Search Results

Search found 12857 results on 515 pages for 'spatial index'.

Page 458/515 | < Previous Page | 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465  | Next Page >

  • Iterate over defined elements of a JS array

    - by sibidiba
    I'm using a JS array to Map IDs to actual elements, i.e. a key-value store. I would like to iterate over all elements. I tried several methods, but all have its caveats: for (var item in map) {...} Does iterates over all properties of the array, therefore it will include also functions and extensions to Array.prototype. For example someone dropping in the Prototype library in the future will brake existing code. var length = map.lenth; for (var i = 0; i < length; i++) { var item = map[i]; ... } does work but just like $.each(map, function(index, item) {...}); They iterate over the whole range of indexes 0..max(id) which has horrible drawbacks: var x = []; x[1]=1; x[10]=10; $.each(x, function(i,v) {console.log(i+": "+v);}); 0: undefined 1: 1 2: undefined 3: undefined 4: undefined 5: undefined 6: undefined 7: undefined 8: undefined 9: undefined 10: 10 Of course my IDs wont resemble a continuous sequence either. Moreover there can be huge gaps between them so skipping undefined in the latter case is unacceptable for performance reasons. How is it possible to safely iterate over only the defined elements of an array (in a way that works in all browsers and IE)?

    Read the article

  • jquery animate boxshadow

    - by mstef
    http://jsfiddle.net/mstefanko/w5aAn/877/ Below, i'm achieving the effect I wanted, but with a pending issue. Since i'm using a separate span and positioning it absolute over-top of a box with relative position. I can not access the inputs until after the animation is finished. I'm guessing the only way to alleviate this would be do something similar with just animating the border of the outer box? But nothing I was doing to animate box-shadow:inset was working. HTML <div id="wow"> <span id="pulse"></span> <input id="form-input"/> <input id="form-input"/> </div>? CSS #wow { width: 500px; height: 200px; display: inline-block; position: relative; border: 1px solid black; } #pulse { width: 100%; height: 100%; box-shadow:inset 0 0 20px #6c95c3; -moz-box-shadow:inset 0 0 10px #6c95c3; position: absolute; z-index: 20000; } JS $('#pulse').stop().animate({"opacity": 0}, "fast"); $('#pulse').effect("pulsate", { times:4 }, 500, function() { $(this).remove(); });

    Read the article

  • How can i add to dataGridView1 a data to the last row/column?

    - by user3681442
    In top of form1 i did: private System.Timers.Timer _refreshTimer; private int _thisProcess; Then in the Form1 Load event: _thisProcess = Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id; InitializeRefreshTimer(); PopulateApplications(); Then the timer init method: void InitializeRefreshTimer() { _refreshTimer = new System.Timers.Timer(5000); _refreshTimer.SynchronizingObject = this; _refreshTimer.Elapsed += new System.Timers.ElapsedEventHandler(TimerToUpdate_Elapsed); _refreshTimer.Start(); } Then the timer elapsed event: void TimerToUpdate_Elapsed(object sender, System.Timers.ElapsedEventArgs e) { PopulateApplications(); } In the end the Populate method: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add( p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } The variable status show in the column2 but let's say i want that status will be display for each process/app in column5 ? How can i move it ? EDIT** Tried this: void PopulateApplications() { dataGridView1.Rows.Clear(); foreach (Process p in Process.GetProcesses(".")) { if (p.Id != _thisProcess) { try { if (p.MainWindowTitle.Length > 0) { var icon = Icon.ExtractAssociatedIcon(p.MainModule.FileName); Image ima = icon.ToBitmap(); img.Image = ima; img.HeaderText = "Image"; img.Name = "img"; String status = p.Responding ? "Running" : "Not Responding"; dataGridView1.Rows.Add(img, p.MainWindowTitle, status); } } catch { } } } } I moved the variable img to the top of the form. The problem is i see in each row this: DataGridViewImageColumn { Name=img, Index=-1 } And i don't see the icon it self. Why ?

    Read the article

  • Checking servlet session attribute value in jsp file

    - by Marta
    I have a no framework java application. It consists of jsp files for view and servlets for the business logic. I must set the user session is the servlet with a firstName parameter. In the jsp file, I need to check if my firstName parameter has a value or not. If the firstName parameter is set, I need to display some html in the jsp file. If it is not set, I need to display different html in the jsp file. Servlet.java: HttpSession session = request.getSession(); session.setAttribute("firstName", customer.getFristName()); String url = "/index.jsp"; RequestDispatcher dispatcher = getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher(url); dispatcher.forward(request, response); header.jsp: // Between the <p> tags bellow I need to put some HTML with the following rules // If firstName exist: Hello ${firstName} <a href="logout.jsp">Log out</a> // Else: <a href="login.jsp">Login</a> or <a href="register.jsp">Register</a> <p class="credentials" id="cr"></p> What would be the best way to do this? Any help is much appreciated! Thank you in advance. -Marta

    Read the article

  • Looping through a method without for/foreach/while

    - by RichK
    Is there a way of calling a method/lines of code multiple times not using a for/foreach/while loop? For example, if I were to use to for loop: int numberOfIterations = 6; for(int i = 0; i < numberOfIterations; i++) { DoSomething(); SomeProperty = true; } The lines of code I'm calling don't use 'i' and in my opinion the whole loop declaration hides what I'm trying to do. This is the same for a foreach. I was wondering if there's a looping statement I can use that looks something like: do(6) { DoSomething(); SomeProperty = true; } It's really clear that I just want to execute that code 6 times and there's no noise involving index instantiating and adding 1 to some arbitrary variable. As a learning exercise I have written a static class and method: Do.Multiple(int iterations, Action action) Which works but scores very highly on the pretentious scale and I'm sure my peers wouldn't approve. I'm probably just being picky and a for loop is certainly the most recognisable, but as a learning point I was just wondering if there (cleaner) alternatives. Thanks. (I've had a look at this thread, but it's not quite the same) http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2248985/using-ienumerable-without-foreach-loop

    Read the article

  • Can Drupal Taxonomy module be used to categorize court records and briefs?

    - by DKinzer
    I'm currently working on project that involves moving a database of documents for court records and briefs over to a Drupal environment. One of the problems that we are faced with is how to index these documents. In our court district, records and briefs all have a docket number which is assigned to a case. The interesting thing is that when multiple cases merge the docket numbers associated to the case become synonymous: Case 1, documents have Doceket No. A Case 2, documents have Docket No. B If case Cases 1 and Case 2 merge, then Docket No. A = Docket No. B My first inclination is to create Docket Vocabulary and have the terms of this Taxonomy be the docket numbers. I am hoping to take advantage of the fact that terms can be synonymous. I understand that there are several functions in the Taxonomy module that I may be able to take advantage, of including: taxonomy_get_synonyms taxonomy_get_related But I'm having problems convincing my collegues that this is the way to go, and frankly I'm not certain it's the right solution either. If anyone has had a similar issue and can offer some guidance as to how to move forward, I would greatly appreciate it. Thanks! D I've asked a related question (which I would also need to answer in order to move forward with this solution): http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2656247/can-drupal-terms-in-different-taxonomies-be-synonymous

    Read the article

  • looping array inside list in c#

    - by 3yoon af
    I have a list of array that contains multiple arrays. each array has 2 index .. First, I want to loop the list. Then i want to loop the array inside the list .. How can i do that ? I try to use this way, but it doesn't work ! foreach (string[] s in ArrangList1) { int freq1 = int.Parse(s[1]); foreach (string[] s1 in ArrangList) { int freq2 = int.Parse(s1[1]); if (freq1 < freq2) { backup = s; index1 = ArrangList1.IndexOf(s); index2 = ArrangList.IndexOf(s1); ArrangList[index1] = s1; ArrangList[index2] = s; } backup = null; } } it give me error in line 4.. I try to do the loop using other way .. but i don't know how to continue ! for (int i = 0; i < ArrangList1.Count; i++) { for (int j = 0; j < ArrangList1[i].Length; j++) { ArrangList1[i][1]; } } I use C# language .. Can someone help me, please?

    Read the article

  • Perl : In splice() type of arg1 must be array, cannot be scalar dereference. How to fix?

    - by Michael Mao
    I am trying to comprehend the reference/dereference system in Perl. What I am trying to do is to remove an element by using reference: my $ref= \@{$collection{$_[0]}}; # delete($$ref[$i]); # delete works, I've tested that already splice($$ref, $i, 1); # this wouldn't do. I first tried the delete() subroutine, it works; however, it doesn't shift the index after the removed elements forward by 1, so I cannot continue working on other stuff. I then Googled and found the splice() subroutine which does delete and shift in one go. But the error feedback tells me that "Type of arg 1 to splice must be array (not scalar dereference)..." I then tried something like this: splice(@{$$ref}, $i, 1); That resulted in another error like this: "Not a SCALAR reference at...(pointing at that line)" So I am a bit puzzled, how could I handle this issue? I prefer not using any CPAN or additional library for the solution, if possible.

    Read the article

  • Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

    - by TampaRich
    Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Codeigniter: validation problem

    - by krike
    For some reason a user can login with any password, first I thought I forgot to check for the password but I didn't... and I just cant find the problem here is the model: /*#######################################################*/ function validate() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->db->where('username', $this->input->post('username')); $this->db->where('password', md5($this->input->post('password'))); $q = $this->db->get('user_extra'); if($q->num_rows() == 1): return true; else: return false; endif; }//end of function validate() The controller /*#######################################################*/ function validate_credentials() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->load->model('membership_model'); $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Name', 'trim|required'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'password', 'trim|required'); if(!$this->membership_model->validate()): $this->form_validation->set_message('check_login', 'Login not correct, please try again.'); endif; if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE): $this->index(); else: $this->membership_model->userinfo($this->input->post('username')); //should redirect to last view redirect($this->session->flashdata('redirect_url')); endif; }// end of validate_credentials()

    Read the article

  • Remove file from history completely

    - by Iain
    A colleague has done a few things I told them not to do: forked the origin repo online cloned the fork, added a file that shouldn't have been added to that local repo pushed this to their fork I've then: merged the changes from the fork and found the file I want to remove this from: my local repo the fork their local repo I have a solution for removing something from the history, taken from Remove file from git repository (history). What I need to know is, should my colleague also go through this, and will a subsequent push remove all info from the fork? (I'd like an alternative to just destroying the fork, as I'm not sure my colleague will do this) SOLUTION: This is the shortest way to get rid of the files: check .git/packed-refs - my problem was that I had there a refs/remotes/origin/master line for a remote repository, delete it, otherwise git won't remove those files (optional) git verify-pack -v .git/objects/pack/#{pack-name}.idx | sort -k 3 -n | tail -5 - to check for the largest files (optional) git rev-list --objects --all | grep a0d770a97ff0fac0be1d777b32cc67fe69eb9a98 - to check what files those are git filter-branch --index-filter 'git rm --cached --ignore-unmatch file_names' - to remove the file from all revisions rm -rf .git/refs/original/ - to remove git's backup git reflog expire --all --expire='0 days' - to expire all the loose objects (optional) git fsck --full --unreachable - to check if there are any loose objects git repack -A -d - repacking the pack git prune - to finally remove those objects

    Read the article

  • can I store an id value in array of float type ?

    - by srikanth rongali
    I used, for(id value in values) to get the value from an NSArray. Now I want to store it in 2 dimensional float array[][]. When I try to assign the values to array it is giving error:incompatible types in assignment. I tried to cast the value but I got error: pointer value used where a floating point value was expected. I need to store the values in an 2 dimensional array . How can I make it ? Thank You. @implementation fromFileRead1 NSString *fileNameString; int numberOfEnemies, numberOfValues; -(id)init { if( (self = [super init]) ) { NSString *path = @"/Users/sridhar/Desktop/Projects/exampleOnFile2/enemyDetals.txt"; NSString *contentsOfFile = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:path]; NSArray *lines = [contentsOfFile componentsSeparatedByString:@"\n"]; numberOfEnemies = [lines count]; NSLog(@"The number of Lines: %d", numberOfEnemies); for (id line in lines) { NSLog(@"Line %@", line ); NSString *string1 = line; NSArray *split1 = [string1 componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; numberOfValues = [split1 count]; NSLog(@"The number of values in Row: %d", numberOfValues); for (id value in split1) { NSLog(@"value %@", value); float value1; value1 = [split1 objectAtIndex:2]); NSLog(@"VAlue of Value1 at index 2: %f", value1 ); } } } return self; } @end In enemyDetal.txt I have 1,3,3 2,3,2.8 10,2,1.6

    Read the article

  • Ruby & ActiveRecord: referring to integer fields by (uniquely mapped) strings

    - by JP
    While its not my application a simple way to explain my problem is to assume I'm running a URL shortener. Rather than attempt to try and figure out what the next string I should use as the unique section of the URL, I just index all my URLs by integer and map the numbers to strings behind the scenes, essentially just changing the base of the number to, let's say, 62: a-z + A-Z + 0-9. In ActiveRecord I can easily alter the reader for the url_id field so that it returns my base 62 string instead of the number being stored in the database: class Short < ActiveRecord::Base def url_id i = read_attribute(:convo) return '0' if i == 0 s = '' while i > 0 s << CHARS[i.modulo(62)] i /= 62 end s end end but is there a way to tell ActiveRecord to accept Short.find(:first,:conditions=>{:url_id=>'Ab7'}), ie. putting the 'decoding' logic into my Short ActiveRecord class? I guess I could define my own def self.find_by_unique_string(string), but that feels like cheating somehow! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • how am I supposed to call the function?

    - by user1816768
    I wrote a program which tells you knight's movement (chess). For example if I wanted to know all possible moves, I'd input: possibilites("F4") and I'd get ['D3', 'D5', 'E2', 'E6', 'G2', 'G6', 'H3', 'H5'] as a result, ok I did that, next, I had to write a function in which you input two fields and if those fields are legal, you'd get True and if they're not you'd get False(I had to use the previous function). For example: legal("F4","D3") >>>True code: def legal(field1,field2): c=possibilities(field1) if field1 and field2 in a: return True return False I'm having a problem with the following function which I have to write: I have to put in path of the knight and my function has to tell me if it's legal path, I'm obliged to use the previous function. for example: >>> legal_way(["F3", "E1", "G2", "H4", "F5"]) True >>> legal_way(["F3", "E1", "G3", "H5"]) False >>> legal_way(["B4"]) True I know I have to loop through the list and put first and second item on it in legal(field1,field2) and if it's false, everything is false, but if it's true I have to continue to the end, and this has to work also if I have only one field. I'm stuck, what to do? def legal_way(way): a=len(way) for i in range(0,a-2): if a==1: return true else if legal(way[i],way[i+1]: return True return False and I get True or index out of range

    Read the article

  • Show/hide rows with jquery

    - by Mike
    Hi I am using some modified code from another post. Basically I want to switch between showing 10 rows of a table to showing all rows (50 for example). I have got it to show from 10 rows to all, however what I need to do now is code it so that if I click the div again it toggles or resets back to showing 10 rows. <script type="text/javascript"> var numShown = 10; // Initial rows shown & index var numRows = $('tbody').find('tr').length; var numLeft = numRows - numShown; $(document).ready(function(){ // Hide rows and add clickable div $('tbody') .find('tr:gt(' + (numShown - 1) + ')').hide().end() $('#table_wrapper').after('<div id="more">Show all offers <span>(' + numLeft + ' more)</span></div>'); $('#more').click(function(){ numShown = numShown + numRows; // 7 + 1 = 8 $('tbody').find('tr:lt('+numShown+')').show(); $("#more").html("Show top 10 offers"); }) }) </script>

    Read the article

  • Outer product using CBLAS

    - by The Dude
    I am having trouble utilizing CBLAS to perform an Outer Product. My code is as follows: //===SET UP===// double x1[] = {1,2,3,4}; double x2[] = {1,2,3}; int dx1 = 4; int dx2 = 3; double X[dx1 * dx2]; for (int i = 0; i < (dx1*dx2); i++) {X[i] = 0.0;} //===DO THE OUTER PRODUCT===// cblas_dgemm(CblasRowMajor, CblasNoTrans, CblasTrans, dx1, dx2, 1, 1.0, x1, dx1, x2, 1, 0.0, X, dx1); //===PRINT THE RESULTS===// printf("\nMatrix X (%d x %d) = x1 (*) x2 is:\n", dx1, dx2); for (i=0; i<4; i++) { for (j=0; j<3; j++) { printf ("%lf ", X[j+i*3]); } printf ("\n"); } I get: Matrix X (4 x 3) = x1 (*) x2 is: 1.000000 2.000000 3.000000 0.000000 -1.000000 -2.000000 -3.000000 0.000000 7.000000 14.000000 21.000000 0.000000 But the correct answer is found here: https://www.sharcnet.ca/help/index.php/BLAS_and_CBLAS_Usage_and_Examples I have seen: Efficient computation of kronecker products in C But, it doesn't help me because they don't actually say how to utilize dgemm to actually do this... Any help? What am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Weird Rails database errors

    - by Jason Swett
    I've had some trouble getting my Rails app to connect to PostgreSQL so I decided to just say screw it and use SQLite for now. (I'm using the tutorial here: http://guides.rubyonrails.org/getting_started.html) I started a BRAND NEW, fresh Rails app from this tutorial. When I visit my app in the browser after deleting public/index.html, I get this the first time: Please install the pg adapter: `gem install activerecord-pg-adapter` (no such file to load -- active_record/connection_adapters/pg_adapter) That's odd to me because I'm not mentioning PostgreSQL anywhere. Here's my databases.yml: # SQLite version 3.x # gem install sqlite3-ruby (not necessary on OS X Leopard) development: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/development.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/test.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 production: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/production.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 To make things more confusing, I only get that "pg adapter" error on the first load. For every subsequent page request, I get this error: ActiveRecord::ConnectionNotEstablished So even though I removed all mention of PostgreSQL, I'm still getting errors. What could be going on?

    Read the article

  • STI and accepts_nested_attributes_for in rails

    - by ryanshackintosh
    I have models as follows: class Entity < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :addresses accepts_nested_attributes_for :addresses, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:label].blank?} , :allow_destroy => true end class Client < Entity before_save :set_type private def set_type self.type = "Client" end end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :entity end I have recently implemented accepts_nested_attributes_for on the /clients/new form, as follows: <% form_for(@client, :html => {:class => 'form'}) do |f| -%> <%= f.label :name %> <%= f.text_field :name -%> <%= f.label :phone %> <%= f.text_field :phone %> <% f.fields_for :addresses do |a| %> <%= a.label :street %> <%= a.text_field :street%> <%= a.label :city %> <%= a.text_field :city %> <% end %> <% end %> And my controller as follows: class ClientsController < ApplicationController before_filter :load_client , :except => [:index, :new, :create, :render_clients] def new @client = Client.new @client.addresses.build end def create @client = Client.new(params[:client]) if @client.save flash[:notice] = 'Client has been successfully added' redirect_to @client else render :action => 'new' end end The issue is that when the record is saved it gives an error stating: "Entity can't be blank" I assume it is something to do with the fact that a 'Client' and not an 'Entity' is being added. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • How to limit Access-Control-Allow-Origin to a specific path?

    - by coderama
    I have a website that servies ads via javascript. So, I basically allow the user to include my script.... : <script src="http://www.example.com/ads.js" ></script> <script> MYADDS.insertAdvert(); </script> The problem is, I kept getting: "No Access-Control-Allow-Origin" Errors. That was until I added this to my htaccess file: <IfModule mod_headers.c> Header set Access-Control-Allow-Origin "*" </IfModule> Problem is, this opens up my entire site and is probably a security risk. So, seeing as the ads.js file actually only does an ajax request to: http://www.example.com/place/where/my/adds/are/fed/from How can I make the above htaccess rule only apply to that path? Keep in mind, it's not an actualy directory, so I can't put the htaccess file in that folder. It's actually a "virtual path". The site is built using Laravel and therefore does the typical laravel path rewriting. Here's teh full htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> <IfModule mod_negotiation.c> Options -MultiViews </IfModule> RewriteEngine On # Redirect Trailing Slashes... RewriteRule ^(.*)/$ /$1 [L,R=301] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] </IfModule> Any ideas how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Trouble accessing Mutable array

    - by Jared Gross
    Im having trouble with my for loop where I am trying to index user names. I am able to separate my original array into individual objects but am not able to send the value to a new array that I need to reference later on. The value and count for userNames in my self.userNamesArray = userNames; line is correct. But right after that when I log self.userNamesArray, I get (null). Any tips cause I'm not completely sure I'm cheers! .h @property (nonatomic, copy) NSMutableArray *userNamesArray; .m - (void)viewWillAppear:(BOOL)animated { self.friendsRelation = [[PFUser currentUser] objectForKey:@"friendsRelation"]; PFQuery *query = [self.friendsRelation query]; [query orderByAscending:@"username"]; [query findObjectsInBackgroundWithBlock:^(NSArray *objects, NSError *error) { if (error) { NSLog(@"Error: %@ %@", error, [error userInfo]); } else { self.friends = objects; NSArray *users = [self.friends valueForKey:@"username"]; NSLog(@"username:%@", users); //Create an array of name wrappers and pass to the root view controller. NSMutableArray *userNames = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:[self.friends count]]; for (NSString *user in users) { componentsSeparatedByCharactersInSet:charSet]; NSArray *nameComponents = [user componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; UserNameWrapper *userNameWrapper = [[UserNameWrapper alloc] initWithUserName:nil nameComponents:nameComponents]; [userNames addObject:userNameWrapper]; } self.userNamesArray = userNames; NSLog(@"userNamesArray:%@",self.userNamesArray); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Here's the code where I need to reference the self.userNamesArray where again, it is comping up nil. - (void)setUserNamesArray:(NSMutableArray *)newDataArray { if (newDataArray != self.userNamesArray) { self.userNamesArray = [newDataArray mutableCopy]; if (self.userNamesArray == nil) { self.sectionsArray = nil; NSLog(@"user names empty"); } else { [self configureSections]; } } }

    Read the article

  • Would you allow this type of query?

    - by user564577
    I'm exploring using an ORM tool in our development shop, and in particular Entity Framework 4.0. Since we work with VERY large databases, I'm a bit concerned about the query's it generates. Doing something simple like getting clients with an address in a state looks like below. As a database developer or admin would you allow this? Is it as bad as it looks? Assume every join is on a clustered index. SELECT [Project2].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Project2].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Project2].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Project2].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Project2].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Project2].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate], [Project2].[C1] AS [C1], [Project2].[AddressKey] AS [AddressKey], [Project2].[ClientKey1] AS [ClientKey1], [Project2].[AddressTypeCode] AS [AddressTypeCode], [Project2].[PrimaryAddress] AS [PrimaryAddress], [Project2].[AddressLine1] AS [AddressLine1], [Project2].[AddressLine2] AS [AddressLine2], [Project2].[City] AS [City], [Project2].[State] AS [State], [Project2].[ZIP] AS [ZIP] FROM ( SELECT [Distinct1].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Distinct1].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Distinct1].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Distinct1].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Distinct1].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Distinct1].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate], [Extent3].[AddressKey] AS [AddressKey], [Extent3].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey1], [Extent3].[AddressTypeCode] AS [AddressTypeCode], [Extent3].[PrimaryAddress] AS [PrimaryAddress], [Extent3].[AddressLine1] AS [AddressLine1], [Extent3].[AddressLine2] AS [AddressLine2], [Extent3].[City] AS [City], [Extent3].[State] AS [State], [Extent3].[ZIP] AS [ZIP], CASE WHEN ([Extent3].[AddressKey] IS NULL) THEN CAST(NULL AS int) ELSE 1 END AS [C1] FROM (SELECT DISTINCT [Extent1].[ClientKey] AS [ClientKey], [Extent1].[FirstName] AS [FirstName], [Extent1].[LastName] AS [LastName], [Extent1].[IsEnabled] AS [IsEnabled], [Extent1].[ChangeUser] AS [ChangeUser], [Extent1].[ChangeDate] AS [ChangeDate] FROM [Common].[Clients] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [Common].[ClientAddresses] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[ClientKey] = [Extent2].[ClientKey] WHERE (( CAST(CHARINDEX(UPPER('D'), UPPER([Extent1].[LastName])) AS int)) > 0) AND ([Extent1].[IsEnabled] = 1) AND ([Extent2].[City] IS NOT NULL) AND ((UPPER([Extent2].[City])) = (UPPER('Colorado Springs'))) ) AS [Distinct1] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Common].[ClientAddresses] AS [Extent3] ON [Distinct1].[ClientKey] = [Extent3].[ClientKey] ) AS [Project2] ORDER BY [Project2].[ClientKey] ASC, [Project2].[FirstName] ASC, [Project2].[LastName] ASC, [Project2].[IsEnabled] ASC, [Project2].[ChangeUser] ASC, [Project2].[ChangeDate] ASC, [Project2].[C1] ASC

    Read the article

  • How do I force a DIV block to extend to the bottom of a page even if it has no content?

    - by Vince Panuccio
    In the markup shown below, I'm trying to get the content div to stretch all the way to the bottom of the page but it's only stretching if there's content to display. The reason I want to do this is so the vertical border still appears down the page even if there isn't any content to display. Here is my code <body> <form id="form1"> <div id="header"> <a title="Home" href="index.html" /> </div> <div id="menuwrapper"> <div id="menu"> </div> </div> <div id="content"> </div> and my CSS body { font-family: Trebuchet MS, Verdana, MS Sans Serif; font-size:0.9em; margin:0; padding:0; } div#header { width: 100%; height: 100px; } #header a { background-position: 100px 30px; background: transparent url(site-style-images/sitelogo.jpg) no-repeat fixed 100px 30px; height: 80px; display: block; } #header, #menuwrapper { background-repeat: repeat; background-image: url(site-style-images/darkblue_background_color.jpg); } #menu #menuwrapper { height:25px; } div#menuwrapper { width:100% } #menu, #content { width:1024px; margin: 0 auto; } div#menu { height: 25px; background-color:#50657a; } Thanks for taking a look.

    Read the article

  • Layering Images & Click to Choose Using Javascript

    - by rneal
    So I'm making a gallery of fabrics and backgrounds for letters for a fraternity/sorority store in my college's town. If you don't know what I'm talking about, this is a fabric letter. You can see how it has a white outline (background) and a red inside (foreground). WELL, I want to make it so you can change both the foreground and background, simply by clicking it's similar image. This is what I have so far <script type="text/javascript">// <![CDATA[ function changeImage(filename) { document.mainimage.src = filename; }// ]]></script> with these for each fabrics: <a href="javascript:changeImage('/wp-content/themes/collegiateconnectionbg/images/fabrics/foregrounds/37.jpg')"> <img src="/wp-content/themes/collegiateconnectionbg/images/fabrics/foregrounds/37.jpg" alt="" width="100px" height="50px" /></a> I really like how this works, but it's only good for one layer. Is there anyway I can add a layer below it, but still make it show at the top of the page? I know I'll have to use photoshop and transparency for both options, thats no problem, but I wanted to make sure I can do this before I start creating 600+ images. I know I can play with z-index and css, but since I'm using wordpress the one example I read about here wasn't working or I didn't completely understand it, and messed up my entire page. Also here's my tester webpage to see the current code in work. (if you click the navy&white stars image, you can see a very rough makeshift "A") Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • What is the fastest (to access) struct-like object in Python?

    - by DNS
    I'm optimizing some code whose main bottleneck is running through and accessing a very large list of struct-like objects. Currently I'm using namedtuples, for readability. But some quick benchmarking using 'timeit' shows that this is really the wrong way to go where performance is a factor: Named tuple with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = a.c", "from __main__ import a") 0.38655471766332994 Class using __slots__, with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = b.c", "from __main__ import b") 0.14527461047146062 Dictionary with keys a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = c['c']", "from __main__ import c") 0.11588272541098377 Tuple with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = d[2]", "from __main__ import d") 0.11106188992948773 List with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = e[2]", "from __main__ import e") 0.086038238242508669 Tuple with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = d[key]", "from __main__ import d, key") 0.11187358437882722 List with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = e[key]", "from __main__ import e, key") 0.088604143037173344 First of all, is there anything about these little timeit tests that would render them invalid? I ran each several times, to make sure no random system event had thrown them off, and the results were almost identical. It would appear that dictionaries offer the best balance between performance and readability, with classes coming in second. This is unfortunate, since, for my purposes, I also need the object to be sequence-like; hence my choice of namedtuple. Lists are substantially faster, but constant keys are unmaintainable; I'd have to create a bunch of index-constants, i.e. KEY_1 = 1, KEY_2 = 2, etc. which is also not ideal. Am I stuck with these choices, or is there an alternative that I've missed?

    Read the article

  • splice() not working on correctly

    - by adardesign
    I am setting a cookie for each navigation container that is clicked on. It sets an array that is joined and set the cookie value. if its clicked again then its removed from the array. It somehow buggy. It only splices after clicking on other elements. and then it behaves weird. It might be that splice is not the correct method Thanks much. var navLinkToOpen; var setNavCookie = function(value){ var isSet = false; var checkCookies = checkNavCookie() setCookieHelper = checkCookies? checkCookies.split(","): []; for(i in setCookieHelper){ if(value == setCookieHelper[i]){ setCookieHelper.splice(value,1); isSet = true; } } if(!isSet){setCookieHelper.push(value)} setCookieHelper.join(",") document.cookie = "navLinkToOpen"+"="+setCookieHelper; } var checkNavCookie = function(){ var allCookies = document.cookie.split( ';' ); for (i = 0; i < allCookies.length; i++ ){ temp = allCookies[i].split("=") if(temp[0].match("navLinkToOpen")){ var getValue = temp[1] } } return getValue || false } $(document).ready(function() { $("#LeftNav li").has("b").addClass("navHeader").not(":first").siblings("li").hide() $(".navHeader").click(function(){ $(this).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil("li:has('b')").slideToggle(300); setNavCookie($('.navHeader').index($(this))) return false }) var testCookies = checkNavCookie(); if(testCookies){ finalArrayValue = testCookies.split(",") for(i in finalArrayValue){ $(".navHeader").eq(finalArrayValue[i]).toggleClass("collapsed").nextUntil(".navHeader").slideToggle (0); } } });

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 454 455 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465  | Next Page >