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• Changing a url depending on what link chosen (HTML) no asp.

  - by Ozaki

  TLDR I need to change a javascript variable on the same page after clicking a link (can be from a different page) so that the getjson request pulls different data without having to duplicate on html pages. I am using some getJSON requests with Jquery, to make calls to populate my pages. I want to be able to (in plain HTML / javascript) when the user clicks say "link 1" or "link 2" to open the same page (say page.html) but change the get request url to "link 1" or "link 2". Page.html var url = ??; $.getJSON(url, function(data){} link 1 var url = host/link1 <a href="page.html">link1</a> link2 var url = host/link2 <a href="page.html">link2</a> So I call the same page but am able to populate it with different content. Purposely staying away from asp. Was thinking maybe of inserting the content into a div after page load so the url can be set or something along those lines. Any ideas how I might go about this?

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• Generic dataset handling library

  - by Pep.

  Hello, I want to build a generic Perl module for handling and analysing biomedical character separated datasets and which can, most certain, be used on any kind of datasets that contain a mixture of categorical (A,B,C,..) and continuous (1.2,3,881..) and identifier (XXX1,XXX2...). The plan is to have people initialize the module and then use some arguments to point to the data file(s), the place were the analysis reports should be placed and the structure of the data. By structure of data I mean which variable is in which place and its name/type. And this is where I need some enlightenment. I am baffled how to do this in a clean way. Obviously, having people create a simple schema file, be it XML or some other format would be the cleanest but maybe not all people enjoy doing something like this. The solutions I can think of are: Create a configuration file in XML or similar and with a prespecified format. Pass the information during initialization of the module. Use the first row of the data as headers and try to guess types (ouch) Surely there must be a "canonical" way of doing this that is also usable and efficient. Thanks p.

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• Limit iPhone in-app purchase by user's country

  - by Ryan

  Hello everyone. I'm a product manager who works for a small internet company that is developing an iPhone application for a social network. We monetize by offering limited and premium memberships to users (premium members get additional features not available to limited members). For billing on the web, we use a 3rd-party payment gateway that is nearing retirement, and will be replaced by an in-house solution. The business wants a global launch for our iPhone app using iTunes + in-app purchasing as a payment gateway. The problem with going global using this payment method is that for our web service membership level, available features, and subscription costs are defined by country. For example, in the US premium/limited memberships are available at 5 pricing tiers; in France premium/limited memberships are available at 5 different pricing tiers from the US; and in Chile the service is available for free and all features are available to users. Is it possible then to have the server-side, based on the user's country of registration, control the level of access, features, and payment options for users on the iPhone? I'd also note that since iTunes Connect does not allow variable pricing by currency and country, each "region" would need 5 in app purchase options. I argued for a US-only launch for iPhone using iTunes in app purchase until an in-house payment gateway is available. But you know...

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• Execute process conditionally in Windows PowerShell (e.g. the && and || operators in Bash)

  - by Dustin

  I'm wondering if anybody knows of a way to conditionally execute a program depending on the exit success/failure of the previous program. Is there any way for me to execute a program2 immediately after program1 if program1 exits successfully without testing the LASTEXITCODE variable? I tried the -band and -and operators to no avail, though I had a feeling they wouldn't work anyway, and the best substitute is a combination of a semicolon and an if statement. I mean, when it comes to building a package somewhat automatically from source on Linux, the && operator can't be beaten: # Configure a package, compile it and install it ./configure && make && sudo make install PowerShell would require me to do the following, assuming I could actually use the same build system in PowerShell: # Configure a package, compile it and install it .\configure ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { make ; if ($LASTEXITCODE -eq 0) { sudo make install } } Sure, I could use multiple lines, save it in a file and execute the script, but the idea is for it to be concise (save keystrokes). Perhaps it's just a difference between PowerShell and Bash (and even the built-in Windows command prompt which supports the && operator) I'll need to adjust to, but if there's a cleaner way to do it, I'd love to know.

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• C/C++: feedback in analyzing a code example

  - by KaiserJohaan

  Hello, I have a piece of code from an assignment I am uncertain about. I feel confident that I know the answer, but I just want to double-check with the community incase there's something I forgot. The title is basically secure coding and the question is just to explain the results. int main() { unsigned int i = 1; unsigned int c = 1; while (i > 0) { i = i*2; c++; } printf("%d\n", c); return 0; } My reasoning is this: At first glance you could imagine the code would run forever, considering it's initialized to a positive value and ever increasing. This of course is wrong because eventually the value will grow so large it will cause an integer overflow. This in turn is not entirely true either, because eventally it will force the variable 'i' to be signed by making the last bit to 1 and therefore regarded as a negative number, therefore terminating the loop. So it is not writing to unallocated memory and therefore cause integer overflow, but rather violating the data type and therefore causing the loop to terminate. I am quite sure this is the reason, but I just want to double check. Any opinions?

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• Getting base address of a process

  - by yoni0505

  I'm trying to make a program that read the timer value from Minesweeper. (OS is windows 7 64bit) Using cheat engine I found the base address of the variable, but it changes every time I run Minesweeper. What do I need to do to find out the base address automatically? Does it have something to do with the executable base address? Here's my code: #include <windows.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main() { DWORD baseAddress = 0xFF1DAA38;//always changing DWORD offset1 = 0x18; DWORD offset2 = 0x20; DWORD pAddress1; DWORD pAddress2; float value = 0; DWORD pid; HWND hwnd; hwnd = FindWindow(NULL,"Minesweeper"); if(!hwnd)//didn't find the window { cout <<"Window not found!\n"; cin.get(); } else { GetWindowThreadProcessId(hwnd,&pid); HANDLE phandle = OpenProcess(PROCESS_VM_READ,0,pid);//get permission to read if(!phandle)//failed to get permission { cout <<"Could not get handle!\n"; cin.get(); } else { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(baseAddress),&pAddress1,sizeof(pAddress1),0); ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress1 + offset1),&pAddress2,sizeof(pAddress2),0); while(1) { ReadProcessMemory(phandle,(void*)(pAddress2 + offset2),&value,sizeof(value),0); cout << value << "\n"; Sleep(1000); } } } }

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• Compute weighted averages for large numbers

  - by Travis

  I'm trying to get the weighted average of a few numbers. Basically I have: Price - 134.42 Quantity - 15236545 There can be as few as one or two or as many as fifty or sixty pairs of prices and quantities. I need to figure out the weighted average of the price. Basically, the weighted average should give very little weight to pairs like Price - 100000000.00 Quantity - 3 and more to the pair above. The formula I currently have is: ((price)(quantity) + (price)(quantity) + ...)/totalQuantity So far I have this done: double optimalPrice = 0; int totalQuantity = 0; double rolling = 0; System.out.println(rolling); Iterator it = orders.entrySet().iterator(); while(it.hasNext()) { System.out.println("inside"); Map.Entry order = (Map.Entry)it.next(); double price = (Double)order.getKey(); int quantity = (Integer)order.getValue(); System.out.println(price + " " + quantity); rolling += price * quantity; totalQuantity += quantity; System.out.println(rolling); } System.out.println(rolling); return totalQuantity / rolling; The problem is I very quickly max out the "rolling" variable. How can I actually get my weighted average? Thanks!

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• How do I iterate over a collection that is in an object passed as parameter in a jasper report?

  - by spderosso

  Hi, I have an object A that has as an instance variable a collection of object Bs. Example: public class A{ String name; List<B> myList; ... public List<B> getMyList(){ return myList; } ... } I want this object to be the only source of information the jasper report gets, since all the information the report need is in A. I am currently doing something like: A myObjectA = new A(...); InputStream reportFile = MyPage.this.getClass().getResourceAsStream("test.jrxml"); HashMap<String, Object> parameters = new HashMap<String, Object>(); parameters.put("objectA", myObjectA); ... JasperReport report = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportFile); JasperPrint print = JasperFillManager.fillReport(report, parameters, new JRBeanCollectionDataSource(myObjectA.getMyList())); return JasperExportManager.exportReportToPdf(print); thereby passing "two" parameters, the objectA as a concrete parameter and the collection of object Bs that is in A as a bean data source. How do I iterate over the Bs in A by passing only A? Thanks!

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• Swapping content in a seperate div on hover

  - by Fuego DeBassi

  I feel like this should work: $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); Basically I am hiding all the .children of "#viewport on load, then when a seperate element is hovered, in this case .module .one I want to change something on the corresponding viewport ID #viewport #one. Basic idea is a variable content window, where when a thumbnail or whatever I put in the modules swaps the content shown in the viewport. Something I am doing wrong? Here is my full code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".module .caption").hide(); $("#viewport").children().hide(); $(".module").hover(function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideDown().end().siblings('.module').addClass('under'); },function() { $(this).find(".caption").slideUp().end().siblings('.module').removeClass('under'); }); $(".module .one").hover(function() { $("#viewport #one").addClass('red'); }); }); </script> The bigger hover function in the middle is for some fancy rollover effects that the modules will perform themselves, but for these purposes I just want to figure out why I can't add a Class to a separate element when another is hovered. Would love some help/advice!

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• Module not found

  - by TMP

  Hi There! I've been working on this one quite a bit and haven't gotten any closer to a solution. I juut dug up my old copy of the WindowsHookLib again - It's available with source at http://www.codeproject.com/KB/DLL/WindowsHookLib.aspx. This library allows Global Windows Mouse/Keyboard/Clipboard Hooks, which is very useful. I'm trying to use the Mouse Hook in here to Capture Mouse-Motion (I could use a Timer that always polls Cursor.Position, but I plan on using more features of WindowsHookLib later). Code as follows: MouseHook mh = new MouseHook(); mh.InstallHook(); mh.MouseMove += new EventHandler<WindowsHookLib.MouseEventArgs>(mh_MouseMove); But on the call to InstallHook(), I get an Exception: "The specified Module could not be found". Strange. Searching, I found that someone thought this occurs because a DLL is not in a place included in the Windows PATH variable, and because placing it in system32 didn't help I went the whole hog and translated the thing to C# for inclusion directly in my project (I was curious how it works). However the error was obstinately persistent, so I dug a bit on this, and found the Code in the Library that is responsible: In InstallHook(), we have IntPtr hinstDLL = Marshal.GetHINSTANCE(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetModules()[0]); this._hMouseHook = UnsafeNativeMethods.SetWindowsHookEx(14, this._mouseProc, hinstDLL, 0); if (this._hMouseHook == IntPtr.Zero) { throw new MouseHookException(new Win32Exception(Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()).Message); } And this (after modification and recompile) tells me that what I'm really getting is a Windows error "ERROR_MOD_NOT_FOUND"! Now, Here I'm stumped. Didn't I just compile the Hook Library directly into my project? (UnsafeMethods.SetWindowsHookEx is just a DllImported Method from user32) Any Answers, or Prods in the right direction, or any hints, pointers or similar are very much appreciated!

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• How do I use my own debugger visualiser to edit variables runtime?

  - by C Sharper

  I'm writing my own debugger visualiser. All works great to show up to visualiser with the data. Now I add the code for more clearness: public class MyVisualiserObjectSource : VisualizerObjectSource { public override void GetData(object target, Stream outgoingData) { string data= target as string; var writer = new StreamWriter(outgoingData); writer.Write(data); writer.Flush(); } } public class MyVirtualizer : DialogDebuggerVisualizer { protected override void Show(IDialogVisualizerService windowService, IVisualizerObjectProvider objectProvider) { var streamReader = new StreamReader(objectProvider.GetData()); string data = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); using (var form = new MyVirtualizerForm(data)) { windowService.ShowDialog(form); } } } The string here is passed to the visualizer and show my own form. It works. But now I want to pass back the modified data from the form to the variable. How do I do that? Edit: I found out that I need to override the TransferData method in VisualizerObjectSource. But in the MSDN is no detail information about how I implement this correctly. Can someone help me please?

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• Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

  - by geekzlla

  I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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• How can I bind a simple Javascript array to an MVC3 controller action method?

  - by Sergio Tapia

  Here is the javascript code I use to create the array and send it on it's way: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#update-cart-btn").click(function() { var items = []; $(".item").each(function () { var productKey = $(this).find("input[name='item.ProductId']").val(); var productQuantity = $(this).find("input[type='text']").val(); items[productKey] = productQuantity; }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "@Url.Action("UpdateCart", "Cart")", data: items, success: function () { alert("Successfully updated your cart!"); } }); }); }); </script> The items object is properly constructed with the values I need. What data type must my object be on the backend of my controller? I tried this but the variable remains null and is not bound. [Authorize] [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(object[] items) // items remains null. { // Some magic here. return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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• Why can't I get the value of this text input?

  - by Spilot

  It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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• memcache is not storing data accross requests

  - by morpheous

  I am new to using memcache, so I may be doing something wrong. I have written a wrapper class around memcache. The wrapper class has only static methods, so is a quasi singleton. The class looks something like this: class myCache { private static $memcache = null; private static $initialized = false; public static function init() { if (self::$initialized) return; self::$memcache = new Memcache(); if (self::configure()) //connects to daemon { self::store('foo', 'bar'); } else throw ConnectionError('I barfed'); } public static function store($key, $data, $flag=MEMCACHE_COMPRESSED, $timeout=86400) { if (self::$memcache->get($key)!== false) return self::$memcache->replace($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); return self::$memcache->set($key, $data, $flag, $timeout); } public static function fetch($key) { return self::$memcache->get($key); } } //in my index.php file, I use the class like this require_once('myCache.php'); myCache::init(); echo 'Stored value is: '. myCache::fetch('foo'); The problem is that the myCache::init() method is being executed in full everytime a page is requested. I then remembered that static variables do not maintain state accross page requests. So I decided instead, to store the flag that indicates whether the server contains the start up data (for our purposes, the variable 'foo', with value 'bar') in memcache itself. Once the status flag is stored in memcache itself, It solves the problem of the initialisation data being loaded for every page request (which quite frankly, defeats the purpose of memcache). However, having solved that problem, when I come to fetch the data in memcache, it is empty. I dont understand whats going on. Can anyone clarify how I can store my data once and retrieve it accross page requests? BTW, (just to clarify), the get/set is working correctly, and if I allow memcache to load the initialisation data for each page request, (which is silly), then the data is available in memcache.

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• R: manipulating data.frames containing strings and booleans.

  - by Mike Dewar

  Hello. I have a data.frame in R; it's called p. Each element in the data.frame is either True or False. My variable p has, say, m rows and n columns. For every row there is strictly only one TRUE element. It also has column names, which are strings. What I would like to do is the following: For every row in p I see a TRUE I would like to replace with the name of the corresponding column I would then like to collapse the data.frame, which now contains FALSEs and column names, to a single vector, which will have m elements. I would like to do this in an R-thonic manner, so as to continue my enlightenment in R and contribute to a world without for-loops. I can do step 1 using the following for loop: for (i in seq(length(colnames(p)))) { p[p[,i]==TRUE,i]=colnames(p)[i] } but theres's no beauty here and I have totally subscribed to this for-loops-in-R-are-probably-wrong mentality. Maybe wrong is too strong but they're certainly not great. I don't really know how to do step 2. I kind of hoped that the sum of a string and FALSE would return the string but it doesn't. I kind of hoped I could use an OR operator of some kind but can't quite figure that out (Python responds to False or 'bob' with 'bob'). Hence, yet again, I appeal to you beautiful Rstats people for help!

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• Varchar columns: Nullable or not.

  - by NYSystemsAnalyst

  The database development standards in our organization state the varchar fields should not allow null values. They should have a default value of an empty string (""). I know this makes querying and concatenation easier, but today, one of my coworkers questioned me about why that standard only existed for varchar types an not other datatypes (int, datetime, etc). I would like to know if others consider this to be a valid, defensible standard, or if varchar should be treated the same as fields of other data types? I believe this standard is valid for the following reason: I believe that an empty string and null values, though technically different, are conceptually the same. An empty, zero length string is a string that does not exist. It has no value. However, a numeric value of 0 is not the same as NULL. For example, if a field called OutstandingBalance has a value of 0, it means there are $0.00 remaining. However, if the same field is NULL, that means the value is unknown. On the other hand, a field called CustomerName with a value of "" is basically the same as a value of NULL because both represent the non-existence of the name. I read somewhere that an analogy for an empty string vs. NULL is that of a blank CD vs. no CD. However, I believe this to be a false analogy because a blank CD still phyically exists and still has physical data space that does not have any meaningful data written to it. Basically, I believe a blank CD is the equivalent of a string of blank spaces (" "), not an empty string. Therefore, I believe a string of blank spaces to be an actual value separate from NULL, but an empty string to be the absense of value conceptually equivalent to NULL. Please let me know if my beliefs regarding variable length strings are valid, or please enlighten me if they are not. I have read several blogs / arguments regarding this subject, but still do not see a true conceptual difference between NULLs and empty strings.

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• How do I mock a method with an open array parameter in PascalMock?

  - by Oliver Giesen

  I'm currently in the process of getting started with unit testing and mocking for good and I stumbled over the following method that I can't seem to fabricate a working mock implementation for: function GetInstance(const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID = CID_DEFAULT): Boolean; (TImplContextID is just an alias for Integer) I thought it would have to look something like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; begin Result := AddCall('GetInstance') .WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]) .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) .ReturnValue; end; But the compiler complains about the .ReturnsOutParams([AInstance]) saying "Bad argument type in variable type array constructor.". Also I haven't found a way to specify the open array parameter AArgs at all. Also, is using the @-notation for the TGUID-typed parameter the right way to go? Is it possible to mock this method with the current version of PascalMock at all? Update: I now realize I got the purpose of ReturnsOutParams completely wrong: It's intended to be used for populating the values to be returned when defining the expectations rather than for mocking the call itself. I now think the correct syntax for mocking the out parameter would probably have to look more like this: function TImplementationProviderMock.GetInstance( const AIID: TGUID; out AInstance; const AArgs: array of const; const AContextID: TImplContextID): Boolean; var lCall: TMockMethod; begin lCall := AddCall('GetInstance').WithParams([@AIID, AContextID]); Pointer(AInstance) := lCall.OutParams[0]; Result := lCall.ReturnValue; end; The questions that remain are how to mock the open array parameter AArgs and whether passing the TGUID argument (i.e. a value type) by address will work out...

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• RegisterClientScriptInclude doesn't work for some reason...

  - by Andrew

  Hey, I've spent at least 2 days trying anything and googling this...but for some reason I can't get RegisterClientScriptInclude to work the way everyone else has it working? First off, I am usting .NET 3.5 Ajax,...and I am including javascript in my partial page refreshes...using this code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(this, typeof(Page), "MyClientCode", script, true); It works perfectly, my javascript code contained in the script variable is included every partial refresh. The javascript in script is actually quite extensive though, and I would like to store it in a .js file,..so logically I make a .js file and try to include it using RegisterClientScriptInclude ...however i can't for the life of my get this to work. here's the exact code: ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this, typeof(Page), "mytestscript", "/js/testscript.js"); the testscript.js file is only included in FULL page refreshes...ie. when I load the page, or do a full postback....i can't get the file to be included in partial refreshes...have no idea why..when viewing the ajax POST in firebug I don't see a difference whether I include the file or not.... both of the ScriptManager Includes are being ran from the exact same place in "Page_Load"...so they should execute every partial refresh (but only the ScriptBlock does). anyways,..any help or ideas,..or further ways I can trouble shoot this problem, would be appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

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• Lost Array After Validation Error

  - by Georges Kmeid

  I'm working on a CakePHP project and I have User, Post and Location models among others. User hasMany Location and Post belongsTo User so Location is not directly related to Post. This is my code in the Post controller: public function add() { if ($this->request->is('get')) { $this->loadModel('Location'); $this->set('locations', $this->Location->find('all', array('conditions' => array('user_id' => $this->Auth->user('id'))))); } ... } And this is my code in the posts/add view: <?php $i = 0; $j = 0; foreach ($locations as $location): $location_names[$i] = $location['Location']['name']; $i++; endforeach; echo "<select name=\"location\" onchange=\"select(this.value)\">"; echo "<option value=\"\">Select a saved location</option>"; foreach ($locations as $location): echo "<option value=\"" . $location['Location']['latitude'] . "," . $location['Location']['longitude'] . "\">" . $location_names[$j] . "</option>"; $j++; endforeach; ?> </select> If I enter a wrong value in one of the post inputs that has a validation rule in Post model, it redirects to the current add view, shows what is the validation error, but then the $locations array passed from controller to view disappears and can't use it in view and I get this error: Notice (8): Undefined variable: locations [APP\View\Posts\add.ctp, line 68]

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• c++ multithread

  - by chnet

  I use C++ to implement a thread class. My code shows in the following. I have a problem about how to access thread data. In the class Thread, I create a thread use pthread_create() function. then it calls EntryPoint() function to start thread created. In the Run function, I want to access the mask variable, it always shows segment fault. So, my question is whether the new created thread copy the data in original class? How to access the thread own data? class Thread { public: int mask; pthread_t thread; Thread( int ); void start(); static void * EntryPoint (void *); void Run(); }; Thread::Thread( int a) { mask =a; } void Thread::Run() { cout<<"thread begin to run" <<endl; cout << mask <<endl; // it always show segmentfault here } void * Thread::EntryPoint(void * pthis) { cout << "entry" <<endl; Thread *pt = (Thread *) pthis; pt->Run(); } void Thread::start() { pthread_create(&thread, NULL, EntryPoint, (void *)ThreadId ); pthread_join(thread, NULL); } int main() { int input_array[8]={3,1,2,5,6,8,7,4}; Thread t1(1); t1.start(); }

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• Set "Start With" value for Oracle sequence dynamically

  - by Allan

  I'm trying to create a release script that can be deployed on multiple databases, but where the data can be merged back together at a later date. The obvious way to handle this is to set the sequence numbers for production data sufficiently high in subsequent deployments to prevent collisions. The problem is in coming up with a release script that will accept the environment number and set the "Start With" value of the sequences appropriately. Ideally, I'd like to use something like this: ACCEPT EnvironNum PROMPT 'Enter the Environment Number: ' --[more scripting] CREATE SEQUENCE seq1 START WITH &EnvironNum*100000; --[more scripting] This doesn't work because you can't evaluate a numeric expression in DDL. Another option is to create the sequences using dynamic SQL via PL/SQL. ACCEPT EnvironNum PROMPT 'Enter the Environment Number: ' --[more scripting] EXEC execute immediate 'CREATE SEQUENCE seq1 START WITH ' || &EnvironNum*100000; --[more scripting] However, I'd prefer to avoid this solution as I generally try to avoid issuing DDL in PL/SQL. Finally, the third option I've come up with is simply to accept the Start With value as a substitution variable, instead of the environment number. Does anyone have a better thought on how to go about this?

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• Ruby -- looking for some sort of "Regexp unescape" method

  - by RubyNoobie

  I have a bunch of strings that appear to have been double-escaped -- eg, I have "\\014\"\\000\"\\016smoothing\"\\011mean\"\\022color\"\\011zero@\\016" but I want "\014"\000"\016smoothing"\011mean"\022color"\011zero@\016" Is there a method I can use to unescape them? I imagine that I could make a regex to remove 1 backslash from every consecutive n backslashes, but I don't have a lot of regex experience and it seems there ought to be a "more elegant" way to do it. For example, when I puts MyString it displays the output I'd like, but I don't know how I might capture that into a variable. Thanks! Edited to add context: I have this class that is being used to marshal / restore some stuff, but when I restore some old strings it spits out a type error which I've determined is because they weren't -- for some inexplicable reason -- stored as base64. They instead appear to be 'double-escaped', when I need them to be 'single-escaped' to get restored. require 'base64' class MarshaledStuff < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :marshaled_obj def contents obj = self.marshaled_obj return Marshal.restore(Base64.decode64(obj)) end def contents=(newcontents) self.marshaled_obj = Base64.encode64(Marshal.dump(newcontents)) end end

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• Why Illegal cookies are send by Browser and received by web servers (rfc2109)?

  - by Artyom

  Hello, According to RFC 2109 cookie's value can be either HTTP token or quoted string, and token can't include non-ASCII characters. Cookie's RFC 2109: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2109#page-3 HTTP's RFC 2068 token definition: http://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc2068#page-16 However I had found that Firefox browser (3.0.6) sends cookies with utf-8 string as-is and three web servers I tested (apache2, lighttpd, nginx) pass this string as-is to the application. For example, raw request from browser: $ nc -l -p 8080 GET /hello HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost:8080 User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; U; Linux x86_64; en-US; rv:1.9.0.9) Gecko/2009050519 Firefox/2.0.0.13 (Debian-3.0.6-1) Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: windows-1255,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 300 Connection: keep-alive Cookie: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? Cache-Control: max-age=0 And raw response of apache, nginx and lighttpd HTTP_COOKIE CGI variable: wikipp=1234; wikipp_username=?????? What do I miss? Can somebody explain me?

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• jquery: Writing a method

  - by Mark

  This is the same question as this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2890620/jquery-running-a-function-in-a-context-and-adding-to-a-variable But that question was poorly posed. Trying again, I'm trying to do something like this: I have a bunch of elements I want to grab data from, the data is in the form of classes of the element children. <div id='container'> <span class='a'></span> <span class='b'></span> <span class='c'></span> </div> <div id='container2'> <span class='1'></span> <span class='2'></span> <span class='3'></span> </div> I have a method like this: jQuery.fn.grabData = function(expr) { return this.each(function() { var self = $(this); self.find("span").each(function (){ var info = $(this).attr('class'); collection += info; }); }); }; I to run the method like this: var collection = ''; $('#container').grabData(); $('#container2').grabData(); The collection should be adding to each other so that in the end I get this console.log(collection); : abc123 But collection is undefined in the method. How can I let the method know which collection it should be adding to? Thanks.

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