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  • C# / IronPython Interop with shared C# Class Library

    - by Adam Haile
    I'm trying to use IronPython as an intermediary between a C# GUI and some C# libraries, so that it can be scripted post compile time. I have a Class library DLL that is used by both the GUI and the python and is something along the lines of this: namespace MyLib { public class MyClass { public string Name { get; set; } public MyClass(string name) { this.Name = name; } } } The IronPython code is as follows: import clr clr.AddReferenceToFile(r"MyLib.dll") from MyLib import MyClass ReturnObject = MyClass("Test") Then, in C# I would call it as follows: ScriptEngine engine = Python.CreateEngine(); ScriptScope scope = null; scope = engine.CreateScope(); ScriptSource source = engine.CreateScriptSourceFromFile("Script.py"); source.Execute(scope); MyClass mc = scope.GetVariable<MyClass>("ReturnObject ") When I call this last bit of code, source.Execute(scope) runs returns successfully, but when I try the GetVariable call, it throw the following exception Microsoft.Scripting.ArgumentTypeException: expected MyClass , got MyClass So, you can see that the class names are exactly the same, but for some reason it thinks they are different. The DLL is in a different directory than the .py file (I just didn't bother to write out all the path setup stuff), could it be that there is an issue with the interpreter for IronPython seeing these objects as difference because it's somehow seeing them as being in a different context or scope?

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  • Achieving Thread-Safety

    - by Smasher
    Question How can I make sure my application is thread-safe? Are their any common practices, testing methods, things to avoid, things to look for? Background I'm currently developing a server application that performs a number of background tasks in different threads and communicates with clients using Indy (using another bunch of automatically generated threads for the communication). Since the application should be highly availabe, a program crash is a very bad thing and I want to make sure that the application is thread-safe. No matter what, from time to time I discover a piece of code that throws an exception that never occured before and in most cases I realize that it is some kind of synchronization bug, where I forgot to synchronize my objects properly. Hence my question concerning best practices, testing of thread-safety and things like that. mghie: Thanks for the answer! I should perhaps be a little bit more precise. Just to be clear, I know about the principles of multithreading, I use synchronization (monitors) throughout my program and I know how to differentiate threading problems from other implementation problems. But nevertheless, I keep forgetting to add proper synchronization from time to time. Just to give an example, I used the RTL sort function in my code. Looked something like FKeyList.Sort (CompareKeysFunc); Turns out, that I had to synchronize FKeyList while sorting. It just don't came to my mind when initially writing that simple line of code. It's these thins I wanna talk about. What are the places where one easily forgets to add synchronization code? How do YOU make sure that you added sync code in all important places?

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  • Rails select box in form decides on create action in controller?

    - by dannymcc
    Hi Everyone? I am trying to add a select box to the base of my create form that decides if an action runs from the controller...if that makes any sense? Basically the application creates a project in FreeagentCentral whenever a new project is made: def create @company = Company.find(params[:kase][:company_id]) @kase = @company.kases.create!(params[:kase]) respond_to do |format| params[:send_to_freeagent] ? @kase.create_freeagent_project(current_user) #flash[:notice] = 'Case was successfully created.' flash[:notice] = fading_flash_message("Case was successfully created.", 5) format.html { redirect_to(@kase) } format.xml { render :xml => @kase, :status => :created, :location => @kase } end end and within my form I have: <%= check_box_tag :send_to_freeagent, 1 % Create project in Freeagent? What I would like to happen, is if the select box is checked the project is sent to Freeagent. If not, the case just gets created locally as normal but without the Freeagent data being sent. If I use the above code, I get an exception caught error: SyntaxError in KasesController#new controllers/kases_controller.rb:114: syntax error, unexpected '\n' Any idea what I am doing wrong, also is it possible to make the check boxes checked as default? Thanks, Danny

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  • wpf observableCollection

    - by Asha
    I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

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  • Java ternary operator and boxing Integer/int?

    - by Markus
    I tripped across a really strange NullPointerException the other day caused by an unexpected type-cast in the ternary operator. Given this (useless exemplary) function: Integer getNumber() { return null; } I was expecting the following two code segments to be exactly identical after compilation: Integer number; if (condition) { number = getNumber(); } else { number = 0; } vs. Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; . Turns out, if condition is true, the if-statement works fine, while the ternary opration in the second code segment throws a NullPointerException. It seems as though the ternary operation has decided to type-cast both choices to int before auto-boxing the result back into an Integer!?! In fact, if I explicitly cast the 0 to Integer, the exception goes away. In other words: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : 0; is not the same as: Integer number = (condition) ? getNumber() : (Integer) 0; . So, it seems that there is a byte-code difference between the ternary operator and an equivalent if-else-statement (something I didn't expect). Which raises three questions: Why is there a difference? Is this a bug in the ternary implementation or is there a reason for the type cast? Given there is a difference, is the ternary operation more or less performant than an equivalent if-statement (I know, the difference can't be huge, but still)?

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  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • After Delete Trigger Fires Only After Delete?

    - by Brandi
    I thought "after delete" meant that the trigger is not fired until after the delete has already taken place, but here is my situation... I made 3, nearly identical SQL CLR after delete triggers in C#, which worked beautifully for about a month. Suddenly, one of the three stopped working while an automated delete tool was run on it. By stopped working, I mean, records could not be deleted from the table via client software. Disabling the trigger caused deletes to be allowed, but re-enabling it interfered with the ability to delete. So my question is 'how can this be the case?' Is it possible the tool used on it futzed up the memory? It seems like even if the trigger threw an exception, if it is AFTER delete, shouldn't the records be gone? All the trigger looks like is this: ALTER TRIGGER [sysdba].[AccountTrigger] ON [sysdba].[ACCOUNT] AFTER DELETE AS EXTERNAL NAME [SQL_IO].[SQL_IO.WriteFunctions].[AccountTrigger] GO The CLR trigger does one select and one insert into another database. I don't yet know if there are any errors from SQL Server Mgmt Studio, but will update the question after I find out.

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  • Validate HAML from ActiveRecord: scope/controller/helpers for link_to etc?

    - by Chris Boyle
    I like HAML. So much, in fact, that in my first Rails app, which is the usual blog/CMS thing, I want to render the body of my Page model using HAML. So here is app/views/pages/_body.html.haml: .entry-content= Haml::Engine.new(body, :format => :html5).render ...and it works (yay, recursion). What I'd like to do is validate the HAML in the body when creating or updating a Page. I can almost do that, but I'm stuck on the scope argument to render. I have this in app/models/page.rb: validates_each :body do |record, attr, value| begin Haml::Engine.new(value, :format => :html5).render(record) rescue Exception => e record.errors.add attr, "line #{(e.respond_to? :line) && e.line || 'unknown'}: #{e.message}" end end You can see I'm passing record, which is a Page, but even that doesn't have a controller, and in particular doesn't have any helpers like link_to, so as soon as a Page uses any of that it's going to fail to validate even when it would actually render just fine. So I guess I need a controller as scope for this, but accessing that from here in the model (where the validator is) is a big MVC no-no, and as such I don't think Rails gives me a way to do it. (I mean, I suppose I could stash a controller in some singleton somewhere or something, but... excuse me while I throw up.) What's the least ugly way to properly validate HAML in an ActiveRecord validator?

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  • Running an RMI registry on one computer and connecting to it from another

    - by Hippopotamus
    Hello. I am doing a student assignment, using java RMI. I've programmed a simple RMI-server application that provides method which return some strings to the client. When I start the server on localhost and connect to it by client on the same computer, everything goes well. However, I am not able to do this between two computers on home network. The computers both have no trouble of connecting by a simple C program with similar functionality, so I guess the problem is with JVM here. I am binding the class to rmiregistry with try{ ComputeImpl R = new ComputeImpl(); Naming.rebind("rmi://localhost/ComputeService",R); } catch(Exception e){ System.out.println("Trouble: " +e); } And I'm doing the lookup for RMI registry in the client application with providing the argument while launching the application: StringBuffer rmi_address = new StringBuffer(); rmi_address.append("rmi://").append(args[1]).append("/ComputeService"); Compute R = (Compute) Naming.lookup(rmi_address.toString()); Is the problem with my code or with JVM? Thanks in advance.

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  • Windows loader problem - turn on verbose mode

    - by doobop
    Hi, I'm in the process of reorganizing some of the legacy libraries in our application which has unmanaged code calling into libraries of managed code. While I have the code reorganized, it produces the following loader error: ... 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\CsDisp.dll' 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\psapi.dll' 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\shell32.dll' 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\appCode\Debug\daq206_32.dll', Binary was not built with debug information. 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\appCode\Debug\SiUSBXp.dll', Binary was not built with debug information. 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\appCode\Debug\AdlinkDAQ.dll', Symbols loaded. 'app.exe': Loaded 'C:\WINDOWS\system32\P9842.dll', Binary was not built with debug information. LDR: LdrRelocateImageWithBias() failed 0xc0000018 LDR: OldBase : 10000000 LDR: NewBase : 00A80000 LDR: Diff : 0x7c90d6fa0012f6cc LDR: NextOffset : 00000000 LDR: *NextOffset : 0x0 LDR: SizeOfBlock : 0xa80000 Debugger:: An unhandled non-continuable exception was thrown during process load I believe 0xc0000018 error is an overlapping address range. So, I have two questions. First, what linker options may cause this error? I'm currently linking with /DYNAMICBASE:NO and /FIXED:No as this was how some of the previous libraries were set up. Second, is there a way to turn on verbose mode for the loader so I can see what exactly it's trying to load? P9842 is a third party library so I imagine it is getting to one of my libraries after P9842 and failing on that one. Can I narrow it down? Thanks.

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  • How to easily map c++ enums to strings

    - by Roddy
    I have a bunch of enum types in some library header files that I'm using, and I want to have a way of converting enum values to user strings - and vice-versa. RTTI won't do it for me, because the 'user strings' need to be a bit more readable than the enumerations. A brute force solution would be a bunch of functions like this, but I feel that's a bit too C-like. enum MyEnum {VAL1, VAL2,VAL3}; String getStringFromEnum(MyEnum e) { switch e { case VAL1: return "Value 1"; case VAL2: return "Value 2"; case VAL1: return "Value 3"; default: throw Exception("Bad MyEnum"); } } I have a gut feeling that there's an elegant solution using templates, but I can't quite get my head round it yet. UPDATE: Thanks for suggestions - I should have made clear that the enums are defined in a third-party library header, so I don't want to have to change the definition of them. My gut feeling now is to avoid templates and do something like this: char * MyGetValue(int v, char *tmp); // implementation is trivial #define ENUM_MAP(type, strings) char * getStringValue(const type &T) \ { \ return MyGetValue((int)T, strings); \ } ; enum eee {AA,BB,CC}; - exists in library header file ; enum fff {DD,GG,HH}; ENUM_MAP(eee,"AA|BB|CC") ENUM_MAP(fff,"DD|GG|HH") // To use... eee e; fff f; std::cout<< getStringValue(e); std::cout<< getStringValue(f);

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  • iPhone SDK: Why is didSelectRowAtIndexPath not being fired?

    - by iPhone Developer
    I have a view with a table on it. When the app starts, it loads the first 5 visble cells. That works as expected. My problem is that, when I try to scroll down in the table the app crashes with this error. What I've found is that didSelectRowAtIndexPath is not being called. AFAIK, all I need to do is to subscribe to the delegate. But I must be missing something? @interface LandingRetailersViewController : TableSectionHeaderViewController<UITableViewDataSource, UITableViewDelegate, UITabBarDelegate> { Any help appreciated. 2010-06-06 12:25:42.547 iphoneos[18238:207] * -[NSCFString tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x451a980 2010-06-06 12:25:42.549 iphoneos[18238:207] Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '** -[NSCFString tableView:cellForRowAtIndexPath:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x451a980' Here is my code to load cells. UITableViewCell * cell = nil; NSInteger index = [indexPath indexAtPosition:1]; NSLog(@"WHAT IS INDEX %i", indexPath); RoundedGradientTableViewCell *retailerCell = (RoundedGradientTableViewCell *)[tb dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"RET"]; if(!retailerCell){ retailerCell = [[[RoundedGradientTableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:@"RET"] autorelease]; } [retailerCell setArcSize:5.0]; [retailerCell setStrokeSize:1.0]; [retailerCell setStrokeColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; [retailerCell setBackgroundFillColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; [retailerCell setBackgroundColor:[UIColor clearColor]]; Retailer *retailer = [self retailerAtIndex:index]; if(retailer){ [[retailerCell textLabel] setText:[retailer name]]; if([retailer hasImage]){ [[retailerCell contentImageView] setImage:[retailer image]]; } } else { [[retailerCell textLabel] setText:@"No title"]; } cell = retailerCell; [cell setSelectionStyle:UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone]; NSLog(@"retailer: %@ ", [retailer name]); NSLog(@"log: %i ", index); return cell;

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  • Way to store a large dictionary with low memory footprint + fast lookups (on Android)

    - by BobbyJim
    I'm developing an android word game app that needs a large (~250,000 word dictionary) available. I need: reasonably fast look ups e.g. constant time preferable, need to do maybe 200 lookups a second on occasion to solve a word puzzle and maybe 20 lookups within 0.2 second more often to check words the user just spelled. EDIT: Lookups are typically asking "Is in the dictionary?". I'd like to support up to two wildcards in the word as well, but this is easy enough by just generating all possible letters the wildcards could have been and checking the generated words (i.e. 26 * 26 lookups for a word with two wildcards). as it's a mobile app, using as little memory as possible and requiring only a small initial download for the dictionary data is top priority. My first naive attempts used Java's HashMap class, which caused an out of memory exception. I've looked into using the SQL lite databases available on android, but this seems like overkill. What's a good way to do what I need?

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  • FileHelpers cannot map converted field into destination array

    - by jaffa
    I have the following record (reduced for brevity): [DelimitedRecord(",")] [IgnoreFirst] [IgnoreEmptyLines()] public class ImportRecord { [FieldQuoted] [FieldTrim(TrimMode.Both)] public string FirstName; [FieldQuoted] [FieldTrim(TrimMode.Both)] public string LastName; [FieldQuoted] [FieldTrim(TrimMode.Both)] [FieldOptional] [FieldConverter(typeof(TestPropertyConverter))] public int[] TestProperty; } Converter code: public class TestPropertyConverter : ConverterBase { public override object StringToField(string from) { var ret = from.Split('|').Select(x => Convert.ToInt32(x)).ToArray(); return ret; } } So an example record could be: John, Smith, 1|2|3|4 It would expect the values 1,2,3,4 to expand and fill the TestProperty array. However, I'm getting the following exception: At least one element in the source array could not be cast down to the destination array type. I've tried to debug into the code and it seems to blow-up in the ExtractFieldValue() function inside FieldBase.cs where it tries to return out of the function. The following line seems to be the culprit: res.ToArray(ArrayType); It seems to expect the 'res' variable to be the destination type array, but it contains 1 element of the array itself. Can anyone suggest if I'm doing this wrong or a possible fix?

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  • How to properly load HTML data from third party website using MVC+AJAX?

    - by Dmitry
    I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 website that lets users store and analyze data about goods found on various online trade sites. When user is filling a form to create or edit an item, he should have a button "Import data" that automatically fills some fields based on data from third party website. The question is: what should this button do under the hood? I see at least 2 possible solutions. First. Do the import on client side using AJAX+jQuery load method. I tried it in IE8 and received browser warning popup about insecure script actions. Of course, it is completely unacceptable. Second. Add method ImportData(string URL) to ItemController class. It is called via AJAX, does the import + data processing server-side and returns JSON-d result to client. I tried it and received server exception (503) Server unavailable when loading HTML data into XMLDocument. Also I have a feeling that dealing with not well-formed HTML (missing closing tags, etc.) will be a huge pain. Any ideas how to parse such HTML documents?

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  • PHP rewrite to included file - is this a valid script?

    - by Poni
    Hi all! I've made this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2921469/php-mutual-exclusion-mutex As said there, I want several sources to send their stats once in a while, and these stats will be showed at the website's main page. My problem is that I want this to be done in an atomic manner, so no update of the stats will overlap another one running in the background. Now, I came up with this solution and I want you PHP experts to judge it. stats.php <?php define("my_counter", 12); ?> index.php <?php include "stats.php"; echo constant("my_counter"); ?> update.php <?php $old_error_reporting = error_reporting(0); include "stats.php"; define("my_stats_template",' <?php define("my_counter", %d); ?> '); $fd = fopen("stats.php", "w+"); if($fd) { if (flock($fd, LOCK_EX)) { $my_counter = 0; try { $my_counter = constant("my_counter"); } catch(Exception $e) { } $my_counter++; $new_stats = sprintf(constant("my_stats_template"), $my_counter); echo "Counter should stand at $my_counter"; fwrite($fd, $new_stats); } flock($fd, LOCK_UN); fclose($fd); } error_reporting($old_error_reporting); ?> Several clients will call the "update.php" file once every 60sec each. The "index.php" is going to use the "stats.php" file all the time as you can see. What's your opinion?

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  • Amazone API ItemSearch returns (400) Bad Request.

    - by BuzzBubba
    I'm using a simple example from Amazon documentation for ItemSearch and I get a strange error: "The remote server returned an unexpected response: (400) Bad Request." This is the code: public static void Main() { //Remember to create an instance of the amazon service, including you Access ID. AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient service = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient(new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress( "http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient client = new AWSECommerceServicePortTypeClient( new BasicHttpBinding(), new EndpointAddress("http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/soap?Service=AWSECommerceService")); // prepare an ItemSearch request ItemSearchRequest request = new ItemSearchRequest(); request.SearchIndex = "Books"; request.Title = "Harry+Potter"; request.ResponseGroup = new string[] { "Small" }; ItemSearch itemSearch = new ItemSearch(); itemSearch.Request = new ItemSearchRequest[] { request }; itemSearch.AWSAccessKeyId = accessKeyId; // issue the ItemSearch request try { ItemSearchResponse response = client.ItemSearch(itemSearch); // write out the results foreach (var item in response.Items[0].Item) { Console.WriteLine(item.ItemAttributes.Title); } } catch(Exception e) { Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.Red; Console.WriteLine(e.Message); Console.ForegroundColor = ConsoleColor.White; Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Clipboard.SetText(e.Message); } Console.ReadKey(); What is wrong?

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  • How to validate properties across Models without repeating the validation logic

    - by Mano
    Hello All, I am building a ASP.NET Mvc app. I have a Data model say User public class user { public int userId {get; private set}; public string FirstName {get; set;} } The validation to be done is that the firstname cannot exceed 50 characters. I have another presentation model in which i have the property FirstName too. I do not want to repeat the validation logic in both the models. I want to have it in one place and that should be it. I can do it in a simpler way by adding a function which can be called while setting the property like private string firstName; public string FirstName { get { return firstName; } set { if (PropertyValidator.ValidName(value)) // assuming ValidName exists and it will throw an exception if the value is not valid { firstName = value; } } } But I am looking for something much simpler so that I do not need to add this for every property I need to have it validated. I looked at ValidationAttribute but then again I can validate this only from a controller (ModelState.IsValid). Since this model could be used by some other type of apps like console app, I could not choose that. But if there is a way to use the Mvc's ModelState.IsValid from outside of a controller, that would be awesome. Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!!

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  • Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

    - by Alex R
    A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

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  • Deserialize json with json.net c#

    - by 76mel
    Hi, am new to Json so a little green. I have a Rest Based Service that returns a json string; {"treeNode":[{"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}, {"id":"U-2905","pid":"R","userId":"2905"}]} I have been playing with the Json.net and trying to Deserialize the string into Objects etc. I wrote an extention method to help. public static T DeserializeFromJSON<T>(this Stream jsonStream, Type objectType) { T result; using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(jsonStream)) { JsonSerializer serializer = new JsonSerializer(); try { result = (T)serializer.Deserialize(reader, objectType); } catch (Exception e) { throw; } } return result; } I was expecting an array of treeNode[] objects. But its seems that I can only deserialize correctly if treeNode[] property of another object. public class treeNode { public string id { get; set; } public string pid { get; set; } public string userId { get; set; } } I there a way to to just get an straight array from the deserialization ? Cheers

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  • PDO using singleton stored as class properity

    - by Misiur
    Hi again. OOP drives me crazy. I can't move PDO to work. Here's my DB class: class DB extends PDO { public function &instance($dsn, $username = null, $password = null, $driver_options = array()) { static $instance = null; if($instance === null) { try { $instance = new self($dsn, $username, $password, $driver_options); } catch(PDOException $e) { throw new DBException($e->getMessage()); } } return $instance; } } It's okay when i do something like this: try { $db = new DB(DB_TYPE.':host='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } catch(DBException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } But this: try { $db = DB::instance(DB_TYPE.':host='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } catch(DBException $e) { echo $e->getMessage(); } Does nothing. I mean, even when I use wrong password/username, I don't get any exception. Second thing - I have class which is "heart" of my site: class Core { static private $instance; public $db; public function __construct() { if(!self::$instance) { $this->db = DB::instance(DB_TYPE.':hpost='.DB_HOST.';dbname='.DB_NAME, DB_USER, DB_PASS); } return self::$instance; } private function __clone() { } } I've tried to use "new DB" inside class, but this: $r = $core->db->query("SELECT * FROM me_config"); print_r($r->fetch()); Return nothing. $sql = "SELECT * FROM me_config"; print_r($core->db->query($sql)); I get: PDOStatement Object ( [queryString] => SELECT * FROM me_config ) I'm really confused, what am I doing wrong?

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  • AssemblyResolve event is not firing during compilation of a dynamic assembly for an aspx page.

    - by John
    This one is really pissing me off. Here goes: My goal is to load assemblies at run-time that contain embedded aspx,ascx etc. What I would also like is to not lock the assembly file on disk so I can update it at run-time without having to restart the application (I know this will leave the previous version(s) loaded). To that end I have written a virtual path provider that does the trick. I have subscribed to the CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve event so as to redirect the framework to my assemblies. The problem is that the when the framework tries to compile the dynamic assembly for the aspx page I get the following: Compiler Error Message: CS0400: The type or namespace name 'Pages' could not be found in the global namespace (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: public class app_resource_pages__version_1_0_0_0__culture_neutral__publickeytoken_null_default_aspx : global::Pages._Default, System.Web.SessionState.IRequiresSessionState, System.Web.IHttpHandle I noticed that if I load the assembly with Assembly.Load(AssemblyName) or Assembly.LoadFrom(filename) I dont get the above error. If I load it with Assembly.Load(byte[]) (so as to not lock it), the exception is thrown but my AssemblyResolve handler, when called is returning the assembly correctly (it is called once). So I am guessing that it is called once when the framework parses the asp markup but not when it tries to create the dynamic assembly for the aspx page.

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  • how to return an error in an Ajax scenario from ASP.NET MVC action

    - by mohang
    I am using ASP.NET MVC with jquery. I have the following MVC Action that returns a partial page on Success. On Application Error, I am not sure what to send it for correctly handling it at the client side. public ActionResult LoadFilterSet(int filterSetId) { try { BreadCrumbManager bcManager = this.ResetBreadCrumbManager(this.BreadCrumbManagerID); GeneralHelper.LoadBreadCrumbManager(bcManager, filterSetId); ViewData["BreadCrumbManager"] = bcManager; return View("LoadFilterSet"); } catch (Exception ex) { return Content(""); } } Following is my jquery ajax call. Notice that I am checking for the data length to make sure there are no errors. Please suggest me a better way of doing this. $.ajax({ type: "GET", dataType: "html", async: true, data: ({ filterSetId: selectedId }), url: link, contentType: "text/html; charset=utf-8", success: function(data, textStatus) { if (data.length > 0) { // Clear the local filters first. clearLocalFilters(); $('td.selected-filters table.filters-display').append(data); } } });

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  • [hibernate - jpa] @OneToOne annotoation problem (i think...)

    - by blow
    Hi all, im new in hibernate and JPA and i have some problems with annotations. My target is to create this table in db (PERSON_TABLE with personal-details) ID ADDRESS NAME SURNAME MUNICIPALITY_ID First of all, i have a MUNICIPALITY table in db containing all municipality of my country. I mapped this table in this ENTITY: @Entity public class Municipality implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String country; private String province; private String name; @Column(name="cod_catasto") private String codCatastale; private String cap; public Municipality() { } ... Then i make an EMBEDDABLE class Address containing fields that realize a simple address... @Embeddable public class Address implements Serializable { @OneToOne(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name="id_municipality") private Municipality municipality; @Column(length=45) private String address; public Address() { } ... Finally i embedded this class into Person ENTITY @Entity public class Person implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Long id; private String name; private String surname; @Embedded private Address address; public Person() { } ... All works good when i have to save a new Person record, in fact hibernate creates a PERSON_TABLE as i want, but if i try to retrieve a Person record i have an exception. HQL is simply "from Person" The excpetion is (Entities is the package containing all classes above-mentioned): org.hibernate.AnnotationException: @OneToOne or @ManyToOne on Entities.Person.address.municipality references an unknown entity: Entities.Municipality Is the @OneToOne annotation the problem? Thanks.

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