Search Results

Search found 13584 results on 544 pages for 'loading variables'.

Page 460/544 | < Previous Page | 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467  | Next Page >

  • How to properly load HTML data from third party website using MVC+AJAX?

    - by Dmitry
    I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 website that lets users store and analyze data about goods found on various online trade sites. When user is filling a form to create or edit an item, he should have a button "Import data" that automatically fills some fields based on data from third party website. The question is: what should this button do under the hood? I see at least 2 possible solutions. First. Do the import on client side using AJAX+jQuery load method. I tried it in IE8 and received browser warning popup about insecure script actions. Of course, it is completely unacceptable. Second. Add method ImportData(string URL) to ItemController class. It is called via AJAX, does the import + data processing server-side and returns JSON-d result to client. I tried it and received server exception (503) Server unavailable when loading HTML data into XMLDocument. Also I have a feeling that dealing with not well-formed HTML (missing closing tags, etc.) will be a huge pain. Any ideas how to parse such HTML documents?

    Read the article

  • Mule ESB 3.2 Splitter destroys Enricher results

    - by Eddie
    Here is the snippet of my flow: <logger message="PRODUCT_ID = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> <splitter evaluator="jxpath" expression="//*/BisacHeaderCodes" doc:name="Splitter"/> <logger message="PRODUCT_ID_POST_SPLITTER = #[header:productID]" level="INFO" doc:name="Logger"/> #[header:productID] was set up prior to Logger call. I tried #[variable:productID] and got the same result. When I run it, this is the out put I get: INFO 2012-04-05 23:12:47,865 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.api.processor.LoggerMessageProcessor: PRODUCT_ID = 72 ERROR 2012-04-05 23:12:47,871 [[bookinista_order_management].connector.http.mule.default.receiver.02] org.mule.exception.DefaultSystemExceptionStrategy: Caught exception in Exception Strategy: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. org.mule.api.expression.RequiredValueException: Expression Evaluator "header" with expression "outbound:productID" returned null but a value was required. So, right before Splitter, I have a perfect value in my header, and right after Splitter, that value disappears! I understand that Splitter propagates only part of payloda, but shouldn't it leave headers and variables alone? Any ideas for a workaround?

    Read the article

  • SQL wont work? It doesn't come up with errors either

    - by Stefan
    Hey there, I have php function which checks to see if variables are set and then adds them onto my sql query. However I am don't seem to be getting any results back!? $where_array = array(); if (array_key_exists("location", $_GET)) { $location = addslashes($_GET['location']); $where_array[] = "`mainID` = '".$location."'"; } if (array_key_exists("gender", $_GET)) { $gender = addslashes($_GET["gender"]); $where_array[] = "`gender` = '".$gender."'"; } if (array_key_exists("hair", $_GET)) { $hair = addslashes($_GET["hair"]); $where_array[] = "`hair` = '".$hair."'"; } if (array_key_exists("area", $_GET)) { $area = addslashes($_GET["area"]); $where_array[] = "`locationID` = '".$area."'"; } $where_expr = ''; if ($where_array) { $where_expr = "WHERE " . implode(" AND ", $where_array); } $sql = "SELECT `postID` FROM `posts` ". $where_expr; $dbi = new db(); $result = $dbi->query($sql); $r = mysql_fetch_row($result); I'm trying to call the data after in a list like so: $dbi = new db(); $offset = ($currentpage - 1) * $rowsperpage; // get the info from the db $sql .= " ORDER BY `time` DESC LIMIT $offset, $rowsperpage"; $result = $dbi->query($sql); // while there are rows to be fetched... while ($row = mysql_fetch_object($result)){ // echo data echo $row['text']; } // end while Anyone got any ideas why I am not retrieving any data? -Stefan

    Read the article

  • How to send XML and other post parameters via cURL in PHP

    - by tomaszs
    Hello. I've used code below to send XML to my REST API. $xml_string_data contains proper XML, and it is passed well to mypi.php: //set POST variables $url = 'http://www.server.cu/mypi.php'; $fields = array( 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); //url-ify the data for the POST $fields_string = ""; foreach($fields as $key=>$value) { $fields_string .= $key.'='.$value.'&'; } rtrim($fields_string,'&'); echo $fields_string; //open connection $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_URL,$url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POST,count($fields)); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS,$fields_string); curl_setopt($ch,CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER,array ( "Expect: " )); //execute post $result = @curl_exec($ch); But when I've added other field: $fields = array( 'method' => "methodGoPay", 'data'=>urlencode($xml_string_data) ); It stopped to work. On the mypi.php I don't recieve any more POST parameters at all! Could you you please tell me what to do to send XML and other post parameters in one cURL request? Please don't suggest using any libraries, I wan't to acomplish it in plain PHP.

    Read the article

  • Does it ever make sense to make a fundamental (non-pointer) parameter const?

    - by Scott Smith
    I recently had an exchange with another C++ developer about the following use of const: void Foo(const int bar); He felt that using const in this way was good practice. I argued that it does nothing for the caller of the function (since a copy of the argument was going to be passed, there is no additional guarantee of safety with regard to overwrite). In addition, doing this prevents the implementer of Foo from modifying their private copy of the argument. So, it both mandates and advertises an implementation detail. Not the end of the world, but certainly not something to be recommended as good practice. I'm curious as to what others think on this issue. Edit: OK, I didn't realize that const-ness of the arguments didn't factor into the signature of the function. So, it is possible to mark the arguments as const in the implementation (.cpp), and not in the header (.h) - and the compiler is fine with that. That being the case, I guess the policy should be the same for making local variables const. One could make the argument that having different looking signatures in the header and source file would confuse others (as it would have confused me). While I try to follow the Principle of Least Astonishment with whatever I write, I guess it's reasonable to expect developers to recognize this as legal and useful.

    Read the article

  • Why NOT use POST method here?

    - by Camran
    I have a classifieds website. In the main page (index) I have several form fields which the user may or may not fill in, in order to specify a detailed search of classifieds. Ex: Category: Cars Price from: 3000 Price to: 10000 Color: Red Area: California The forms' action is set to a php page: <form action='query_sql.php' method='post'> In query_sql.php I fetch the variables like this: category=$_POST['category']; etc etc... Then query MySql: $query="SELECT........WHERE category='$category' etc etc.... $results = mysql_query($query); Then I simply display the results of the query to the user by creating a table which is filled in dynamically depending on the results set. However, according to an answer by Col. Shrapnel in my previous Q I shouldn't use POST here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3004754/how-to-hide-url-from-users-when-submitting-this-form The reason I use post is simply to hide the "one-page-word-document" long URL in the browsers adress bar. I am very confused, is it okay to use POST or not? It is working fine both when I use GET or POST now... And it is already on a production server... Btw, in the linked question, I wasn't referring to make URL invisible (or hide it) I just wanted it too look better (which I have accomplished with mod_rewrite). UPDATE: If I use GET, then how should I make the url better looking (beautiful)? Check this previous Q out: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3000524/how-to-make-this-very-long-url-appear-short

    Read the article

  • iOS - Passing variable to view controller

    - by gj15987
    I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

    Read the article

  • Can C++ do something like an ML case expression?

    - by Nathan Andrew Mullenax
    So, I've run into this sort of thing a few times in C++ where I'd really like to write something like case (a,b,c,d) of (true, true, _, _ ) => expr | (false, true, _, false) => expr | ... But in C++, I invariably end up with something like this: bool c11 = color1.count(e.first)>0; bool c21 = color2.count(e.first)>0; bool c12 = color1.count(e.second)>0; bool c22 = color2.count(e.second)>0; // no vertex in this edge is colored // requeue if( !(c11||c21||c12||c22) ) { edges.push(e); } // endpoints already same color // failure condition else if( (c11&&c12)||(c21&&c22) ) { results.push_back("NOT BICOLORABLE."); return true; } // nothing to do: nodes are already // colored and different from one another else if( (c11&&c22)||(c21&&c12) ) { } // first is c1, second is not set else if( c11 && !(c12||c22) ) { color2.insert( e.second ); } // first is c2, second is not set else if( c21 && !(c12||c22) ) { color1.insert( e.second ); } // first is not set, second is c1 else if( !(c11||c21) && c12 ) { color2.insert( e.first ); } // first is not set, second is c2 else if( !(c11||c21) && c22 ) { color1.insert( e.first ); } else { std::cout << "Something went wrong.\n"; } I'm wondering if there's any way to clean all of those if's and else's up, as it seems especially error prone. It would be even better if it were possible to get the compiler complain like SML does when a case expression (or statement in C++) isn't exhaustive. I realize this question is a bit vague. Maybe, in sum, how would one represent an exhaustive truth table with an arbitrary number of variables in C++ succinctly? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Recursive powerof-function, see if you can solve it

    - by Jonas B
    First of all, this is not schoolwork - just my curiousity as I for some reason can't get my head around it and solve it. I come up with these stupid things all the time and it annoys the hell out of me when I cant solve them. Code example is in C# but solution doesn't have to be in any particular programming-language. long powerofnum(short num, long powerof) { return powerofnum2(num, powerof, powerof); } long powerofnum2(short num, long powerof, long holder) { if (num == 1) return powerof; else { return powerof = powerofnum2(num - 1, holder * powerof, holder); } } As you can see I have two methods. I call for powerofnum(value, powerofvalue) which then calls the next method with the powerofvalue also in a third parameter as a placeholder so it remembers the original powerof value through the recursion. What I want to accomplish is to do this with only one method. I know I could just declare a variable in the first method with the powerof value to remember it and then iterate from 0 to value of num. But as this is a theoretical question I want it done recursively. I could also in the first method just take a third parameter called whatever to store the value just like I do in the second method that is called by the first, but that looks really stupid. Why should you have to write what seems like the same parameter twice? Rules explained in short: no iteration scope-specific variables only only one method Anyhow, I'd appreciate a clean solution. Good luck :)

    Read the article

  • How can I pass in a params of Expression<Func<T, object>> to a method?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I have the following two methods :- public static IQueryable<T> IncludeAssociations<T>(this IQueryable<T> source, params string[] associations) { ... } public static IQueryable<T> IncludeAssociations<T>(this IQueryable<T> source, params Expression<Func<T, object>>[] expressions) { ... } Now, when I try and pass in a params of Expression<Func<T, object>>[], it always calls the first method (the string[]' and of course, that value isNULL`) Eg. Expression<Func<Order, object>> x1 = x => x.User; Expression<Func<Order, object>> x2 = x => x.User.Passport; var foo = _orderRepo .Find() .IncludeAssociations(new {x1, x2} ) .ToList(); Can anyone see what I've done wrong? Why is it thinking my params are a string? Can I force the type, of the 2x variables?

    Read the article

  • How can I clear viewstate of a dropdownlist inside a usercontrol? Should I?

    - by tbilly
    I have a web user control with a dropdownlist inside of it. When the usercontrol's databind event is called, it automatically fires the dropdownlists databind event. In the dropdownlist's ondatabound event handler an 'other' option is appended to the end of the dropdownlist. The usercontrol is loaded multiple times, depending on selection of other controls on the page. When the page loads initially, there are no items in the usercontrol except the 'other' option. Then when I call the user control's databind event the control reloads, with 4 items plus the 'other' option. The text for the first item in the list is the 'other' option's text, not what it should be. I've stepped through the databound event of the dropdownlist and have found that all items are loading correctly. It appears that the dropdownlist's viewstate is the culprit, that the dropdownlist's original item[1] text is overwriting the new text. I've tried disabling viewstate on the dropdownlist, but then it wouldn't load at all. Should I try to clear the dropdownlist's viewstate? How do I do that? Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Does .Net use Device Dependent or Device Independent Bitmaps?

    - by Brian
    When loading an image into memory, does .Net use DDB, DIB, or something else entirely? If possible, please cite your sources. I'm wondering because we currently have a classic ASP application that is using a 3rd party component to load images that is occasionally creating a “Not enough storage is available to process this command.” error. The error is very inconsistent but tends to happen on larger images (not always, but often). After resetting IIS, processing the same file again typically works just fine. After much research I have found that DDBs tend to have this problem when processing large images because they work out of video memory. Considering that we are running on a web server with an integrated video card and limited shared memory, this could certainly be our problem. We are in the early stages of converting our app to .Net and am wondering if using .Net for this might be a viable alternative to our current method which is why I am asking the question. Any advice is welcome :) but out of curiosity if nothing else, I am really hoping for an answer to the question; does .Net use DDB or DIB?

    Read the article

  • IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

    - by Hitesh Riziya
    I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to modify Keyboard interrupt (under Windows XP) from a C++ Program ?

    - by rockr90
    Hi everyone ! We have been given a little project (As part of my OS course) to make a Windows program that modifies keyboard input, so that it transforms any lowercase character entered into an uppercase one (without using caps-lock) ! so when you type on the keyboard you'll see what you're typing transformed into uppercase ! I have done this quite easily using Turbo C by calling geninterrupt() and using variables _AH, _AL, i had to read a character using: _AH = 0x07; // Reading a character without echo geninterrupt(0x21); // Dos interrupt Then to transform it into an Upercase letter i have to mask the 5th bit by using: _AL = _AL & 0xDF; // Masking the entered character with 11011111 and then i will display the character using any output routine. Now, this solution will only work under old C DOS compilers. But what we intend to do is to make a close or similar solution to this by using any modern C/C++ compiler under Windows XP ! What i have first thought of is modifying the Keyboard ISR so that it masks the fifth bit of any entered character to turn it uppercase ! But i do not know how exactly to do this. Second, I wanted to create a Win32 console program to either do the same solution (but to no avail) or make a windows-compatible solution, still i do not know which functions to use ! Third I thought to make a windows program that modifies the ISR directly to suit my needs ! and i'm still looking for how to do this ! So please, If you could help me out on this, I would greatly appreciate it ! Thank you in advance ! (I'm using Windows XP on intel X86 with mingw-GCC compiler.)

    Read the article

  • JQuery can't return xml value

    - by Mistergreen
    I have this simple xml <?xml version="1.0"?> <library> <item name="box_shelf"> <imageback src="images/box_shelf_color.png"/> <outline src="images/box_shelf_outline.png"/> <sku> <wh sku="4696424171" /> <ch sku="4696424179" /> <choc sku="4696425863" /> <ma sku="4696424175" /> </sku> </item> </library> Loading the xml is fine. I then have a function to parse certain nodes. function parseImageXml(mainNode,targetNode) { $(libraryXML).find('item').each(function() { if($(this).attr('name') == mainNode) { var $temp = $(this).find(targetNode).attr('src'); console.log("******"+$temp); return $temp; } }); } The console log is fine with ******images/box_shelf_outline.png ******images/box_shelf_color.png But when I try to return the value into variables, I get undefined. var image_outline = ''+parseImageXml("box_shelf","outline"); var image_back = parseImageXml("box_shelf","imageback"); console.log(image_outline+":"+image_back); undefined:undefined Any insight would be great, thanks

    Read the article

  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Unable to use certain Fonts programatically in ASP.Net

    - by TooFat
    I am trying to programatically create a bitmap with a specified font in ASP.Net. The idea is that the text, font name, size color etc. will be passed in from variables and a bitmap of the text using the font etc will be returned. However, I have been finding that I am only able to do so using the following code with certain fonts. <div> <% string fontName = "Segoe Script"; //Change Font here System.Drawing.Bitmap bmp = new System.Drawing.Bitmap(100, 100); System.Drawing.Graphics graph = System.Drawing.Graphics.FromImage(bmp); System.Drawing.Font fnt = new System.Drawing.Font(fontName, 20); System.Drawing.SolidBrush brush = new System.Drawing.SolidBrush(System.Drawing.Color.Red); graph.DrawString("Help", fnt, brush, new System.Drawing.Point(10, 10)); bmp.Save(@"C:\Development\Path\image1.bmp"); this.Image1.ImageUrl = "http://mysite/Images/image1.bmp"; %> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label" Font-Names="Segoe Script"> <%Response.Write("Help"); %></asp:Label> //Change font here <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" /> </div> If I change the font name in the areas indicated by the comments to Arial or Verdana both the image and the label appear with the correct font. If however, I change the font name in both locations to something "Segoe Script" the Label will show up in Segoe Script but the image is in what looks like Arial.

    Read the article

  • PHP Preserve scope when calling a function

    - by Joshua
    I have a function that includes a file based on the string that gets passed to it i.e. the action variable from the query string. I use this for filtering purposes etc so people can't include files they shouldn't be able to and if the file doesn't exist a default file is loaded instead. The problem is that when the function runs and includes the file scope, is lost because the include ran inside a function. This becomes a problem because I use a global configuration file, then I use specific configuration files for each module on the site. The way I'm doing it at the moment is defining the variables I want to be able to use as global and then adding them into the top of the filtering function. Is there any easier way to do this, i.e. by preserving scope when a function call is made or is there such a thing as PHP macros? Edit: Would it be better to use extract($_GLOBALS); inside my function call instead? Edit 2: For anyone that cared. I realised I was over thinking the problem altogether and that instead of using a function I should just use an include, duh! That way I can keep my scope and have my cake too.

    Read the article

  • How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

    - by Kyle
    I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

    Read the article

  • Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

    - by pmlevere
    I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

    Read the article

  • facebook authentication / login trouble

    - by salmane
    I have setup facebook authentication using php and it goes something like this first getting the authorization here : https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id=<?= $facebook_app_id ?>&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&scope=user_about_me,publish_stream then getting the access Token here : $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=".$facebook_app_id."&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&client_secret=".$facebook_secret."&code=".$code;" function get_string_between($string, $start, $end){ $string = " ".$string; $ini = strpos($string,$start); if ($ini == 0) return ""; $ini += strlen($start); $len = strpos($string,$end,$ini) - $ini; return substr($string,$ini,$len); } $access_token = get_string_between(file_get_contents($url), "access_token=", "&expires="); then getting user info : $facebook_user = file_get_contents('https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token='.$access_token); $facebook_id = json_decode($facebook_user)->id; $first_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->first_name; $last_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->last_name; this is pretty ugly ( in my opinion ) but it works....how ever....the user is still not logged in...because i did not create or retrieve any session variables to confirm that the user is logged in to facebook... which means that after getting the authentication done the use still has to login .... first: is there a better way using php to do what i did above ? second: how do i set/ get session variable / cookies that ensure that the user doesnt have to click login thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • C# Cast Class to Overridden Class

    - by Nathan Tornquist
    I have a class Application that I need to override with INotifyPropertyChanged events. I have written the logic to override the original class and ended up creating SuperApplication I am pulling the data from a library though, and cannot change the loading logic. I just need a way to get the data from the original class into my superClass. I've tried things like superClass = (SuperApplication)standardClass; but it hasn't worked. How would I go about doing this? If it helps, this is the code I'm using to override the original class: public class SuperCreditApplication : CreditApplication { public SuperCreditApplicant Applicant { get; set; } public SuperCreditApplicant CoApplicant { get; set; } } public class SuperCreditApplicant : CreditApplicant { public SuperProspect Prospect { get; set; } } public class SuperProspect : Prospect, INotifyPropertyChanged { public State DriverLicenseState { get { return DriverLicenseState; } set { DriverLicenseState = value; OnPropertyChanged("DriverLicenseState"); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void OnPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

    Read the article

  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Javascript problem with iframe that's hidden before loaded

    - by Aistina
    I have a page that contains an iframe that gets loaded using Javascript: index.html <iframe id="myFrame" width="800" height="600" style="display: none;"></iframe> <div id="loader"><!-- some loading indicator --></div> <script type="text/javascript"> function someFunction() { var myFrame = document.getElementById('myFrame'); var loader = document.getElementById('loader'); loader.style.display = 'block'; myFrame.src = 'myFrame.html'; myFrame.onload = function() { myFrame.style.display = 'block'; loader.style.display = 'none'; }; } </script> The page that gets loaded in the iframe contains some Javascript logic which calculates the sizes of certain elements for the purposes of adding a JS driven scrollbar (jScrollPane + jQuery Dimensions). myFrame.html <div id="scrollingElement" style="overflow: auto;"> <div id="several"></div> <div id="child"></div> <div id="elements"></div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).load(function() { $('#scrollingElement').jScrollPane(); }); </script> This works in Chrome (and probably other Webkit browsers), but fails in Firefox and IE because at the time jScrollPane gets called, all the elements are still invisble and jQuery Dimensions is unable to determine any element's dimensions. Is there a way to make sure my iframe is visible before $(document).ready(...) gets called? Other than using setTimeout to delay jScrollPane, which is something I definitely want to avoid.

    Read the article

  • How Can I Find What's Causing My Transaction to Get Promoted?

    - by Damian Powell
    I have web site which serves web services (a mixture of .asmx and WCF) which is mostly using LINQ to SQL and System.Transactions. Occaisionally we see the transaction get promoted to a distributed transaction which causes problems because our web servers are isolated from our databases in such a way that it is not possible for us to use MSDTC. I have configured tracing for System.Transactions by adding the following to my web.config: <system.diagnostics> <sources> <source name="System.Transactions" switchValue="Information"> <listeners> <add name="tx" type="System.Diagnostics.XmlWriterTraceListener" initializeData="tx.log" /> </listeners> </source> </sources> </system.diagnostics> It's very interesting and shows me when the transaction is promoted, but I find that it doesn't really help be discover why. Is there an equivalent tracing mechanism for ADO.NET that will show me when connections are created, including the variables that affect pooling (user, cnn string, transaction scope)?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 456 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467  | Next Page >