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• Is there any conflict between NFS and calling getFD().sync()?

  - by Dr.Dredel

  My boss is worried that our NFS file system will not be happy with the jboss run java process calling getFD().sync on the files we are writing. We have noticed that frequently the time stamp on the created file is minutes (sometimes as many as 15 minutes) after the log claims the file was finished writing. My only guess is that the NFS is hanging on to the file in memory and not writing it till it feels like it. sync should solve that probelm, right? I also noticed that there is never a close() called on the file. Wondering if that could have been the cause as well? any thoughts appreciated.

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• How do I set properties related to the calling method's scope?

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  I'm not looking for a way to associate values with a thread using the 'SetData' method. I need to store some kind of data that will only exist during the scope of a calling method, could be the immediate parent or any other call that is made down on the stack. For example: void SomeMethod() { string someInfo = "someInfo"; SomeOtherMethod(); object data = GetDataOnCurrentScope("someKey"); } void SomeOtherMethod() { SetDataOnParentScope("someKey", somevalue); } In this case both the 'someInfo' local variable and the data set with the "someKey" key will disapear after 'SomeMethod' returns. Is something like this possible? This may go against the rules of a stack, but who knows if someone has an idea...

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• Why exactly is calling the destructor for the second time undefined behavior in C++?

  - by sharptooth

  As mentioned in this answer simply calling the destructor for the second time is already undefined behavior 12.4/14(3.8). For example: class Class { public: ~Class() {} }; // somewhere in code: { Class* object = new Class(); object->~Class(); delete object; // UB because at this point the destructor call is attempted again } In this example the class is designed in such a way that the destructor could be called multiple times - no things like double-deletion can happen. The memory is still allocated at the point where delete is called - the first destructor call doesn't call the ::operator delete() to release memory. For example, in Visual C++ 9 the above code looks working. Even C++ definition of UB doesn't directly prohibit things qualified as UB from working. So for the code above to break some implementation and/or platform specifics are required. Why exactly would the above code break and under what conditions?

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• Calling C++/CLI Method with System::DateTime parameter requires 'ValueType' as a parameter?

  - by David Ipsen

  I'm attempting to call a method written in C++/CLI from C#. The C++/CLI code is used to update a TIMESTAMP column in an Oracle database, given a record ID and the System::DateTime object which is the .NET compatible data type for Oracle's TIMESTAMP type. The method I am calling has the following prototype: bool ChangeJobUpdateDate (int jobIdIn, System::DateTime^ updateDateIn) I've added a reference to this DLL project in a test project that I made; I'm writing the tests in C#. However, when I try to call this method from the C# unit test project, the function appears to have the following method declaration (via intellisense): bool ChangeJobUpdateDate (int jobIdIn, ValueType updateDateIn) I'm admittedly not that familiar with C++/CLI, so is there something I'm missing?

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• How i can block calling onCreate while rotating device when My AsyncTask start?

  - by Labeeb P

  Hi, Me testing in Samsung Galaxy tab. In that i have made two layout folder for both ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE and ORIENTATION_PORTRAIT with specific layout xml in it. In that layout i have a button and on clicking it start a progress dialog (doing some stuff using AsyncTask, after that going to new intent) But when the device is rotated when the progress dialog is working, that dialog and AsyncTask stop and new layout is loaded. If i understood correctly, I think the onCreate is called when device is rotated How i can block calling onCreate while rotating device when My AsyncTask start? Thank you

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• Can I find out what WCF methods are supported on the endpoint before calling it?

  - by alord1689

  I have a versioning issue with a WCF service contract in which one of the many endpoints which are called for the operation is missing one method from the contract. My question is, how can I make sure the command is available on the client before attempting to call it? I tried: foreach (var od in proxy.Endpoint.Contract.Operations) { if (od.Name == "MyMethodName") { hasMethod = true; break; } } Unfortunately, this is using the contract from the calling app and does not actually describe the implementations on the endpoint itself. As a result, it returns true even though the endpoint has failed to implement the command.

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• How to deal with delegate method calling back the object who send the message ?

  - by olipion

  I have two object: @protocol ObjectADelegate - (void)objectAfirst:(ObjectA *)obj; - (void)objectAsecond:(ObjectA *)obj; @end @interface ObjectA : NSObject { id<ObjectADelegate> delegate; - (void)callSecond { [self.delegate objectAsecond:self]; } @end @interface ObjectB : NSObject <ObjectADelegate>{ ObjectA *myObjectA; } @implementation ObjectB - (void)objectAfirst:(ObjectA *)obj { // First is finished, do second [obj callSecond]; } - (void)objectASecond:(ObjectA *)obj { // Do my stuff } @end As you can see in the code, when ObjectA send the message objectAfirst to its delegate, objectb use again objectA methods that result in objecta calling back objectb. It means that what first fire objectAfirst is not finished but objectA send the objectAsecond message. Could it be a problem ? Any way to let delay message handling in objectB ? for example, something like using [obj performSelector:@selector(callSecond) afterDelay:0.01]; instead of [obj callSecond]; ?

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• Race condition firing events in AS3

  - by crispclean

  Hello I have some troubles firing and removing events in the right chronicle order. The code below gives the following output: save poster into db, and dispatch event calling service, dispatch event removed = false calling service, dispatch event removed = false calling service, dispatch event removed = true save poster into db, and dispatch event save poster into db, and dispatch event of course this should be more something like: save poster into db, and dispatch event calling service, dispatch event removed = true save poster into db, and dispatch event calling service, dispatch event removed = true save poster into db, and dispatch event calling service, dispatch event removed = true Can someone help me with this? I'm running out of ideas on how to tackle this. thx! for(var i:int = 0;i< 3;i++){ createPoster(); } function createPoster(){ Main.db.savePoster(); Main.db.addEventListener(Config.evt_SAVEPOSTER_READY, callService); } function callService(){ Main.db.removeEventListener(Config.evt_SAVEPOSTER_READY, callService); }

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• "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." While using Dispa

  - by Sdry

  I have an application, that I want to load additional xaml files, being resourcedictionaries controling the style of the application. Yet when trying to add a loaded ResourceDictionary to the mergeddictionaries I get an InvalidOperationException saying "The calling thread cannot access this object because a different thread owns it." at a point where I am not even using multiple threads. The application contains a usercontrol which loads the xaml file through a background worker, adding the loaded ResourceDictionaries to an Observablecollection. When I pass on a selected theme(=ResourceDictionary) to a function in the mainwindow of the application, it goes wrong. public void LoadTheme(Theme theme) {//sdry 2010-4-22 if(theme !=null){ this._dispatcher.Invoke(DispatcherPriority.Normal, (Action)(() => { MessageBox.Show("SKIN TEST: " + theme.Name); //> oke #if (SHOWDEBUGINFO) _selectedTheme = theme.Name; //>oke #endif Application.Current.Resources.MergedDictionaries.Clear(); //>oke Application.Current.Resources.MergedDictionaries.Add(theme.ResourceDictionary); //> InvalidOperationException //the theme object has a property named ResourceDictionary of type ResourceDictionary containing the loaded xaml })); } } My first reaction was to use the Disatcher.Invoke, even not knowing how I would not be on the gui thread, which doesn't solve a thing. So maybe my loaded theme belongs to a different thread ? but its originating from a property of a usercontrol, which should be the same thread. And its accesable untill trying to use the ResourceDictionary. This makes me confused, and not very aware of how to proceed, any help is appreciated.

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• How do I securely authenticate the calling assembly of a WCF service method?

  - by Tim

  The current situation is as follows: We have an production .net 3.5 WCF service, used by several applications throughout the organization, over wsHttpBinding or netTcpBinding. User authentication is being done on the Transport level, using Windows integrated security. This service has a method Foo(string parameter), which can only be called by members of given AD groups. The string parameter is obligatory. A new client application has come into play (.net 3.5, C# console app), which eliminates the necessity of the string parameter. However, only calls from this particular application should be allowed to omit the string parameter. The identity of the caller of the client application should still be known by the server because the AD group limitation still applies (ruling out impersonation on the client side). I found a way to pass on the "evidence" of the calling (strong-named) assembly in the message headers, but this method is clearly not secure because the "evidence" can easily be spoofed. Also, CAS (code access security) seems like a possible solution, but I can't seem to figure out how to make use of CAS in this particular scenario. Does anyone have a suggestion on how to solve this issue? Edit: I found another thread on this subject; apparently the conclusion there is that it is simply impossible to implement in a secure fashion.

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• Why calling Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()) is a bad idea?

  - by Tal Kanel

  I've read some posts saying using this method is "not good", shouldn't been use, it's not the right way to "close" the application and it's not how android works... I understand and accept the fact that Android OS knows better then me when it's the right time to terminate the process, but I didn't heard yet a good explanation why it's wrong using the killProcess() method?. after all - it's part of the android API... what I do know is that calling this method while other threads doing in potential an important work (operations on files, writing to DB, HTTP requests, running services..) can be terminated in the middle, and it's clearly not good. also I know I can benefit from the fact that "re-open" the application will be faster, cause the system maybe still "holds" in memory state from last time been used, and killProcess() prevents that. beside this reason, in assumption I don't have such operations, and I don't care my application will load from scratch each run, there are other reasons why not using the killProcess() method? I know about finish() method to close an Activity, so don't write me about that please.. finish() is only for Activity. not to all application, and I think I know exactly why and when to use it... and another thing - I'm developing also games with the Unity3D framework, and exporting the project to android. when I decompiled the generated apk, I was very suprised to find out that the java source code created from unity - implementing Unity's - Application.quit() method, with Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()). Application.quit() is suppose to be the right way to close game according to Unity3d guides (is it really?? maybe I'm wrong, and missed something), so how it happens that the Unity's framework developers which doing a very good work as it seems implemented this in native android to killProcess()? anyway - I wish to have a "list of reasons" why not using the killProcess() method, so please write down your answer - if you have something interesting to say about that. TIA

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• Server.Execute(path).. executed page returns the calling pages' url from request.url..

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hey, As explained in the title, I am having a problem with getting the URL of the page being executed from within a page. Basically I have a dynamic catalogue, where customers select products they are interested in. The manager of the company I am doing this for would like to be able to create an up to date offline catalogue at any given time, to send out to customers who dont have an internet connection. So far its going really well. I am using Server.Execute to get the content for each page, then putting it in static html pages and changing the dynamic links to static html links (ie changing all aspx links to htm). I am able to output all the pages for about us, contact us, home, and the entire catalogue. However, one of the stylesheets which is included in the page based on the URL (if the page is in the administration section then it is not included, otherwise it is) is not being included in the pages when it should be. I have tried outputting the URL but it just returns the URL of the calling page, not the page being called. Does anyone have any idea why this is happening? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Richard Clarke

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• What's the Matlab equivalent of NULL, when it's calling COM/ActiveX methods?

  - by David M

  Hi, I maintain a program which can be automated via COM. Generally customers use VBS to do their scripting, but we have a couple of customers who use Matlab's ActiveX support and are having trouble calling COM object methods with a NULL parameter. They've asked how they do this in Matlab - and I've been scouring Mathworks' COM/ActiveX documentation for a day or so now and can't figure it out. Their example code might look something like this: function do_something() OurAppInstance = actxserver('Foo.Application'); OurAppInstance.Method('Hello', NULL) end where NULL is where in another language, we'd write NULL or nil or Nothing, or, of course, pass in an object. The problem is this is optional (and these are implemented as optional parameters in most, but not all, cases) - these methods expect to get NULL quite often. They tell me they've tried [] (which from my reading seemed the most likely) as well as '', Nothing, 'Nothing', None, Null, and 0. I have no idea how many of those are even valid Matlab keywords - certainly none work in this case. Can anyone help? What's Matlab's syntax for a null pointer / object for use as a COM method parameter? Update: Thanks for all the replies so far! Unfortunately, none of the answers seem to work, not even libpointer. The error is the same in all cases: Error: Type mismatch, argument 2 This parameter in the COM type library is described in RIDL as: HRESULT _stdcall OurMethod([in] BSTR strParamOne, [in, optional] OurCoClass* oParamTwo, [out, retval] VARIANT_BOOL* bResult); The coclass in question implements a single interface descending from IDispatch.

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• Method that does conditional return of method calling it?

  - by Mattias Konradsson

  Ok this might be a bit of hack but bear with me :) The background is that i'm tired of methods that that some if-statement to that messes up indention for the whole method, like: public SomeClass DoStuff(string inputStr) { SomeClass result =null; if (IsOpenFilter(inputStr)) { .... } return result; } So I was thinking , wouldn't it be neat if I could do something like this instead: public SomeClass DoStuff(string inputStr) { Require(IsOpenFilter(inputStr),null); .... return result; } The idea is that if the statement does not evaluates to true it would return null. If there wasn't a return type for the method it would simply be: Require(IsOpenFilter(inputStr)); I realize that this is kinda overlapping with code contracts but these would be more like "conditional" or "soft" contracts evaluated at runtime rather than compile time. So I guess there's two questions, can this be done somehow? I'm stumped on how to do a conditional return from calling a method. The other question is, is this a good idea? It's a bit weird to monkeypatch the language like this but I'd rather like the way the code reads. I would be even cleaner if it could be put into an attribute above the method: [Require(IsOpenFilter(inputStr))]

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• Jquery add table row after the row which calling the jquery.

  - by marharépa

  Hello! I've got a table. <table id="servers" ...> ... {section name=i loop=$ownsites} <tr id="site_id_{$ownsites[i].id}"> ... <td>{$ownsites[i].phone}</td> <td class="icon"><a id="{$ownsites[i].id}" onClick="return makedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'));" ...></a></td> </tr> {/section} <tbody> </table> And this java script. <script type="text/javascript"> function makedeleterow(id) { $('#delete').remove(); $('#servers').append($(document.createElement("tr")).attr({id: "delete"})); $('#delete').append($(document.createElement("td")).attr({colspan: "9", id: "deleter"})); $('#deleter').text('Biztosan törölni szeretnéd ezt a weblapod?'); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "submit", id: id, onClick: "return truedeleterow(this.getAttribute('id'))"})); $('#deleter').append($(document.createElement("input")).attr({type: "hidden", name: "website_del", value: id})); } </script> It's workin fine, it makes a tr after the table's last tr and put the info to it, and the delete function also works fine. But i'd like to make this append AFTER the tr (with td class="icon") which calling the script. How can i do this?

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• Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean?

  - by Alex Worden

  Hi, Is it possible from Spring to inject the result of calling a method on a ref bean? I'm trying to refactor some cut/pasted code from two separate projects into a common class. In one of the projects, the code lives in a class I'll call "MyClient" that is being instantiated from Spring. It is injected with another spring-instantiated class "MyRegistry", then the MyClient class uses that class to look up an endpoint. All I really need is the endpoint String in my refactored class, which can be initialized via a Setter. I really cannot have a dependency on MyRegistry from MyClient in the refactored code. So, my question is this... is there a way I can inject the endpoint String from spring that was looked up in the MyRegistry class. So, I currently have: <bean id="registryService" class="foo.MyRegistry"> ...properties set etc... </bean> <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="registry" ref="registryService"/> </bean> But I'd like to have (and I know this is imaginary Spring syntax) <bean id="MyClient" class="foo.MyClient"> <property name="endPoint" value="registryService.getEndPoint('bar')"/> </bean> where MyRegistry will have a method getEndPoint(Stirng endPointName) Hope that makes sense from a the standpoint of what I'm trying to achieve. Please let me know if something like this is possible in Spring!

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• Unable to Get a Correct Time when I am Calling serverTime using jquery.countdown.js + Asp.net ?

  - by user312891

  When i am calling the below function I unable to get a correct Answer. Both var Shortly and newTime having same time one coming from the client site other sync with server. http://keith-wood.name/countdown.html I am waiting from your response. Thanks $(function() { var shortly = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); return time; }

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• iPhone Development - calling external JSON API (will Apple reject?)

  - by RPM1984

  Ok guys, so im new to iPhone development, so apologies if this is a silly question, but before i actually create my app i want to know if this is possible, and if Apple will reject this. (Note this is all theoretical) So i'd have a API (.NET) that runs on a cloud server somewhere and can return HTML/JSON/XML. I'll have a website that can access this API and allow customers to do some stuff (but this is not important for this question). I would then like my iPhone app to make a call to this API which would return JSON data. So my iPhone app might make a call to http://myapp/Foos which would return a JSON string of Foo objects. The iPhone app would then parse this JSON and do some funky stuff with it. So, that's the background, now the questions: Is this possible? (that is, call an external cloud API over HTTP, parse JSON response?) What are the chances of Apple rejecting this application (because it would be calling a non-Apple API) Are there any limitations (security, libraries, etc) on the iPhone/Objective-C/Cocoa that might hinder this solution? On this website, they seem to be doing exactly what im asking. Thoughts, suggestions, links would be greatly appreciated...

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• Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

  - by Nishchay Sharma

  I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

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• How can one enforce calling a base class function after derived class constructor?

  - by Mike Elkins

  I'm looking for a clean C++ idiom for the following situation: class SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeLibraryClass() { /* start initialization */ } void addFoo() { /* we are a collection of foos */ } void funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() { /* Making sure this is called is the issue */ } }; class SomeUserClass : public SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeUserClass() { addFoo(); addFoo(); addFoo(); // SomeUserClass has three foos. } }; class SomeUserDerrivedClass : public SomeUserClass { public: SomeUserDerrivedClass() { addFoo(); // This one has four foos. } }; So, what I really want is for SomeLibraryClass to enforce the calling of funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos at the end of the construction process. The user can't put it at the end of SomeUserClass::SomeUserClass(), that would mess up SomeUserDerrivedClass. If he puts it at the end of SomeUserDerrivedClass, then it never gets called for SomeUserClass. To further clarify what I need, imagine that /* start initialization */ acquires a lock, and funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() releases a lock. The compiler knows when all the initializations for an object are done, but can I get at that information by some nice trick?

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• How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

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• java.lang.IllegalStateException: The content of the adapter has changed but ListView.... inspite of calling notifydatasetchanged()

  - by Mistaken

  What are the best practices to be followed to update the contents of a listactivty by a background thread (Async Task) ? 1) Am calling the notifyDataSetChanged() to update the adapter as soon as i manipulate the contents of the adapter but still my app force closes while the user scrolls or click on the list. Any pointers to prevent this would be very helpfull. Logcat: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification. 2) Where exaclty should i update contents of the listactivity ? inside the doInBackground() or onProgressUpdate()? 3) Am experiencing regular crashes when the user clicks the list item. So will disabling click events on the listactivty during the background operation solve the problem ? If so am not sure how to remove or set item click listeners dynamically to the listactivity. Please instruct me on the too. 4) I dont think blocking all ui interactions during the background async task execution is the only way to solve the problem. I know there is a simple way of doing this but need some help. Thanks in advance. This is my onCreate... protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.fa); tvStatus=(TextView) findViewById(R.id.tvStatus); adapter = new SimpleAdapter( this, mostPopularList, R.layout.list_item, new String[] {"title","author","views","date"}, new int[] {R.id.textView1,R.id.textView2,R.id.textView4,R.id.textView3}); //populateList(); setListAdapter(adapter); } My async task... private class LongOperation extends AsyncTask<String, Void, String> { @Override protected String doInBackground(String... params) { // code for adding new listactivty items } @Override protected void onPostExecute(String networkStatus) { adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { } @Override protected void onProgressUpdate(Void... values) { } }

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• why my form is doing postback when i am calling asynchronously?

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i am using simple asp.net webpage with few fields on it and when the user click on submit button i am calling asynchronously and posting the data. BUT, my whole page is posting back and i dont even see the message that i am trying to display if my data got posted succfully. here is my page. Requester Page Name: <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label4' >Host Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtHost" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label2' >Start Date:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtStartDate" runat='server' ></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label6' >End Date:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtEndDate" runat='server' ></asp:TextBox> <ul> <li> <button id="btnCancel" name="btnCancel" type="button"> Cancel</button></li> <li> <button id="btnReset" name="btnReset" type="reset"> Reset</button></li> <li> <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button></li> </ul> </p> </form> </div> //Store new Contract Request Methods function processCompletedContactStore(response) { if (!response) { showErrorMsg('No Contacts Returned'); return; } else { if (response.Message == 'update') { $("#status").fadeTo(500, 1, function() { $(this).html("Updated successfully!").fadeTo(500, 150); }) } } }

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• Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

  - by Adam Hardy

  Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

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• Why changing the images name on server results in calling the old ones?

  - by moderns

  I am running a slideshow on Ubuntu 12.04.1 that loads the images (slide1.jpg, slide2.jpg, slide3.jpg.., slide5.jpg) using the Javascript and styles as below: document.getElementById('slide_area').className='slide'+step; .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/slide1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/slide2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/slide3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/slide4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/slide5.jpg)} When I change the images names (show1.jpg, show2.jpg, show3.jpg.., show5.jpg) and also change the style as below: .slide1{background-image: url(../upload/show1.jpg)} .slide2{background-image: url(../upload/show2.jpg)} .slide3{background-image: url(../upload/show3.jpg)} .slide4{background-image: url(../upload/show4.jpg)} .slide5{background-image: url(../upload/show5.jpg)} And open the network section on Chrome, I see the server is calling the new name and old name for images! I added the header in the index.php: header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, max-age=0"); header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past header("Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0", false); header("Pragma: no-cache"); Nothing worked out with me and the slideshow doesn't work properly when I change the name of images even when clearing the browser cache as I load images sequentially (one by one) depending on imageObject.complete property! But without changing the name everything is going perfect and the images are loaded smoothly! Thank you for your help!

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