInvoke (where the exception actually shows up). These generated functions are also surrounded by External Code in the call stack, so there's nowhere else in the stack to put a try/catch either. I can't put the try/catch in my callback functions, because the exception occurs before they would get called. There is an Application_UnhandledException function in my App.xaml.cs, which captures all unhandled exceptions. I could use this, but it seems like a messy way to do it. I'd rather reserve this function for the truly unexpected errors (aka bugs) and not end up with code in this function for every circumstance I'd like to deal with in a specific way. Am I missing an obvious solution? Or am I stuck using Application_UnhandledException? [Edit] As mentioned below, the Error property is exactly what I was looking for. What is throwing me for a loop is that the fact that the exception is thrown and appears to be uncaught, yet execution is able to continue. It triggers the Application_UnhandledException event and causes VS2008 to break execution, but continuing in the debugger allows execution to continue. It's not really a problem, it just seems odd.

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  • Main Function Error C++

    - by Arjun Nayini
    I have this main function: #ifndef MAIN_CPP #define MAIN_CPP #include "dsets.h" using namespace std; int main(){ DisjointSets s; s.uptree.addelements(4); for(int i=0; i<s.uptree.size(); i++) cout <<uptree.at(i) << endl; return 0; } #endif And the following class: class DisjointSets { public: void addelements(int x); int find(int x); void setunion(int x, int y); private: vector<int> uptree; }; #endif My implementation is this: void DisjointSets::addelements(int x){ for(int i=0; i<x; i++) uptree.push_back(-1); } //Given an int this function finds the root associated with that node. int DisjointSets::find(int x){ //need path compression if(uptree.at(x) < 0) return x; else return find(uptree.at(x)); } //This function reorders the uptree in order to represent the union of two //subtrees void DisjointSets::setunion(int x, int y){ } Upon compiling main.cpp (g++ main.cpp) I'm getting these errors: dsets.h: In function \u2018int main()\u2019: dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:9: error: within this context main.cpp:9: error: \u2018class std::vector \u2019 has no member named \u2018addelements\u2019 dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:10: error: within this context main.cpp:11: error: \u2018uptree\u2019 was not declared in this scope I'm not sure exactly whats wrong. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How do I tweak columns in a Flat File Destination in SSIS?

    - by theog
    I have an OLE DB Data source and a Flat File Destination in the Data Flow of my SSIS Project. The goal is simply to pump data into a text file, and it does that. Where I'm having problems is with the formatting. I need to be able to rtrim() a couple of columns to remove trailing spaces, and I have a couple more that need their leading zeros preserved. The current process is losing all the leading zeros. The rtrim() can be done by simple truncation and ignoring the truncation errors, but that's very inelegant and error prone. I'd like to find a better way, like actually doing the rtrim() function where needed. Exploring similar SSIS questions & answers on SO, the thing to do seems to be "Use a Script Task", but that's ususally just thrown out there with no details, and it's not at all an intuitive thing to set up. I don't see how to use scripting to do what I need. Do I use a Script Task on the Control Flow, or a Script Component in the Data Flow? Can I do rtrim() and pad strings where needed in a script? Anybody got an example of doing this or similar things? Many thanks in advance.

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  • Concurrent Programming:Should I write a sequential program first, then add thread safety?

    - by evthim
    I'm working on a project where we have to create a number of threads(actual number will be inputted in by testers (TA's)). I'm having trouble not only with the programming but also with the design, I can't wrap my head around all of the threads that will be invoked and where I might cause errors. The project is due soon so I don't want to waste time on this if it'll actually set me back, but I was wondering if I should write the program like only one thread will be running and everything should be sequential and then later go back and try to add the thread safety parts of the code? Would that take twice the original amount of time? Project Description: Note:I'm going to be as vague as possible so I don't violate any honor codes, sorry :( your program should accept n number of objectA threads, m number of objectB threads, and r number of objectC objectB threads interact with code in objectA. objectA threads interact with code in objectB and objectC objectB and objectC don't directly interact, but do so indirectly through objectA -ex: objectB needs something from objectA. objectA gets the result for that something by calling objectC my confusion stems mostly from the fact that all of this interactions will be done by m+n threads and there are various restrictions throughout the descriptions, like objectB can request something from objectA, and objectA has to wait for objectC to finish that something before returning it to objectB. Also each objectA thread can only work on one instruction from objectB at a time, etc. etc. I just want to know if I write the code so that there is only 1 objectA, 1 objectB and 1 object C, can I go back and easily modify it so that those 1's can be changed to m, n and r? Sorry again, if my description is a little bit confusing.

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  • Event type property lost in IE-8

    - by Channel72
    I've noticed a strange Javascript error which only seems to happen on Internet Explorer 8. Basically, on IE-8 if you have an event handler function which captures the event object in a closure, the event "type" property seems to become invalidated from within the closure. Here's a simple code snippet which reproduces the error: <html> <head> <script type = "text/javascript"> function handleClickEvent(ev) { ev = (ev || window.event); alert(ev.type); window.setTimeout(function() { alert(ev.type); // Causes error on IE-8 }, 20); } function foo() { var query = document.getElementById("query"); query.onclick = handleClickEvent; } </script> </head> <body> <input id = "query" type = "submit"> <script type = "text/javascript"> foo(); </script> </body> </html> So basically, what happens here is that within the handleClickEvent function, we have the event object ev. We call alert(ev.type) and we see the event type is "click". So far, so good. But then when we capture the event object in a closure, and then call alert(ev.type) again from within the closure, now all of a sudden Internet Explorer 8 errors, saying "Member not found" because of the expression ev.type. It seems as though the type property of the event object is mysteriously gone after we capture the event object in a closure. I tested this code snippet on Firefox, Safari and Chrome, and none of them report an error condition. But in IE-8, the event object seems to become somehow invalidated after it's captured in the closure. Question: Why is this happening in IE-8, and is there any workaround?

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  • MS Access (Jet) transactions, workspaces & scope

    - by Eric G
    I am having trouble with committing a transaction (using Access 2003 DAO). It's acting as if I never had called BeginTrans -- I get error 3034 on CommitTrans, "You tried to commit or rollback a transaction without first beginning a transaction"; and the changes are written to the database (presumably because they were never wrapped in a transaction). However, BeginTrans is run, if you step through it. I am running it within the Access environment using the DBEngine(0) workspace. The tables I'm updating are all opened via a Jet database connection (to the same database) and updated using DAO.Recordset.update. The connection is opened before starting BeforeTrans. I'm not doing anything weird in the middle of the transaction like closing/opening connections or multiple workspaces etc. There is one nested transaction level (basically it's wrapping multiple transacted updates in an outer transaction, so if any fail they all fail). The inner transactions run without errors, it's the outer transaction that doesn't work. Here are a few things I've looked into and ruled out: The transaction is spread across several methods and BeginTrans and CommitTrans (and Rollback) are all in different places. But when I tried a simple test of running a transaction this way, it doesn't seem like this should matter. I thought maybe the database connection gets closed when it goes out of local scope, even though I have another 'global' reference to it (I'm never sure what DAO does with dbase connections to be honest). But this seems not to be the case -- right before the commit, the connection and its recordsets are alive (I can check their properties, EOF = False, etc.) My CommitTrans and Rollback are done within event callbacks. (Very basically, a parser program is throwing an 'onLoad' or 'onLoadFail' event at the end of parsing, which I am handling by either committing or rolling back the inserts I made during processing.) However, again, trying a simple test, it doesn't seem like this should matter. Any ideas why this isn't working for me? Thanks.

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  • Passing information safely between Wicket and Hibernate in long running conversations

    - by Peter Tillemans
    We are using Wicket with Hibernate in the background. As part of out UI we have quite long running conversations spanning multiple requests before the updated information is written back to the database. To avoid getting hibernate errors with detached objects we are now using value objects to transfer info from the service layer to Wicket. However we now end up with an explosion of almost the same objects : e.g. Answer (mapped entity saved in hibernate) AnswerVO (immutable value object) AnswerModel (A mutable bean in the session domain) IModel wrapped Wicket Model and usually this gets wrapped in a CompoundPropertyModel This plumbing becomes exponentially worse when collections to other objects are involved in the objects. There has to be a better way to organize this. Can anyone share tips to make this less onerous? Maybe make the value objects mutable so we can remove the need for a seaprate backing bean in Wicket? Use the entity beans but absolutely make dead-certain they are detached from hibernate. (easier said than done)? Some other tricks or patterns?

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