Search Results

Search found 14000 results on 560 pages for 'include guards'.

Page 461/560 | < Previous Page | 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468  | Next Page >

  • Avoid an "out of memory error" in Java(eclipse), when using large data structure?

    - by gnomed
    OK, so I am writing a program that unfortunately needs to use a huge data structure to complete its work, but it is failing with a "out of memory error" during its initialization. While I understand entirely what that means and why it is a problem, I am having trouble overcoming it, since my program needs to use this large structure and I don't know any other way to store it. The program first indexes a large corpus of text files that I provide. This works fine. Then it uses this index to initialize a large 2D array. This array will have nXn entries, where "n" is the number of unique words in the corpus of text. For the relatively small chunk I am testing it on(about 60 files) it needs to make approximately 30,000x30,000 entries. this will probably be bigger once I run it on my full intended corpus too. It consistently fails every time, after it indexes, while it is initializing the data structure(to be worked on later). Things I have done include: revamp my code to use a primitive "int[]" instead of a "TreeMap" eliminate redundant structures, etc... Also, I have run eclipse with "eclipse -vmargs -Xmx2g" to max out my allocated memory I am fairly confident this is not going to be a simple line of code solution, but is most likely going to require a very new approach. I am looking for what that approach is, any ideas? Thanks, B.

    Read the article

  • Jquery code breaks page Javascript

    - by Graham
    I required a function to remove URLs from <a> divs found within <div class="rj_insertcode">. Not being familiar with with direction to tackle this, I eventually mustered up the following Jquery code: <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> <script src="jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('div.rj_insertcode a').each(function() { $(this).replaceWith($(this).html()); }); }); </script> </head> My site uses Joomla CMS and I was able to add the above script to the bottom of the template index.php. It works quite well and removes the links generated between the defined tags. My problem: Pages that also include JavaScript do not operate correctly. JavaScript appears to be disabled or not functioning. What can I change to ensure JavaScript still operates correctly, or is there another method I could adopt?

    Read the article

  • Putting all methods in class definition

    - by Amnon
    When I use the pimpl idiom, is it a good idea to put all the methods definitions inside the class definition? For example: // in A.h class A { class impl; boost::scoped_ptr<impl> pimpl; public: A(); int foo(); } // in A.cpp class A::impl { // method defined in class int foo() { return 42; } // as opposed to only declaring the method, and defining elsewhere: float bar(); }; A::A() : pimpl(new impl) { } int A::foo() { return pimpl->foo(); } As far as I know, the only problems with putting a method definition inside a class definition is that (1) the implementation is visible in files that include the class definition, and (2) the compiler may make the method inline. These are not problems in this case since the class is defined in a private file, and inlining has no effect since the methods are called in only one place. The advantage of putting the definition inside the class is that you don't have to repeat the method signature. So, is this OK? Are there any other issues to be aware of?

    Read the article

  • Consistent HashCode() and Equals() results, but inconsistent TreeMap.containsKey() result

    - by smessing
    I have the following object Node: private class Node implements Comparable<Node>(){ private String guid(); ... public boolean equals(Node o){ return (this == o); } public int hashCode(){ return guid.hashCode(); } ... } And I use it in the following TreeMap: TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>> nodes = new TreeMap<Node, TreeSet<Edge>>(); Now, the tree map is used in a class called Graph to store nodes currently in the graph, along with a set of their edges (from the class Edge). My problem is when I try to execute: public containsNode(n){ for (Node x : nodes.keySet()) { System.out.println("HASH CODE: "); System.out.print(x.hashCode() == n.hashCode()); System.out.println("EQUALS: "); System.out.print(x.equals(n)); System.out.println("CONTAINS: "); System.out.print(nodes.containsKey(n)); System.out.println("N: " + n); System.out.println("X: " + x); } } I sometimes get the following: HASHCODE: true EQUALS: true CONTAINS: false N: foo X: foo Anyone have an idea as to what I'm doing wrong? I'm still new to all this, so I apologize in advance if I'm overlooking something simple (I know hashCode() doesn't really matter for TreeMap, but I figured I'd include it).

    Read the article

  • Modify existing struct alignment in Visual C++

    - by Crend King
    Is there a way to modify the member alignment of an existing struct in Visual C++? Here is the background: I use an 3rd-party library, which uses several structs. To fill up the structs, I pass the address of the struct instance to some functions. Unfortunately, the functions only returns unaligned buffer, so that data of some members are always wrong. /Zp is out of choice, since it breaks the other parts of the program. I know #pragma pack modifies the alignment of the following struct, but I do not want to copy the structs into my code, for the definitions in the library might change in the future. Sample code: test.h: struct am_aligned { BYTE data1[10]; ULONG data2; }; test.cpp: include "test.h" // typedef alignment(1) struct am_aligned am_unaligned int APIENTRY wWinMain(HINSTANCE hInstance, HINSTANCE hPrevInstance, LPTSTR lpCmdLine, int nCmdShow) { char buffer[20] = {}; for (int i = 0; i < sizeof(unaligned_struct); i++) { buffer[i] = i; } am_aligned instance = *(am_aligned*) buffer; return 0; } instance.data2 is 0x0f0e0d0c, while 0x0d0c0b0a is desired. The commented line does not work of course. Thanks for help!

    Read the article

  • When is the reintegrate option really necessary?

    - by Tor Hovland
    If you always sync a feature branch before you merge it back, why do you really have to use the --reintegrate option? The Subversion book says: When merging your branch back to the trunk, however, the underlying mathematics is quite different. Your feature branch is now a mishmosh of both duplicated trunk changes and private branch changes, so there's no simple contiguous range of revisions to copy over. By specifying the --reintegrate option, you're asking Subversion to carefully replicate only those changes unique to your branch. (And in fact, it does this by comparing the latest trunk tree with the latest branch tree: the resulting difference is exactly your branch changes!) So the --reintegrate option only merges the changes that are unique to the feature branch. But if you always sync before merge (which is a recommended practice, in order to deal with any conflicts on the feature branch), then the only changes between the branches are the changes that are unique to the feature branch, right? And if Subversion tries to merge code that is already on the target branch, it will just do nothing, right? In this blog post, Mark Phippard writes: http://blogs.open.collab.net/svn/2008/07/subversion-merg.html If we include those synched revisions, then we merge back changes that already exist in trunk. This yields unnecessary and confusing conflicts. Can somebody give me an example of when dropping reintegrate gives me unnecessary conflicts?

    Read the article

  • Segmentation fault in C recursive Combination (nCr)

    - by AruniRC
    PLease help me out here. The program is supposed to recursively find out the combination of two numbers. nCr = n!/ (r!(n-r)! ). I'm getting this error message when i compile it on GCC. Here's what the terminal shows: Enter two numbers: 8 4 Segmentation fault (Program exited with code:139) The code is given here: #include<stdio.h> float nCr(float, float, float); int main() { float a, b, c; printf("Enter two numbers: \n"); scanf("%f%f", &a, &b); c = nCr(a, b, a-b); printf("\n%.3f", c); return 0; } float nCr(float n, float r, float p) { if(n<1) return (1/(p*r))*(nCr(1, r-1, p-1)); if(r<1) return (n/(p*1))*(nCr(n-1, 1, p-1)); if(p<1) return (n/r)*(nCr(n-1, r-1, 1)); return ( n/(p*r) )*nCr(n-1, r-1, p-1); }

    Read the article

  • NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

    - by jr
    I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Copy constructor called even when returning by reference?

    - by Johnyy
    Hi, I am testing the return of local objects by reference. My original test went well but something else happens unexpected. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class MyInt { public: MyInt(int i){ value = new int(i); } ~MyInt(){ delete value; } int getValue(){ return *value; } MyInt(const MyInt &b){ cout<<"Copy"<<endl; } private: int* value; }; MyInt& returnref(){ MyInt a(10); cout<<"Returning from returnref()"<<endl; return a; } int main(){ MyInt a = returnref(); cout<<a.getValue()<<endl; return 0; } My console prints "Returning from ..." then "Copy" then a random value. My understanding of pass by reference is that it does not need to make any copy. Why is it not doing what I expected?

    Read the article

  • Compound Primary Key in Hibernate using Annotations

    - by Rich
    Hi, I have a table which uses two columns to represent its primary key, a transaction id and then the sequence number. I tried what was recommended http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/stable/annotations/reference/en/html_single/#entity-mapping in section 2.2.3.2.2, but when I used the Hibernate session to commit this Entity object, it leaves out the TXN_ID field in the insert statement and only includes the BA_SEQ field! What's going wrong? Here's the related code excerpt: @Id @Column(name="TXN_ID") private long txn_id; public long getTxnId(){return txn_id;} public void setTxnId(long t){this.txn_id=t;} @Id @Column(name="BA_SEQ") private int seq; public int getSeq(){return seq;} public void setSeq(int s){this.seq=s;} And here are some log statements to show what exactly happens to fail: In createKeepTxnId of DAO base class: about to commit Transaction :: txn_id->90625 seq->0 ...<Snip>... Hibernate: insert into TBL (BA_ACCT_TXN_ID, BA_AUTH_SRVC_TXN_ID, BILL_SRVC_ID, BA_BILL_SRVC_TXN_ID, BA_CAUSE_TXN_ID, BA_CHANNEL, CUSTOMER_ID, BA_MERCHANT_FREETEXT, MERCHANT_ID, MERCHANT_PARENT_ID, MERCHANT_ROOT_ID, BA_MERCHANT_TXN_ID, BA_PRICE, BA_PRICE_CRNCY, BA_PROP_REQS, BA_PROP_VALS, BA_REFERENCE, RESERVED_1, RESERVED_2, RESERVED_3, SRVC_PROD_ID, BA_STATUS, BA_TAX_NAME, BA_TAX_RATE, BA_TIMESTAMP, BA_SEQ) values (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?) [WARN] util.JDBCExceptionReporter SQL Error: 1400, SQLState: 23000 [ERROR] util.JDBCExceptionReporter ORA-01400: cannot insert NULL into ("SCHEMA"."TBL"."TXN_ID") The important thing to note is I print out the entity object which has a txn_id set, and then the following insert into statement does not include TXN_ID in the listing and thus the NOT NULL table constraint rejects the query.

    Read the article

  • What's the best technique to protect my framework from visitors who are not logged in?

    - by Hermet
    First of all, I would like to say that I have used the search box looking for a similar question and was unsuccessful, maybe because of my poor english skills. I have a a 'homemade' framework. I have certain PHP files that must only be visible for the admin. The way I currently do this is check within every single page to see if a session has been opened. If not, the user gets redirected to a 404 page, to seem like the file which has been requested doesn't exist. I really don't know if this is guaranteed to work or if there's a better and more safe way because I'm currently working with kind of confidential data that should never become public. Could you give me some tips? Or leave a link where I could find some? Thank you very much, and again excuse me for kicking the dictionary. EDIT What I usually write in the top of each file is something like this <?php include("sesion.php"); $rs=comprueba(); //'check' if ($rs==1) { ?> And then, at the end <?php } ?> Is it such a butched job, isn't it? EDIT Let's say I have a customers list in a file named customers.php That file may be currently on http://www.mydomain.com/admin/customers.php and it must only be visible for the admin user. Once the admin user has been logged in, I create a session variable. That variable is what I check on the top of each page, and if it exists, the customers list is shown. If not, the user gets redirected to the 404 page. Thank you for your patience. I really appreciate.

    Read the article

  • Should conditional expressions go inside or outside of classes?

    - by Rupert
    It seems that often I will want to execute some methods from a Class when I call it and choosing which function will depend on some condition. This leads me to write classes like in Case 1 because it allows me to rapidly include their functionality. The alternative would be Case 2 which can take a lot of time if there is a lot of code and also means more code being written twice when I drop the Class into different pages. Having said that, Case 1 feels very wrong for some reason that I can't quite put my finger on. I haven't really seen any classes written like this, I suppose. Is there anything wrong with writing classes like in Case 1 or is Case 2 superior? Or is there a better way? What the advantages and disadvantages of each? Case 1 class Foo { public function __construct($bar) { if($bar = 'action1') $this->method1(); else if($bar = 'action2') $this->method2(); else $this->method1(); } public function method1() { } public function method2() { } } $bar = 'action1' $foo = new Foo($bar); Case 2 class Foo { public function __construct() { } public function method1() { } public function method2() { } } $foo = new Foo; $bar = 'action1'; if($bar == 'action1') $foo->method1(); else if($bar == 'action2') $foo->method2(); else $foo->method1();

    Read the article

  • SQL Grouping with multiple joins combining results incorrectly

    - by Matt
    Hi I'm having trouble with my query combining records when it shouldn't. I have two tables Authors and Publications, they are related by Publication ID in a many to many relationship. As each author can have many publications and each publication has many Authors. I want my query to return every publication for a set of authors and include the ID of each of the other authors that have contributed to the publication grouped into one field. (I am working with mySQL) I have tried to picture it graphically below Table: authors Table:publications AuthorID | PublicationID PublicationID | PublicationName 1 | 123 123 | A 1 | 456 456 | B 2 | 123 789 | C 2 | 789 3 | 123 3 | 456 I want my result set to be the following AuthorID | PublicationID | PublicationName | AllAuthors 1 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 1 | 456 | B | 1,3 2 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 2 | 789 | C | 2 3 | 123 | A | 1,2,3 3 | 456 | B | 1,3 This is my query Select Author1.AuthorID, Publications.PublicationID, Publications.PubName, GROUP_CONCAT(TRIM(Author2.AuthorID)ORDER BY Author2.AuthorID ASC)AS 'AuthorsAll' FROM Authors AS Author1 LEFT JOIN Authors AS Author2 ON Author1.PublicationID = Author2.PublicationID INNER JOIN Publications ON Author1.PublicationID = Publications.PublicationID WHERE Author1.AuthorID ="1" OR Author1.AuthorID ="2" OR Author1.AuthorID ="3" GROUP BY Author2.PublicationID But it returns the following instead AuthorID | PublicationID | PublicationName | AllAuthors 1 | 123 | A | 1,1,1,2,2,2,3,3,3 1 | 456 | B | 1,1,3,3 2 | 789 | C | 2 It does deliver the desired output when there is only one AuhorID in the where statement. I have not been able to figure it out, does anyone know where i'm going wrong?

    Read the article

  • Documentation about difference between javacript src and javascript library in grails

    - by damian
    I know that if you write in a view: <g:javascript src="myscript.js" /> <g:javascript src="myscript.js" /> <g:javascript src="myscript.js" /> <!-- other try --> <g:javascript library="myscript" /> <g:javascript library="myscript" /> <g:javascript library="myscript" /> It will out output: <script type="text/javascript" src="/vip/js/myscript.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/vip/js/myscript.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/vip/js/myscript.js"></script> <!-- other try --> <script type="text/javascript" src="/vip/js/myscript.js"></script> Conclution: with library it will try to include only once. I have been try to find documentation about it without success. Do you have any pointer?

    Read the article

  • WPF ResourceDictionary and DynamicResource

    - by lanicor
    i am new to WPF so maybe this will be "noob" question but i can't find answer to it (and it seems so easy)... well i am programing WPF app and i want to use smth similar to css for webpages, so i found ResourceDictionary and tried to use it... I have main window in which i create Frame and on click some UserControl is loaded to that same Frame.I include my ResourceDictionary (root/style/Styles.xaml) to my main window like this: <Window.Resources> <ResourceDictionary x:Key="styles" Source="style/Styles.xaml" /> </Window.Resources> in which i have: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style x:Key="ProductsRequired" TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="28" /> ... I don't use it on my main window but want to use it on my UserControls, which are loaded to that main window and i try to use it like this: <Label Name="product1" Style="{DynamicResource ProductsRequired}" /> Warning i am getting all the time is: The resource "ProductsRequired" could not be resolved. I even tried including Styles to my UserControl <UserControl.Resources> <ResourceDictionary x:Key="styles" Source="../style/Styles.xaml" /> </UserControl.Resources> and nothing happens... Well my question is long but i wanted to be clear... :) P.S. all that logic works in C# code btw private ResourceDictionary myStyles = new ResourceDictionary(); Style ProductsRequired = myStyles["ProductsRequired"] as Style; product1.Style = ProductsRequired;

    Read the article

  • merge my code with Ajax code>>> problem

    - by sandy
    I want to help me In the following link i found nice code in Ajax http://www.w3schools.com/php/php_ajax_livesearch.asp I want to link my code with the code you see in the link above and replace dropdown list How can I do it for I could not where is it change in code even my code work as Ajax ?? I wish .... I wish .... I wish any somebody can help me <?php include ("connect.php"); print_r($_POST['sector_list']); $member_id = intval($_POST['sector_list']); if($member_id == 0) { // Default choice was selected } else { $res = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM members WHERE MemberID = $member_id LIMIT 1"); if(mysql_num_rows($res) == 0) { // Not a valid member } else { // The member is in the database } } ?> <form method="POST" action=<?php echo $_SERVER["PHP_SELF"]; ?> > <input type="hidden" name="sector" value="sector_list"> <select name="sector_list[]" class="inputstandard" multiple="multiple"> <option size ="40" value="default">send to </option> <?php $result = mysql_query('SELECT * from members') or die(mysql_error()); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { echo '<option value="' . $row['MemberName'] . '">' . $row['MemberName']. '</option>'; } ?> <input type ="submit" name ="go" value = "go" > </select> </form>

    Read the article

  • Explanation of `self` usage during dealloc?

    - by Greg
    I'm trying to lock down my understanding of proper memory management within Objective-C. I've gotten into the habit of explicitly declaring self.myProperty rather than just myProperty because I was encountering occasional scenarios where a property would not be set to the reference that I intended. Now, I'm reading Apple documentation on releasing IBOutlets, and they say that all outlets should be set to nil during dealloc. So, I put this in place as follows and experienced crashes as a result: - (void)dealloc { [self.dataModel close]; [self.dataModel release], self.dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } So, I tried taking out the "self" references, like so: - (void)dealloc { [dataModel close]; [dataModel release], dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } This second system seems to work as expected. However, it has me a bit confused. Why would self cause a crash in that case, when I thought self was a fairly benign reference more used as a formality than anything else? Also, if self is not appropriate in this case, then I have to ask: when should you include self references, and when should you not?

    Read the article

  • git push says everything up to date when it definitely is not

    - by Wolf
    I have a public repository. No one else has forked, pulled, or done anything else to it. I made some minor changes to one file, successfully committed them, and tried to push. It says 'Everything up-to-date'. There are no branches. I'm very, very new to git and I don't understand what on earth is going on. git remote show origin tells me: HEAD branch: master Remote branch: master tracked Local ref configured for 'git push': master pushes to master (up to date) Any ideas what I can do to make this understand that it's NOT up to date? Thanks Updates: git status: # On branch master # Untracked files: # (use "git add ..." to include in what will be committed) # # histmarkup.el # vendor/yasnippet-0.6.1c/snippets/ no changes added to commit (use "git add" and/or "git commit -a") git branch -a: * master remotes/origin/master git fsck: dangling tree 105cb101ca1a4d2cbe1b5c73eb4a238e22cb4998 dangling tree 85bd0461f0fcb1618d46c8a80d3a4a7932de34bb Update 2: I re-opened the modified file, and the modifications I KNOW I had made were gone. So I added them again, went through the rigamarole of git status, git add filename, git commit -m "(message)", and git push origin master, and all of a sudden it works the way it's supposed to.

    Read the article

  • jquery with php loading file

    - by Marcus Solv
    I'm trying to use jquery with a simple php code: $('#some').click(function() { <?php require_once('some1.php?name="some' + index + '"'); ?> }); It shows no error, so I don't know what is wrong. In some1 I have: <?php //Start session session_start(); //Include database connection details require_once('../sql/config.php'); //Connect to mysql server $link = mysql_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD); if(!$link) { die('Failed to connect to server: ' . mysql_error()); } //Select database $db = mysql_select_db(DB_DATABASE); if(!$db) { die("Unable to select database"); } //Function to sanitize values received from the form. Prevents SQL injection function clean($str) { $str = @trim($str); if(get_magic_quotes_gpc()) { $str = stripslashes($str); } return mysql_real_escape_string($str); } //Sanitize the POST values $name = clean($_GET['name']); ?> It's not complete because I want to make a sql command (insert). I want when I click in #some to execute that file (create a entry in the table that isn't define yet).

    Read the article

  • Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

    Read the article

  • How can I restore the "auto" values with for list-style-type in nested unordered lists with CSS?

    - by Michael
    By default, an unstyled set of nested <ul> lists looks like this (in Chrome, Firefox, and IE at least): The top level has a list-style-type of disc, the next level is circle, and subsequent levels are square. If I include a stylesheet that changes the list-style-type to none, is there a simple way to revert back to the "automatic bullet types" later in the document? (e.g., override with a subsequent CSS definition or JavaScript style change) Basically, I'm looking for something like list-style-type: auto; (which is apparently not valid and has no effect): <style type="text/css"> ul { list-style-type: none; } ul { list-style-type: auto; } /* Does not work */ </style> Setting the list-style-type back to disc changes every bullet in the list and I no longer see different bullets at different levels, so that doesn't work either. Is the only way to accomplish this by explicitly defining styles for every level? e.g.: <style type="text/css"> ul { list-style-type: disc; } ul ul { list-style-type: circle; } ul ul ul { list-style-type: square; } </style>

    Read the article

  • Could I do this blind relative to absolute path conversion (for perforce depot paths) better?

    - by wonderfulthunk
    I need to "blindly" (i.e. without access to the filesystem, in this case the source control server) convert some relative paths to absolute paths. So I'm playing with dotdots and indices. For those that are curious I have a log file produced by someone else's tool that sometimes outputs relative paths, and for performance reasons I don't want to access the source control server where the paths are located to check if they're valid and more easily convert them to their absolute path equivalents. I've gone through a number of (probably foolish) iterations trying to get it to work - mostly a few variations of iterating over the array of folders and trying delete_at(index) and delete_at(index-1) but my index kept incrementing while I was deleting elements of the array out from under myself, which didn't work for cases with multiple dotdots. Any tips on improving it in general or specifically the lack of non-consecutive dotdot support would be welcome. Currently this is working with my limited examples, but I think it could be improved. It can't handle non-consecutive '..' directories, and I am probably doing a lot of wasteful (and error-prone) things that I probably don't need to do because I'm a bit of a hack. I've found a lot of examples of converting other types of relative paths using other languages, but none of them seemed to fit my situation. These are my example paths that I need to convert, from: //depot/foo/../bar/single.c //depot/foo/docs/../../other/double.c //depot/foo/usr/bin/../../../else/more/triple.c to: //depot/bar/single.c //depot/other/double.c //depot/else/more/triple.c And my script: begin paths = File.open(ARGV[0]).readlines puts(paths) new_paths = Array.new paths.each { |path| folders = path.split('/') if ( folders.include?('..') ) num_dotdots = 0 first_dotdot = folders.index('..') last_dotdot = folders.rindex('..') folders.each { |item| if ( item == '..' ) num_dotdots += 1 end } if ( first_dotdot and ( num_dotdots > 0 ) ) # this might be redundant? folders.slice!(first_dotdot - num_dotdots..last_dotdot) # dependent on consecutive dotdots only end end folders.map! { |elem| if ( elem !~ /\n/ ) elem = elem + '/' else elem = elem end } new_paths << folders.to_s } puts(new_paths) end

    Read the article

  • Google App Engine datastore encoding?

    - by sernaferna
    I'm using the GAE datastore for a Java application, and storing some text that will be in numerous languages. In my servlet, I'm first checking to see if there's any data in the data store, and, if not, I'm creating some, similar to the following: ArrayList<Lang> list = new ArrayList<Lang>(); list.add(new Lang("EN", "English", 1)); list.add(new Lang("ES", "Español", 0)); //more languages here... PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); for(Lang l : list) { pm.makePersistent(l); } Since this is using JDO, I guess I should include the relevent parts of the Lang class too: @PersistenceCapable public class Lang { @PrimaryKey private String code; @Persistent private String name; @Persistent private int popularity; // getters & setters & constructors... } However, the non-ASCII characters are giving me grief. I've set my Eclipse project to use the UTF-8 encoding instead of the default Cp1252, so I think I'm okay from that perspective, but when I use the App Engine Data Viewer to look at my data, that Español entry becomes Español, and when I click on it to view it, I get a 500 Server Error. (There are some other entries with right-to-left text that don't even show up in the Data Viewer at all, but one problem at a time...) Is there anything special I can do in my code to set the character encoding, or specify to GAE that the data I'm storing is UTF-8? Or is the problem on the Eclipse side, and is there something I should be doing with my Java code?

    Read the article

  • Loading JNI lib on Mac OS X?

    - by Clinton
    Background So I am attempting to load a jnilib (specifically JOGL) into Java on Mac OS X at runtime. I have been following along the relevant Stack Overflow questions: Maven and the JOGL Library Loading DLL in Java - Eclipse - JNI How to make a jar file that include all jar files The end goal for me is to package platform specific JOGL files into a JAR and unzip them into a temp directory and load them at start-up. I worked my problem back to simply attempting to load JOGL using hard-coded paths: File f = new File("/var/folders/+n/+nfb8NHsHiSpEh6AHMCyvE+++TI/-Tmp-/libjogl.jnilib"); System.load(f.toString()); f = new File ("/var/folders/+n/+nfb8NHsHiSpEh6AHMCyvE+++TI/-Tmp-/libjogl_awt.jnilib"); System.load(f.toString()); I get the following exception when attempting to use the JOGL API: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: no jogl in java.library.path But when I specify java.library.path by adding the following JVM option: -Djava.library.path="/var/folders/+n/+nfb8NHsHiSpEh6AHMCyvE+++TI/-Tmp-/" Everything works fine. Question Is it possible use System.load (or some other variant) on Mac OS X as a replacement for -Djava.library.path that is invoked at runtime?

    Read the article

  • Why is FBJS dropping my 'onclick' attribute from this input element?

    - by Chris Barnhill
    When I include an 'onClick' attribute in setInnerXTHML() like this: var innerHtml = '<span>Build Track: Select a city where track building should begin'+ '<div id="action-end">'+ '<form>'+ '<input type="button" value="End Track Building" id="next-phase" onClick="moveTrainAuto();" />'+ '</form>'+ '</div></span>'; actionPrompt.setInnerXHTML(innerHtml); var btn = document.getElementById('next-phase'); btn.addEventListener('click', 'moveTrainAuto'); The 'onClick' gets dropped. I know this from inspecting the element with Firebug. This is what it reveals: <input id="app148184604666_next-phase" type="button" value="End Track Building"/> Here is the function called for onClick: function moveTrainAuto(evt) { debugger; ajax = new Ajax(); ajax.responseType = Ajax.JSON; ajax.ondone = function(data) { debugger; if(data.code == 'UNLOAD_CARGO') { unloadCargo(); } else if (data.code == 'MOVE_TRAIN_AUTO') { moveTrainAuto(); } else if (data.code == 'TURN_END') { turnEnd(); } else { /* handle error */ } } ajax.post(baseURL + '/turn/move-trains-auto'); } As you can see, I've tried both 'onClick' and 'addEventListener'. Neither works. Any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 457 458 459 460 461 462 463 464 465 466 467 468  | Next Page >