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  • Navigating between pages in a Facebook Platform iframe application

    - by Jimmy Cuadra
    I'm working on a Facebook Platform application that runs in iframe mode, and I'm having trouble understanding how to navigate between pages within the app. Let's say the first page that is loaded within the iframe at my canvas URL is one.html. Within that page, there is a link to two.html that just changes the source of the iframe and doesn't reload the Facebook chrome. When I do this, all the Facebook fb_sig_* query string parameters that Facebook passes to the original page aren't included, and so two.html has no awareness of the connection to Facebook and no ability to make API calls to generate the content for the page. One possible solution would be to manually extract all the Facebook parameters from one.html and append it to the link to two.html myself. This seems really ugly and I figured there had to be a cleaner way. For reference, my application is written in Perl and uses the WWW::Facebook::API module as a client library. I didn't see anything in it that I can use to easily reconstruct the Facebook parameters for use with links in iframe apps. Another possible solution would be to store all the Facebook parameters in a session on my server on the first page load, and just use the values in that session on subsequent page views. But what happens if the data I've stored no longer matches what Facebook would have sent if it were a completely new request (i.e. something in the user's Facebook session changed)? Is there something obvious I'm missing? What is the standard approach to navigating between pages within an iframe app? Facebook's documentation is atrocious and I haven't been able to find anything that clearly explains how this works. I also realize this wouldn't be an issue with an app using FBML instead of an iframe, but my understanding is that iframe apps are now encouraged over FBML apps, though again this seems ambiguous since so much of Facebook's documentation is outdated and contradictory.

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  • How to deploy on a remote machine using hudson's WAS Builder Plugin?

    - by Peter Schuetze
    I have a hudson build server (Windows) that does not have Websphere installed. I created a Hudson node that I connect to via SSH. I also installed the WAS Builder Plugin to run jython scripts on the AIX machine. The job that uses the WAS Builder Plugin is tied to the AIX box. I run into errors. Does anybody know, whether that setup might work or if a different setup will work for the WAS Builder Plugin? EDIT: I get following Error Message: [test] $ cmd /c call /tmp/hudson9035964108103168395.bat FATAL: command execution failed java.io.IOException: cmd: not found at java.lang.UNIXProcess.fullPath(UNIXProcess.java:372) at java.lang.UNIXProcess.<init>(UNIXProcess.java:178) at java.lang.ProcessImpl.start(ProcessImpl.java:114) at java.lang.ProcessBuilder.start(ProcessBuilder.java:466) at hudson.Proc$LocalProc.<init>(Proc.java:149) at hudson.Proc$LocalProc.<init>(Proc.java:121) at hudson.Launcher$LocalLauncher.launch(Launcher.java:633) at hudson.Launcher$ProcStarter.start(Launcher.java:268) at hudson.Launcher$RemoteLaunchCallable.call(Launcher.java:778) at hudson.Launcher$RemoteLaunchCallable.call(Launcher.java:754) at hudson.remoting.UserRequest.perform(UserRequest.java:114) at hudson.remoting.UserRequest.perform(UserRequest.java:48) at hudson.remoting.Request$2.run(Request.java:270) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$RunnableAdapter.call(Executors.java:432) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask$Sync.innerRun(FutureTask.java:284) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:138) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.runTask(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:665) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:690) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:810) Finished: FAILURE I am wondering whether that plugin can be executed on a slave, especially in my case where the master is on Windows and the slave on AIX.

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  • nHibernate strategies in a web farm

    - by Pete Nelson
    Our current project at work is a new MVC web site that will use a WCF service primarily to access a 3rd party billing system via a web service as well as a small SQL database for user personalization. The WCF service uses nHibernate for the SQL database. We'd like to implement some sort of web farm for load balancing as well as failover and maintenance. I'm trying to decide the best way to handle nHibernate's caching and database concurrency if there are multiple WCF services running. Some scenarios I've been thinking about... 1) Multiple IIS servers, one WCF server. With this setup, the WCF server would be a single point of failure, but there would be no issues with nHibernate caching or database concurrency. 2) Multiple IIS servers, each with it's own WCF service. This removes a single point of failure, but now nHibernate on one machine would not know about database changes done by another machine. Some solutions to number 2 would be to use an IStatelessSession so we're not doing any caching and nHibernate is always fetching directly from the database. This might be the most feasible as our personalization database has very few objects in it. I'm also considering a 2nd-level cache such as memcached or Velocity, but it may be overkill for this system. I'm putting this out there to see if anyone has experience doing this sort of architecture and to get some ideas for a solution. Thanks!

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  • Using Javascript to detect when a user has selected an item in an ASP.NET listbox

    - by Amr Bekhit
    Hello all, I am developing an ASP.NET web application that incorporates google maps. I have an ASP.NET listbox on my page which contains a list of items. When the user selects one of the items, I'd like to show this item on the map. The main complication lies in the fact that google maps uses javascript to control it and the listbox is a server control. I can think of two ways to do this. The first would involve the listbox calling a javascript function when the user selects a new item. I can then write this function to perform the necessary map operations. Unfortunately, the OnSelectedIndexChanged property of the listbox doesn't seem to support javascript functions. The second involves wrapping an UpdatePanel around the listbox and getting the listbox to perform a postback. In the SelectedIndexChanged event in VB/C#, I would the need to somehow make a call to a javascript function which would then update the map. Which solution can I use? Thanks --Amr

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  • No long-running conversations - IllegalArgumentException: Stack must not be null

    - by Markos Fragkakis
    Hi all, I have a very simple application with just 2 pages on WebLogic 10.3.2 (11g), Seam 2.2.0.GA. I have a command button in each, which makes a redirect-after-post to the other. This works well, as I see the URL of the current page I am seeing in the address bar. BUT, even though I have no long-running conversations defined, after a random number of clicks, and - I think - after a random number of seconds (~10s - 60s) I get the lovely exception at the end of this post. Now, if I have understood how temporary conversations work when redirecting this happens: When I first see my application, the url is http://localhost:7001/myapp When I click the button in pageA.xhtml, I end up in "pageB.xhtml?cid=26". This is normal because Seam extends the temporary conversation of the first request to last until the renderResponse phase of the redirect. So, it uses the cid (Conversation Id) of the extended temporary conversation to find any propagated parameters. When I click the button in pageB.xhtml, I end up in pageA.xhtml?cid=26 The same cid was given to the new extended temporary conversation. This is normal because the conversation ended at the end of the previous redirect-after-post, and not the number 26 is free to use as a cid. Is this all correct? If yes, why does this happen: If I re-type the applications home address (showing pageA) and re-click, I end up in pageB.xhtml?cid=29, which is a different number than 26. But 26 has ended after the previous RenderResponse phase, befire I re-types the url. Why is it not used instead of 29? So, to sup up, 2 questions: Why do I get the exception, even though I have not started any long-running conversations? What happens exactly with the cid? On what basis does it change? Cheers,

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  • What's all this fuss about?

    - by atch
    Hi guys, At the beginning I want to state that it is not my intention to upset anyone who uses/like language other than C++. I'm saying that due to the fact that on one forum everytime when I've tried to ask questions of similiar nature I was almost always accused of trying to create a raw. Ok that's having done this is my question: I don't understand why java/c# creators thought/think that having something like vm and having source code compiled to bytecode instead of native code is in a long run any advantage. And why having function compiled for a first time when they are invoked is any advantege? And what's the story about write once run everywhere? When I think about the business of having something written once and it can run everywhere - well in theory this is all well. But I know for a fact that in practice it doesn't look that well at all. It is rather like write once test everywhere. And why would I preffer something to be compiled on runtime instead of compiletime. If I would have to wait even one hour longer for program to be installed once and for all and all the compilation would be done and nothing would be compiled after that I would preffer that. And I don't really know how it works in the real world (I'm a student never worked in IT business) but for example if I have working program written in C++ for Windows and I have wish to move it to another platform wouldn't I have to take my source code and compile it on desired machine? So in other words isn't that rather problem of having compiler which will compile source code on different machines (as far as I'm concerned there is just one C++ and source code will look identical in every machine). And last but not least if you think about it how many programs they are which are really word porting? I personnally can think of 3 maybe four.

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  • Using Java Executor on AppEngine causes AccessControlException

    - by Drew
    How do you get java.util.concurrent.Executor or CompletionService to work on Google AppEngine? The classes are all officially white-listed, but I get a runtime security error when trying to submit asynchronous tasks. Code: // uses the async API but this factory makes it so that tasks really // happen sequentially Executor executor = java.util.concurrent.Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); // wrap Executor in CompletionService CompletionService<String> completionService = new ExecutorCompletionService<String>(executor); final SomeTask someTask = new SomeTask(); // this line throws exception completionService.submit(new Callable<String>(){ public String call() { return someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); // alternately, send Runnable task directly to Executor, // which also throws an exception executor.execute(new Runnable(){ public void run() { someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); } private class SomeTask{ public String doNothing(String message){ return message; } } Exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.lang.RuntimePermission modifyThreadGroup) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:323) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:546) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkPermission(DevAppServerFactory.java:166) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkAccess(DevAppServerFactory.java:191) at java.lang.ThreadGroup.checkAccess(ThreadGroup.java:288) at java.lang.Thread.init(Thread.java:332) at java.lang.Thread.(Thread.java:565) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DefaultThreadFactory.newThread(Executors.java:542) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addThread(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:672) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addIfUnderCorePoolSize(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:697) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.execute(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:652) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DelegatedExecutorService.execute(Executors.java:590) at java.util.concurrent.ExecutorCompletionService.submit(ExecutorCompletionService.java:152) This code works fine when run on Tomcat or via command-line JVM. However, it chokes in the AppEngine SDK Jetty container (tried with Eclipse plugin and the maven-gae-plugin). AppEngine is likely designed to not allow potentially dangerous programs to run, so I could see them completely disabling thread creation. However, why would Google allow you to create a class, but not allow you to call methods on it? White-listing java.util.concurrent is misleading. Is there some other way to do parallel/simultaneous/concurrent tasks on GAE?

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  • Jquery if visible conditional not working

    - by Wade D Ouellet
    Hey, I have a page going here that uses jQuery: http://treethink.com/services What I am trying to do is, if a slide or sub-page is shown in there, change the background colour and colour of the button. To do this I tried saying, if a certain div is shown, the background colour of a certain button changes. However, you can see there that it isn't working properly, it is changing the colour for the web one but not removing the colour change and adding a colour change on a different button when you change pages. Here is the overall code: /* Hide all pages except for web */ $("#services #web-block").show(); $("#services #print-block").hide(); $("#services #branding-block").hide(); /* When a button is clicked, show that page and hide others */ $("#services #web-button").click(function() { $("#services #web-block").show(); $("#services #print-block").hide(); $("#services #branding-block").hide(); }); $("#services #print-button").click(function() { $("#services #print-block").show(); $("#services #web-block").hide(); $("#services #branding-block").hide(); }); $("#services #branding-button").click(function() { $("#services #branding-block").show(); $("#services #web-block").hide(); $("#services #print-block").hide(); }); /* If buttons are active, disable hovering */ if ($('#services #web-block').is(":visible")) { $("#services #web-button").css("background", "#444444"); $("#services #web-button").css("color", "#999999"); } if ($('#services #print-block').is(":visible")) { $("#services #print-button").css("background", "#444444"); $("#services #print-button").css("color", "#999999"); } if ($('#services #branding-block').is(":visible")) { $("#services #branding-button").css("background", "#444444"); $("#services #branding-button").css("color", "#999999"); } Thanks, Wade

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  • Content management recommendations for website?

    - by Travis
    Hello I am working on a website that has a wide range of content. (News, FAQs, tutorials, blog, articles, product pages etc.) Currently a lot of this content is static or uses special-purpose scripts. I would like to move most of it under the wing of a single content manager. I have not used out of the box content management software previously so am hoping for some recommendations on what options there are and what might be best suited to a project like this. Whether the manager is open source or commercial, and what language it is written in, are not so important. I can customize the environment as necessary. The most important things are: 1) The ability to manage a wide variety of content. 2) The ability to create highly customized templates for a single page of content or entire category of content. 3) Flexibility. ie The ability to integrate managed content with other pages not controlled by the content manager. Thanks in advance for your help, Travis

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  • Disable Return key outside textareas on a Asp.Net web page (containing ajax code)

    - by Achim
    Hi, I have an Asp.Net web page, having the common Asp.Net form. The outer "border" of the page (i.e. main menu, header, ...) is build using normal Asp.Net code using a master page. The content of that page uses jQuery to display dynamic forms and to send data to the server. If I push the return key on that page, I jump to a (more or less) random page - which is not what the user expects. ;-) There are some text areas and the user must be able to enter line breaks. Otherwise it would be fine to disable the return key completely. Any bullet proof way to do that? I found some solutions on the web, which capture the keypress event and ignore \x13, but that does not really work. It works as long as the page has just loaded, but as soon as I have clicked on some elements, the return key behaves as usuall. Any hint would be really appreciated! Achim

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  • Extending Python and Objective-C

    - by chpwn
    I'm a fan of clean code. I like my languages to be able to express what I'm trying to do, but I like the syntax to mirror that too. For example, I work on a lot of programs in Objective-C for jailbroken iPhones, which patch other code using the method_setImplementation() function of the runtime. Or, in PyObjC, I have to use the syntax UIView.initWithFrame_(), which is also pretty awful and unreadable with the way the method names are structured. In both cases, the language does not support this in syntax. I've found three basic ways that this is done: Insane macros. Take a look at this "CaptainHook", it does what I'm looking for in a usable way, but it isn't quite clean and is a major hack. There's also "Logos", which implements a very nice syntax, but is written in Perl parsing my code with a ton of regular expressions. This scares me. I like the idea of adding a %hook ClassName, but not by using regular expressions to parse C or Objective-C. Finally, there is Cycript. This is an extension to JavaScript which interfaces with the Objective-C runtime and allows you to use Objective-C style code in your JavaScript, and inject that into other processes. This is likely the cleanest as it actually uses a parser for the JavaScript, but I'm not a huge fan of that language in general. Should, and how should, I create an extension to Python and Objective-C to allow me to do this? Is it worth writing a parser for my language to transform the syntax into something nicer, if it is only in a very specialized niche like this? Should I just live with the horrible syntax of the default Objective-C hooking or PyObjC?

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  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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  • Internet explorer only executing function inside jQuery ajax success response once even though there

    - by user249950
    Hi, I have a function that uses jQuery.load() to call in 3 snippets of forms from different pages and then on the success text status it tries to load a colour picker: $(document).ready(function() { function ajax_form(putloadingboxhere, putsnippethere, snippeturl) { $(putsnippethere).load(snippeturl, function (responseText, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest, ) { if (textStatus == "success") { alert('One') $("input.pickcolor").ColorPicker({ onShow: function (colpkr) { $(colpkr).fadeIn(500); return false; }, onSubmit: function(hsb, hex, rgb, el) { $(el).val(hex); $(el).ColorPickerHide(); $(el).siblings('.colorpreview').css('background-color', '#' + hex); }, onBeforeShow: function () { $(this).ColorPickerSetColor(this.value); } }) .bind('keyup', function(){ $(this).ColorPickerSetColor(this.value); }); alert('Two') } if (textStatus == "error") { // Show error message } }); } ajax_form('tab_box', '#formone', 'snippet_one.htm #snippet'); ajax_form('tab_box', '#formtwo', 'snippet_two_copy.htm #snippet'); ajax_form('tab_box', '#formthree', 'snippet_three.htm #snippet'); }); It works fine in Firefox and Safari but (surprise, surprise) IE has a problem with it. I have added an alert to see what is going on before and after one of the functions. FF & Safari & IE8: Alert 'one' and Alert 'two' appear three times as expected and colour picker appears. IE6 & 7: Alert 'one' shows three times and colour picker does not appear. Any help would be great! Cheers. EDIT The line IE is referring to when it throws this error: 'Error: Object doesn't support this property or method.' is: $('input.pickcolor').ColorPicker Anyone got any insights? Thanks

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  • Choosing random numbers efficiently

    - by Frederik Wordenskjold
    I have a method, which uses random samples to approximate a calculation. This method is called millions of times, so its very important that the process of choosing the random numbers is efficient. I'm not sure how fast javas Random().nextInt really are, but my program does not seem to benefit as much as I would like it too. When choosing the random numbers, I do the following (in semi pseudo-code): // Repeat this 300000 times Set set = new Set(); while(set.length != 5) set.add(randomNumber(MIN,MAX)); Now, this obviously has a bad worst-case running time, as the random-function in theory can add duplicated numbers for an eternity, thus staying in the while-loop forever. However, the numbers are chosen from {0..45}, so a duplicated value is for the most part unlikely. When I use the above method, its only 40% faster than my other method, which does not approximate, but yields the correct result. This is ran ~ 1 million times, so I was expecting this new method to be at least 50% faster. Do you have any suggestions for a faster method? Or maybe you know of a more efficient way of generation a set of random numbers.

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  • svcutil, WSDL, and the generated interfaces not being sufficient for implementation

    - by chtmd
    I have a WSDL file defining a service that I have to implement in WCF. I had read that I could generate the proxy using svcutil from the WSDL file, and that I could then use the generated interfaces to implement the service. Unfortunately, I can't quite seem to find a way to have the interfaces contain the correct attributes to expose the contracts. All operations have the "OperationContractAttribute" attribute, but it appears as though for the service to be exposed, I require the "OperationContract" for each one. Same thing with "ServiceContractAttribute" and "ServiceContract", and I imagine DataContract, but I haven't gotten that far. I could manually make these changes, but I would much prefer a technique where the existing code could be easily used, or better code could be generated for my uses. Is there some way that this can be done? Thanks. EDIT: Command used: svcutil ObjectManagerService.wsdl /n:*,Sample /o:ObjectManagerServiceProxy.cs /nologo Code sample: public interface ObjectManagerSyncPortType { // CODEGEN: Generating message contract since the operation createObject is neither RPC nor document wrapped. [System.ServiceModel.OperationContractAttribute(Action="http://www.sample.com/createObject", ReplyAction="*")] [System.ServiceModel.XmlSerializerFormatAttribute()] Sample.createObjectResponse1 createObject(Sample.createObjectRequest1 request); As best as I can tell/see the WSDL file is entirely self-contained and requires no additional XSD files.

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  • DotNetOpenAuth OpenID on ISA 2006 Reverse Proxy problem

    - by userb00
    I am trying to host my site that uses DotNetOpenAuth (OpenID) behind ISA 2006 (reverse proxy), and after it authenticated with a provider (such as Google), and it returns with a URL with %253A in the URL. However, ISA HTTP filter rejects the request. What I need to do is, on ISA web publishing rule, right click config HTTP policy properties uncheck "Verify Normalization" and it worked. Is this a problem on ISA 2006 generally? Are other firewalls having similar problems? Or, is it an OpenID or DotNetOpenAuth issue? Is it safe to disable Normalization checking on ISA? According to MSDN, quote "Web servers receive requests that are URL encoded. This means that certain characters may be replaced with a percent sign (%) followed by a particular number. For example, %20 corresponds to a space, so a request for http://myserver/My%20Dir/My%20File.htm is the same as a request for http://myserver/My Dir/My File.htm. Normalization is the process of decoding URL-encoded requests. Because the % can be URL encoded, an attacker can submit a carefully crafted request to a server that is basically double-encoded. If this occurs, Internet Information Services (IIS) may accept a request that it would otherwise reject as not valid. When you select Verify Normalization, the HTTP filter normalizes the URL two times. If the URL after the first normalization is different from the URL after the second normalization, the filter rejects the request. This prevents attacks that rely on double-encoded requests. Note that while we recommend that you use the Verify Normalization function, it may also block legitimate requests that contain a %."

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  • Configuring authlogic-oauth with google

    - by Zak
    Howdy everybody, I am trying to learn rails, and I'm working on an app that uses Google for logins and also for calendar data. I'm currently working on configuring authlogic-oauth and having some issues. I've been following the guide for the authlogic-oauth (see link above) plugin, and I'm on steps 4 and 5. First off, I am still learning the language and I'm not sure where the code from step 4 goes in the controllers: @user_session.save do |result| if result flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default account_url else render :action = :new end end Secondly, I'm trying to set up step 5, the actual Google oauth data step: class UserSession < Authlogic::Session::Base def self.oauth_consumer OAuth::Consumer.new("TOKEN", "SECRET", { :site="http://google.com", :authorize_url = "http://google.com/xxx" }) end end I'm not entirely sure where I find the info I need to fill this in. I've been reading hxxp://code.google.com/apis/accounts/docs/OAuth_ref.html (sorry I can only post one hyperlink), but I'm just not sure where I get everything and what the plugin handles for itself. Finally, I'm not quite sure how I retrieve the calendar info, I've just been told I could by someone on IRC. Do I do it through this plugin or do I have to use another one as well? Thanks so much!

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  • Android : ugly TABS in 2.0 vs 1.5 ... why ? where are my rounded corners TABS ?

    - by Hubert
    I simply use the tabwidget : mTabHost = getTabHost(); mTabHost.addTab(mTabHost.newTabSpec("tab_1").setIndicator(getString(R.string.day0)).setContent(R.id.tab1_content)); mTabHost.addTab(mTabHost.newTabSpec("tab_2").setIndicator(getString(R.string.day1)).setContent(R.id.tab2_content)); mTabHost.addTab(mTabHost.newTabSpec("tab_3").setIndicator(getString(R.string.day2)).setContent(R.id.tab3_content)); mTabHost.addTab(mTabHost.newTabSpec("tab_4").setIndicator(getString(R.string.day3)).setContent(R.id.tab4_content)); mTabHost.addTab(mTabHost.newTabSpec("tab_5").setIndicator(getString(R.string.about)).setContent(R.id.tab5_content)); mTabHost.setCurrentTab(0); Why are my tabs so uggly in 2.0 (no more rounded corners as in 1.5/1.6) ? ugly tabs here = this was better What should I do now to show "rounded corners" TABS to Nexus One (for exemple) users ;-) ? Is it because of the following manifest lines : <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="3" android:targetSdkVersion="4" /> <supports-screens android:smallScreens="true" android:normalScreens="true" android:largeScreens="true" android:anyDensity="true" /> I have to keep android:anyDensity="true" otherwise I've got a problem with re-sizing of the menus described here As a separate question, my users can change the Locale within my app itself, I then "redraw" the menus using onPrepareOptionsMenu (Menu menu) to refresh the strings within the menu with the new language choosen by the user. Is there an equivalent for TABS (I have local strings within the Title of the TABS) or do I have to delete all the tabs and re-create them from scratch ? Txs in advance for your help. Hub

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  • extracting SWF gives compiler errors in adobe flash CS4

    - by Andy
    Hey, I have been given an SWF to edit a link in the AS code. The fact is the SWF uses some XML that is generated (actually retrieved) by PHP code from a database. menuXML.load("/sub/page/dynamic.php?genre=" + genre); so the point is we can use the same SWF 'mainfraim' and fill them with different animations/sources based on the link provided in dynamic.php?genre=### Now, I've used Flash Decompiler Gold to extract all files in the SWF and can open it again in Adobe Flash to edit it. When done I enter CTRL+ENTER and there are immediately 4 compiler errors!! Errors: 1x < Unexpected 'if' encountered 2x < Statement block must be terminated by '}' 1x < Ecpected a field name after '.' operator. How can these errors be present, when the original SWF works perfectly??! If I don't manage to solve this, I'll have to find out how to create an .php file the SWF tries to use which can select the proper resources (from a database I guess) to show them (using ?genre=###) Thanks!

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  • Is an LSA MSV1_0 subauthentication package needed for some impersonation use cases?

    - by Chris Sears
    Greetings, I'm working with a vendor who has implemented some code that uses a Windows LSA MSV1_0 subauthentication package (MSDN info if you're interested: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa374786(VS.85).aspx ) and I'm trying to figure out if it's necessary. As far as I can tell, the subauthentication routine and filter allow for hooking or customizing the standard LSA MSV1_0 logon event processing. The issue is that I don't understand why the vendor's product would need these capabilities. I've asked them and they said they use it to perform impersonation. The product definitely does need to do impersonation, but based on my limited win32 knowledge, they could get the functionality they need using the normal auth APIs (LsaLogonUser, ImpersonateLoggedOnUser, etc) without the subauthentication package. Furthermore, I've worked with a number of similar products that all do impersonation, and this is the only one that's used a subauthentication package. If you're wondering why I would care, a previous version of the product had a bug in the subauthentication package dll that would cause lockups or bluescreens. That makes me rather nervous and has me questioning the use of such a low-level, kernel sensitive interface. I'd like to go back to the vendor and say "There's no way you could need an LSA subauth package for impersonation - take it out", but I'm not sure I understand the use cases and possible limitations of the standard win32 authentication/impersonation APIs well enough to make that claim definitively. So, to the win32 security gurus out there, is there any reason you would need an LSA MSV1_0 subauthentication package if all you were doing is impersonation? Thanks in advance for any thoughts!

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  • How to inject a Session Bean into a Message Driven Bean?

    - by Hank
    Hi guys, I'm reasonably new to JEE, so this might be stupid.. bear with me pls :D I would like to inject a stateless session bean into a message-driven bean. Basically, the MDB gets a JMS message, then uses a session bean to perform the work. The session bean holds the business logic. Here's my Session Bean: @Stateless public class TestBean implements TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething() { // business logic goes here } } The matching interface: @Remote public interface TestBeanRemote { public void doSomething(); } Here's my MDB: @MessageDriven(mappedName = "jms/mvs.TestController", activationConfig = { @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "acknowledgeMode", propertyValue = "Auto-acknowledge"), @ActivationConfigProperty(propertyName = "destinationType", propertyValue = "javax.jms.Queue") }) public class TestController implements MessageListener { @EJB private TestBean testBean; public TestController() { } public void onMessage(Message message) { testBean.doSomething(); } } So far, not rocket science, right? Unfortunately, when deploying this to glassfish v3, and sending a message to the appropriate JMS Queue, I get errors that glassfish is unable to locate the TestBean EJB: java.lang.IllegalStateException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: com.sun.enterprise.container.common.spi.util.InjectionException: Exception attempting to inject Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session into class mvs.test.TestController Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:comp/env/mvs.test.TestController/testBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Exception resolving Ejb for 'Remote ejb-ref name=mvs.test.TestController/testBean,Remote 3.x interface =mvs.test.TestBean,ejb-link=null,lookup=null,mappedName=,jndi-name=mvs.test.TestBean,refType=Session' . Actual (possibly internal) Remote JNDI name used for lookup is 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' [Root exception is javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean' in SerialContext [Root exception is javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: mvs.test.TestBean#mvs.test.TestBean not found]]] So my questions are: - is this the correct way of injecting a session bean into another bean (particularly a message driven bean)? - why is the naming lookup failing? Thanks for all your help! Cheers, Hank

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  • How to determine the correct (case sensitive) URL for a SharePoint site

    - by Goyuix
    SharePoint is generally very tolerant of accepting a URL in a case-insensitive fashion, however there are a few cases where it completely breaks down. For example, when creating a site column it somehow stores and uses the URL when it was created, and when trying to edit the field definition through the Site Column Gallery (fldedit.aspx page in the LAYOUTS) you end up throwing the error below. Value does not fall within the expected range. at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFieldCollection.GetFieldByInternalName(String strName, Boolean bThrowException) at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPFieldCollection.GetFieldByInternalName(String strName) at Microsoft.SharePoint.ApplicationPages.BasicFieldEditPage.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) How can I reliably get the correct URL for a site/web? The SPSite.Url and SPWeb.Url properties seem to return back whatever case they are instantiated with. In other words, the site collection is provisioned using the following URL: http://server/Path/Site If I create a new Site Column using the SharePoint object model and happen to use http://server/path/site when instantiating the SPSite and SPWeb objects, the site column will be made available but when trying to access it through the gallery the error above is generated. If I correct the URL in the address bar, I can still view/modify the definition for the SPField in question, but the default URL that is generated is bogus. Clear as mud? Example code: (this is a bad example because of the case sensitivity issue) // note: site should be partially caps: http://server/Path/Site using (SPSite site = new SPSite("http://server/path/site")) { using (SPWeb web = site.OpenWeb()) { web.Fields.AddFieldAsXml("..."); // correct XML really here } }

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  • Post Loading ads - using appendChild to move an IFRAME with text link ads

    - by Prem
    I have changed code around to basically load an add the bottom of the page in a hidden div and attached an onload event handler that called document.getElementById(xxx).appendChild() to take the hidden ad and move it into the right spot in my page. This works GREAT.. however when the ad is a text ad it AFTER i move the ad there is nothing in the rendered Iframe. I did tests to see what it looks like before i move it and sure enough the text links load in the IFRAME but the second i do the appendChild call to move the div that contains the ad i seem to loose the contents of the Iframe. Any ideas whats going on <div id="myad" style="display: none;"> GA_googleFillSlot("MyADSlotName"); </div> <script> window.onload = function() { // leader board document.getElementById('adplaceholder').appendChild(document.getElementById('myAd')); document.getElementById('myAd').style.display = ''; </script> UPDATE: I think what the problem here is that on text ads google writes to the iframe directly inserting the relevant text links where are on other ads it uses the iframe to just point to some src. seems like when i do the appendchild, if there is no "src" set for the iframe after the copy is done the iframe in the new location contains nothing... guess it does a reload on the src? Any way around this??

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  • How do I debug a crash when I run my garbage-collected app in Rosetta?

    - by Rob Keniger
    I have a Universal app which is targeting 10.5 and which uses garbage collection. I am building for ppc, i386 and x86_64. I don't have access to a physical PowerPC machine so I am trying to use Rosetta to confirm that the PowerPC portion of the app works correctly. However, as soon as the app is launched in Rosetta it immediately crashes with the following crash log: Process: FooApp [91567] Path: /Users/rob/Development/src/FooApp/build/Release 64-bit/FooApp.app/Contents/MacOS/FooApp Identifier: com.companyX.FooApp Version: 0.9 (build d540e05) (2) Code Type: PPC (Translated) Parent Process: launchd [708] Date/Time: 2010-04-09 18:32:23.962 +1000 OS Version: Mac OS X 10.6.3 (10D573) Report Version: 6 Exception Type: EXC_CRASH (SIGTRAP) Exception Codes: 0x0000000000000000, 0x0000000000000000 Crashed Thread: 5 ...snip non-relevant threads... Thread 5 Crashed: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x8023656a __pthread_kill + 10 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x80235e17 pthread_kill + 95 2 com.companyX.FooApp 0xb80bfb30 0xb8000000 + 785200 3 com.companyX.FooApp 0xb80c0037 0xb8000000 + 786487 4 com.companyX.FooApp 0xb80dd8e8 0xb8000000 + 907496 5 com.companyX.FooApp 0xb8145397 spin_lock_wrapper + 1791 6 com.companyX.FooApp 0xb801ceb7 0xb8000000 + 118455 I have used the Apple docs on debugging translated apps and the information on this page to attach gdb to the app when it's running in Rosetta. The app immediately breaks into the debugger upon launch: Program received signal SIGTRAP, Trace/breakpoint trap. [Switching to thread 15107] 0x9151fdd4 in auto_fatal () (gdb) bt #0 0x9151fdd4 in auto_fatal () #1 0x91536d84 in Auto::Thread::get_register_state () #2 0x915372f8 in Auto::Thread::scan_other_thread () #3 0x91529be4 in Auto::Zone::scan_registered_threads () #4 0x91539114 in Auto::MemoryScanner::scan_thread_ranges () #5 0x9153b000 in Auto::MemoryScanner::scan () #6 0x9153049c in Auto::Zone::collect () #7 0x915198f4 in auto_collect_internal () #8 0x9151a094 in auto_collection_work () #9 0x96687434 in _dispatch_call_block_and_release () #10 0x9668912c in _dispatch_queue_drain () #11 0x96689350 in _dispatch_queue_invoke () #12 0x966895c0 in _dispatch_worker_thread2 () #13 0x966896fc in _dispatch_worker_thread () #14 0x965a97e8 in _pthread_body () (gdb) I have no idea where to start with this. It looks like the Garbage Collector is failing very badly. Are garbage-collected PowerPC apps not supported in Rosetta? I can't see any mention of this limitation in the docs if so. Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • Why I am getting a Heap Corruption Error?

    - by vaidya.atul
    I am new to C++. I am getting HEAP CORRUPTION ERROR. Any help will be highly appreciated. Below is my code class CEntity { //some member variables CEntity(string section1,string section2); CEntity(); virtual ~CEntity(); //pure virtual function .. virtual CEntity* create()const =0; }; I derive CLine from CEntity as below class CLine:public CEntity { // Again some variables ... // Constructor and destructor CLine(string section1,string section2); CLine(); ~CLine(); CLine* Create() const; } // CLine Implementation CLine::CLine(string section1,string section2):CEntity(section1,section2){}; CLine::CLine(); CLine* CLine::create()const{return new CLine();} I have another class CReader which uses CLine object and populates it in a multimap as below class CReader { public: CReader(); ~CReader(); multimap<int,CEntity*>m_data_vs_entity; }; //CReader Implementation CReader::CReader() { m_data_vs_entity.clear(); }; CReader::~CReader() { multimap<int,CEntity*>::iterator iter; for(iter = m_data_vs_entity.begin();iter!=m_data_vs_entity.end();iter++) { CEntity* current_entity = iter->second; if(current_entity) delete current_entity; } m_data_vs_entity.clear(); } I am reading the data from a file and then populating the CLine Class.The map gets populated in a function of CReader class. Since CEntity has a virtual destructor, I hope the piece of code in CReader's destructor should work. In fact, it does work for small files but I get HEAP CORRUPTION ERROR while working with bigger files. If there is something fundamentally wrong, then, please help me find it, as I have been scratching my head for quit some time now. Thanks in advance and awaiting reply, Regards, Atul

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