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  • Career Plan: The one year plan. The three year plan.

    - by drelihan
    Hi Folks, I work as a developer however I only recently began developing full time having worked for 5 years in various roles. When it comes to career planning I think I pretty much agree with The Journeyman to Craftsman model coined in The Pragmatic Probrammer and used by Bob Martin. I see myself as a journeyman and I won't call myself a "good" (for want of a better word) until I re-evaluate my skills in 5 years time. However, as part of our careers we are encouraged to make one and three year plan with specific goals that we should hit. Unfortunately, my goal is this: Write clean code that solves a problem and is easy to maintain. From a technology point of view I want to know C++ and .net programming inside out(C#, WCF etc..) But that's it. That's my plan. Is this enough? So although there's a great discussion on what people should do with their career: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/11313/career-planning-any-tips My question is this: What's your one year plan? What's your three year plan? And am I being naive with my career? Thanks,

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  • Code Golf: Shortest Turing-complete interpreter.

    - by ilya n.
    I've just tried to create the smallest possible language interpreter. Would you like to join and try? Rules of the game: You should specify a programming language you're interpreting. If it's a language you invented, it should come with a list of commands in the comments. Your code should start with example program and data assigned to your code and data variables. Your code should end with output of your result. It's preferable that there are debug statements at every intermediate step. Your code should be runnable as written. You can assume that data are 0 and 1s (int, string or boolean, your choice) and output is a single bit. The language should be Turing-complete in the sense that for any algorithm written on a standard model, such as Turing machine, Markov chains, or similar of your choice, it's reasonably obvious (or explained) how to write a program that after being executred by your interpreter performs the algorithm. The length of the code is defined as the length of the code after removal of input part, output part, debug statements and non-necessary whitespaces. Please add the resulting code and its length to the post. You can't use functions that make compiler execute code for you, such as eval(), exec() or similar. This is a Community Wiki, meaning neither the question nor answers get the reputation points from votes. But vote anyway!

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  • Prevent empty tooltips at a wpf datagrid

    - by TheCalendarProgrammer
    I am working on a calendar program, which consists mainly of a WPF DataGrid. As there is not always enough space to display all the entries of a day (which is a DataGridCell), a tooltip with all the entries of the day shell appear at mouse over. This works so far with the code snippet shown below. And now the (little) problem: If there are no entries for a day, no tooltip shell pop up. With the code below an empty tooltip pops up. <DataGridTemplateColumn x:Name="Entry" IsReadOnly="True"> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock Text="{Binding EntryText}" Foreground="{Binding EntryForeground}" FontWeight="{Binding EntryFontWeight}"> </TextBlock> <TextBlock Text="{Binding RightAlignedText}" Foreground="Gray" Background="Transparent"> <TextBlock.ToolTip> <TextBlock Text="{Binding AllEntriesText}"/> </TextBlock.ToolTip> </TextBlock> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> The Databinding is made via myCalDataGrid.Itemssource = _listOfDays; in code behind, where a 'Day' is the view model for a single calendar row.

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  • Entity Framework 4 and SYSUTCDATETIME ()

    - by GIbboK
    Hi, I use EF4 and C#. I have a Table in my DataBase (MS SQL 2008) with a default value for a column SYSUTCDATETIME (). The Idea is to automatically add Date and Time as soon as a new record is Created. I create my Conceptual Model using EF4, and I have created an ASP.PAGE with a DetailsView Control in INSERT MODE. My problems: When I create a new Record. EF is not able to insert the actual Date and Time value but it inserts instead this value 0001-01-01 00:00:00.00. I suppose the EF is not able to use SYSUTCDATETIME () defined in my DataBase Any idea how to solve it? Thanks Here my SQL script CREATE TABLE dbo.CmsAdvertisers ( AdvertiserId int NOT NULL IDENTITY CONSTRAINT PK_CmsAdvertisers_AdvertiserId PRIMARY KEY, DateCreated dateTime2(2) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_DateCreated DEFAULT sysutcdatetime (), ReferenceAdvertiser varchar(64) NOT NULL, NoteInternal nvarchar(256) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_CmsAdvertisers_NoteInternal DEFAULT '' ); My Temporary solution: Please guys help me on this e.Values["DateCreated"] = DateTime.UtcNow; More info here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb387157.aspx How to use the default Entity Framework and default date values http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd296755.aspx

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  • Convert ADO.Net EF Connection String To Be SQL Azure Cloud Connection String Compatible!?

    - by Goober
    The Scenario I have written a Silverlight 3 Application that uses an SQL Server database. I'm moving the application onto the Cloud (Azure Platform). In order to do this I have had to setup my database on SQL Azure. I am using the ADO.Net Entity Framework to model my database. I have got the application running on the cloud, but I cannot get it to connect to the database. Below is the original localhost connection string, followed by the SQL Azure connection string that isn't working. The application itself runs fine, but fails when trying to retrieve data. The Original Localhost Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Data Source=localhost; Initial Catalog=InmarsatZenith; Integrated Security=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Converted SQL Azure Connection String <add name="InmZenEntities" connectionString="metadata=res://*/InmZenModel.csdl|res://*/InmZenModel.ssdl|res://*/InmZenModel.msl; provider=System.Data.SqlClient; provider connection string=&quot; Server=tcp:MYSERVER.ctp.database.windows.net; Database=InmarsatZenith; UserID=MYUSERID;Password=MYPASSWORD; Trusted_Connection=False; MultipleActiveResultSets=True&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The Question Anyone know if this connection string for SQL Azure is correct? Help greatly appreciated.

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  • Date formats in ActiveRecord / Rails 3

    - by cbmeeks
    In my model, I have a departure_date and a return_date. I am using a text_field instead of the date_select so that I can use the JQuery datepicker. My app is based in the US for now but I do hope to get international members. So basically this is what is happening. The user (US) types in a date such as 04/01/2010 (April 1st). Of course, MySQL stores it as a datetime such as 2010-04-01... Anyway, when the user goes to edit the date later on, it shows "01/04/2010" because I am using a strftime("%m/%d/%Y) which doesn't make sense....so it thinks it is January 4th instead of the original April 1st. It's like the only way to accurately store the data is for the user to type in: 2010-04-01 I hope all of this makes sense. What I am really after is a way for the user to type in (or use the datepicker) a date in their native format. So someone in Europe could type in 01/04/2010 for April 1st but someone in the US would type in 04/01/2010. Is there an easy, elegant solution to this? Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • client-server syncing methodology [theoretical]

    - by Kenneth Ballenegger
    I'm in the progress of building an web-app that syncs with an iOS client. I'm currently tackling trying to figure out how to go about about syncing. I've come up with following two directions: I've got a fairly simple server web-app with a list of items. They are ordered by date modified and as such syncing the order does not matter. One direction I'm considering is to let the client deal with syncing. I've already got an API that lets the client get the data, as well as do certain actions on it, such as update, add or remove single items. I was considering: 1) on each sync asking the server for all items modified since the last successful sync and updating the local records based on what's returned by the server, and 2) building a persistent queue of create / remove / update requests on the client, and keeping them until confirmation by the server. The risk with this approach is that I'm basically asking each side to send changes to the other side, hoping it works smoothly, but risking a diversion at some point. This would probably be more bandwidth-efficient, though. The other direction I was considering was a more traditional model. I would have a "sync" process in which the client would send its whole list to the server (or a subset since last modified sync), the server would update the data on the server (by fixing conflicts by keeping the last modified item, and keeping deleted items with a deleted = 1 field), and the server would return an updated list of items (since last successful sync) which the client would then replace its data with. Thoughts?

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  • Are there any ASP.NET MVC subscription-based starter kits or examples?

    - by Wayne M
    Basically something that handles the low-level "plumbing" code for a subscription-based service. I see a lot of things dealing with basic membership, but nothing that handles the subscription aspect (recurring billing, automated jobs for setting up billing, notification for billing, etc). This might be the one thing that keeps me from using ASP.NET MVC for my SaaS idea, since it would take a fair amount of development time to write my own; if I go with my other option, Ruby on Rails, I can buy a kit that does all of this for $250. I haven't found anything even remotely close to this for .NET - all of the SaaS sample apps I've seen are more like StackOverflow et all where you have one site that multiple people log on to, not the web application model where you have subscribers who are billed monthly, each of whom has users and other entities (e.g. Customers, Tasks, etc) for their own site. Is there anything similar for ASP.NET, or some kind of guidelines for writing my own if I have to, so I don't waste too much time? As a startup that means that I'm doing all the coding myself. I've found this, but it seems to only be for billing and didn't seem to have much (any?) documentation on exactly how to set it up.

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  • NSMutableObject from existing custom class

    - by A.S.
    Hello there. I have an existing class that has methods to deserialise from XML in my code. Now I need to create correct CoreData model from that class. It's objects will be created not only from CoreData storage but also by deserializing XML (somehow like instance->title = [[NSString stringWithUTF8String: (const char *)subNode->children->content] retain; ) without saving to CoreData, and sometimes I need to save it. What is the correct steps to modify existing class to do that except of adding CoreData framework and making my class an NSManagedObject instead of NSObject? Class sample: @interface TSTSong : NSManagedObject<NTSerializableObject> { NSString *identifier; NSString *title; float length; NSURL *previewURL; NSString *author; NSURL *coverURL; NSString *appStoreId; BOOL isPurchased; NSURL *bannerURL; NSDecimalNumber *priceValue; NSLocale *priceLocale; } P.S. I'm noob, so I'f I'm doing smth. wrong - please let me know. Sorry for my english.

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  • Rails user authorization

    - by Zachary
    I am currently building a Rails app, and trying to figure out the best way to authenticate that a user owns whatever data object they are trying to edit. I already have an authentication system in place (restful-authentication), and I'm using a simple before_filter to make sure a user is logged in before they can reach certain areas of the website. However, I'm not sure the best way to handle a user trying to edit a specific piece of data - for example lets say users on my site can own Books, and they can edit the properties of the book (title, author, pages, etc), but they should only be able to do this for Books that -they- own. In my 'edit' method on the books controller I would have a find that only retrieved books owned by the current_user. However, if another user knew the id of the book, they could type in http://website.com/book/7/edit , and the controller would verify that they are logged in, then show the edit page for that book (seems to bypass the controller). What is the best way to handle this? Is it more of a Rails convention routing issue that I don't understand (being able to go straight to the edit page), or should I be adding in a before_find, before_save, before_update, etc callbacks to my model?

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  • Bringing ideas to life

    - by danixd
    I understand that this forum is filled with computer science genius's but there must come a point where your expertise in coding can not keep up with your creativity. I am a front end programmer and designer of sorts. I have so many ideas, with no ways of implementing them. I know of platforms that can help, I am really into the arduino project for physical ideas and I know Flash is an amazing platform for software, but when it comes to complex ideas, even such as a 3D game, things can be too much to handle individually. When you have an idea, what is your typical methodology of bring them to life? Write down the idea, save if for later (never gets made right...) Try building it yourself, on the platforms you work with and are good at Consult people on what platform it is best suited to and collaborate with an expert in that field to do the dirty work Consult people on what platform it is best suited to and try to learn it and make it yourself (at least the alpha stages) Are there any communities that support this idea of bringing things to life? Can you pitch ideas to x company as a business model and hope they take you on / sponsor you? Do you have to spend lots of $$$ to get things made?

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  • Pinax TemplateSyntaxError

    - by Spikie
    hi, i ran into this errors while trying to modify pinax database model i am using eclipse pydev i have this error on the pydev Exception Type: TemplateSyntaxError at / Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: (1146, "Table 'test1.announcements_announcement' doesn't exist") please how do i correct this UPDATE: i asked this question and left unresolved some months back and you what ran into the bug again this week and typed the error message in google hit the page with the question and unanswered so i think i have to answer it and hope it help someone in the future have the same problem. some the problem is that the sqlite path is out of place so django or this case pinax can not find it so to resolve that change the absolute path to sqlite like it DATABASE_ENGINE = 'sqlite3' # 'postgresql_psycopg2', 'postgresql', 'mysql', 'sqlite3' or 'ado_mssql'. DATABASE_NAME = os.path.join(PROJECT_ROOT,'dev.db' ) # Or path to database file if using sqlite3. DATABASE_USER = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PASSWORD = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_HOST = '' # Set to empty string for localhost. Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PORT = '' # Set to empty string for default. Not used with sqlite3. i hope that help

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  • Sending multi-part email from Google App Engine using Spring's JavaMailSender fails

    - by hleinone
    It works without the multi-part (modified from the example in Spring documentation): final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage); message.setTo(toAddress); message.setFrom(fromAddress); message.setSubject(subject); final String htmlText = FreeMarkerTemplateUtils .processTemplateIntoString(configuration .getTemplate(htmlTemplate), model); message.setText(htmlText, true); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); But once I change it to: final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage, true); ... message.setText(plainText, htmlText); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); I get: Failed message 1: javax.mail.MessagingException: Converting attachment data failed at com.google.appengine.api.mail.stdimpl.GMTransport.sendMessage(GMTransport.java:231) at org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl.doSend(JavaMailSenderImpl.java:402) ... This is especially difficult since the GMTransport is proprietary Google class and no sources are available, which would make it a bit easier to debug. Anyone have any ideas what to try next? My bean config, for helping you to help me: <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" p:username="${mail.username}" p:password="${mail.password}" p:protocol="gm" />

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • How to render a DateTime in a specific format in ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Slauma
    If I have in my model class a property of type DateTime how can I render it in a specific format - for example in the format which ToLongDateString() returns? I have tried this... @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString()) ...which throws an exception because the expression must point to a property or field. And this... @{var val = item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString(); Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => val); } ...which doesn't throw an exception, but the rendered output is empty (although val contains the expected value, as I could see in the debugger). Thanks for tips in advance! Edit ToLongDateString is only an example. What I actually want to use instead of ToLongDateString is a custom extension method of DateTime and DateTime?: public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime dateTime) { if (dateTime.TimeOfDay == TimeSpan.Zero) return dateTime.ToString("d"); else return dateTime.ToString("g"); } public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return dateTime.Value.FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(); else return ""; } So, I think I cannot use the DisplayFormat attribute and DataFormatString parameter on the ViewModel properties.

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  • NHibernate: Mapping multiple classes from a single table row

    - by Michael Kurtz
    I couldn't find an answer to this specific question. I am trying to keep my domain model object-oriented and re-use objects where possible. I am having an issue determining how to provide a mapping to multiple classes from a single row. Let me explain with an example: I have a single table, call it Customer. A customer has several attributes; but, for brevity, assume it has Id, Name, Address, City, State, ZipCode. I would like to create a Customer and Address class that look like this: public class Customer { public virtual long Id {get;set;} public virtual string Name {get;set;} public virtual Address Address {get;set;} } public class Address { public virtual string Address {get;set;} public virtual string City {get;set;} public virtual string State {get;set;} public virtual string ZipCode {get;set;} } What I am having trouble with is determining what the mapping would be for the Address class within the Customer class. There is no Address table and there isn't a "set" of addresses associated with a Customer. I just want a more object-oriented view of the Customer table in code. There are several other tables that have address information in them and it would be nice to have a reusable Address class to deal with them. Addresses are not shared so breaking all addresses into a separate table with foreign keys seems to be overkill and, actually, more painful since I would need foreign keys to multiple tables. Can someone enlighten me on this type of mapping? Please provide an example if you can. Thanks for any insights! -Mike

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  • Eclipselink update existing tables

    - by javydreamercsw
    Maybe I got it wrong but i though that JPA was able to update an existing table (model changed adding a column) but is not working in my case. I can see in the logs eclipselink attempting to create it but failing because it already exists. Instead of trying an update to add the column it keeps going. (Had to remove some < so it displays) property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/jwrestling"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.password" value="password"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"/ property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.user" value="user"/ property name="eclipselink.ddl-generation" value="create-tables"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.logger" value="org.eclipse.persistence.logging.DefaultSessionLog"/ property name="eclipselink.logging.level" value="INFO"/ And here's the table with the change (online column added) [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.044--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException Internal Exception: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.MySQLSyntaxErrorException: Table 'account' already exists Error Code: 1050 Call: CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID)) Query: DataModifyQuery(sql="CREATE TABLE account (ID INTEGER NOT NULL, USERNAME VARCHAR(32) NOT NULL, SECURITY_KEY VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, EMAIL VARCHAR(64) NOT NULL, STATUS VARCHAR(8) NOT NULL, TIMEDATE DATETIME NOT NULL, PASSWORD VARCHAR(255) NOT NULL, ONLINE TINYINT(1) default 0 NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ID))") [EL Warning]: 2010-05-31 14:39:06.074--ServerSession(16053322)--Exception [EclipseLink-4002] (Eclipse Persistence Services - 2.1.0.v20100517-r7246): org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.DatabaseException After this it continues with the following. Am I doing something wrong or is a bug?

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  • Importing fixtures with foreign keys and SQLAlchemy?

    - by Chris Reid
    I've been experimenting with using fixture to load test data sets into my Pylons / PostgreSQL app. This works great except that it fails to properly create foreign keys if they reference an auto increment id field. My fixture looks like this: class AuthorsData(DataSet): class frank_herbert: first_name = "Frank" last_name = "Herbert" class BooksData(DataSet): class dune: title = "Dune" author_id = AuthorsData.frank_herbert.ref('id') And the model: t_authors = sa.Table("authors", meta.metadata, sa.Column("id", sa.types.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column("first_name", sa.types.String(100)), sa.Column("last_name", sa.types.String(100)), ) t_books = sa.Table("books", meta.metadata, sa.Column("id", sa.types.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column("title", sa.types.String(100)), sa.Column("author_id", sa.types.Integer, sa.ForeignKey('authors.id')) ) When running "paster setup-app development.ini", SQLAlchemey reports the FK value as "None" so it's obviously not finding it: 15:59:48,683 INFO [sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...9eb0] INSERT INTO books (title, author_id) VALUES (%(title)s, %(author_id)s) RETURNING books.id 15:59:48,683 INFO [sqlalchemy.engine.base.Engine.0x...9eb0] {'author_id': None, 'title': 'Dune'} The fixture docs actually warn that this might be a problem: "However, in some cases you may need to reference an attribute that does not have a value until it is loaded, like a serial ID column. (Note that this is not supported by the SQLAlchemy data layer when using sessions.)" http://farmdev.com/projects/fixture/using-dataset.html#referencing-foreign-dataset-classes Does this mean that this is just not supported with SQLAlchemy? Or is it possible to load the data without using SA "sessions"? How are other people handling this issue?

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  • How can I save an entire list of items true or false?

    - by JZ
    I'm following Ryan Bates, Railscast episode 52 and I've translated relevant parts of the code to work with Rails 3.0.0.beta2. In Ryan's case, he simply marks items incomplete and saves a timestamp. If an Item contains a timestamp the model returns the item in the completed list. I'm attempting to save ALL values true or false, depending on whether the check_box_tag is selected or not (using boolean). I am able to save ONLY selected items, true or false. How can I save an entire list of items true or false, depending on whether the checkbox is selected? The following is my attempt: controller logic: def yardsign Add.update_all(["yardsign=?", true], :id => params[:yard_ids]) redirect_to adds_path end html.erb: <%= form_tag yardsign_adds_path, :method => :put do %> <% @adds.each do |add| %> <td><%= check_box_tag "yard_ids[]", add.id %></td> <% end %> <% end %> routes.rb resources :adds do collection do put :yardsign end end Terminal Started POST "/adds/yardsign" for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-15 19:22:49 Processing by AddsController#yardsign as HTML Parameters: {"commit"=>"Update", "yardsigntakers"=>["1", "2"], "authenticity_token"=>"3arhsxg/Ky+0W7RNM2T3QditMTJmOnLR5CqmMYWN4Qw="} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT "users".* FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."id" = 1) LIMIT 1 SQL (1.8ms) UPDATE "adds" SET yardsign='t' WHERE ("adds"."id" IN (1, 2)) Redirected to http://localhost:3000/adds

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  • MVVM Light - master / child views and dependency properties

    - by Carl Dickinson
    I'm getting an odd problem when implementing a master / child view and custom dependency properties. Within my master view I'm binding the view model declaratively in the XAML as follows: DataContext="{Binding MainViewModelProperty, Source={StaticResource Locator}}" and my MainViewModel is exposing an observable collection which I'm binding to an ItemsControl as follows: <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Lists}" Height="490" Canvas.Top="10" Width="70"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Canvas> <local:TaskListControl Canvas.Left="{Binding ListLeft}" Canvas.Top="{Binding ListTop}" Width="{Binding ListWidth}" Height="{Binding ListHeight}" ListDetails="{Binding}"/> </Canvas> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> TaskListControl in turn declares and bind to it's ViewModel and I've also defined a dependency property for the ListDetails property. The ListDetails property is not being set and if I remove the declarative reference to it's viewmodel the dependency property's callback does get fired. Is there a conflict with declaratively binding to viewmodels and definig dependency properties? I really like MVVM Light's blendability and want to perserve with this problem so any help would be apprectiated. If you'd like to receive the source for my project then please ask

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  • Unittesting aspect-oriented features.

    - by Tomas Brambora
    Hi, I'd like to know what would you propose as the best way to unit test aspect-oriented application features (well, perhaps that's not the best name, but it's the best I was able to come up with :-) ) such as logging or security? These things are sort of omni-present in the application, so how to test them properly? E.g. say that I'm writing a Cherrypy web server in Python. I can use a decorator to check whether the logged-in user has the permission to access a given page. But then I'd need to write a test for every page to see whether it works oK (or more like to see that I had not forgotten to check security perms for that page). This could maybe (emphasis on maybe) be bearable if logging and/or security were implemented during the web server "normal business implementation". However, security and logging usually tend to be added to the app as an afterthough (or maybe that's just my experience, I'm usually given a server and then asked to implement security model :-) ). Any thoughts on this are very welcome. I have currently 'solved' this issue by, well - not testing this at all. Thanks.

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  • Jquery datatable Hidden column showing after calling another script .how can i hide the column specified permanently?

    - by Sreenath Plakkat
    My table is <table id="EmployeesTable" style="width: 100%;" class="grid-table06 border-one"> <thead> <tr> <th width="80%" align="left" valign="middle">Name</th> <th width="20%" align="left" valign="middle">Department</th> <th>Id</th> </tr> </thead> </table> My script as follows $(function () { $(".switchDate").click(function () { var id = $(this).attr("rel"); fetchEmployeedetails(id); }); fetchEmployeedetails(@model.Id); //on load function fetchEmployeedetails(id) { $("#EmployeesTable").dataTable({ "bProcessing": true, "bServerSide": true, "sAjaxSource": "/Employees/FetchDetails?Deptid=" + id + "&thresholdLow=4&threshold=100", "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "bDestroy": true, "aaSorting": [[1, 'desc']], "asStripClasses": ['color01', 'color03'], "aoColumnDefs": [{ "aTargets": [2], "bVisible": false }, { "aTargets": [1], "fnRender": function (oObj) { return "<a href='#showemployees' rel='" + oObj.aData[2] + "'></a>"; } }] }); } }); On load it works fine not showing the hidden "Id" column but in case when I choose the id by switchDate on click function it causes the hidden column to be visible for second. How can I hide the column permanently?

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  • alternative to JQuery form.submit() to do ajax post

    - by BluntTool
    Hello, I have a mvc2 application with a view like this <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("UserApprove", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "statusLights", OnSuccess = "HideButtons" }, new { id = "UserApprove" })) {%> <input type="button" value="Approve" onclick="$('#dialogApprove').dialog('open')" /> <div id="dialogApprove" title="Confirm"> <p> Are you sure you want to approve this request? </p> </div> <% } %> FYI, the controller returns a partial view back. I used to not have the jquery dialog and just simple a <input type="Submit" value="Approve" /> that used to work fine I added the jquery dialog and I have something like this to initialize the dialog. $("#dialogApprove").dialog({ autoOpen: false, draggable: true, resizable: false, buttons: { "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog("close") }, "Approve": function() { $("#UserApprove").submit(); $(this).dialog("close"); } } }); The $("#UserApprove").submit(); does not seem to be doing an ajax post. It comes back with just the text from the partial view returned in a new page. I dont want to use the jquery form plugin which has .ajaxSubmit(). Is there any other way to force an ajax post from the jquery dialog "approve" button?

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  • NHibernate update using composite key

    - by Mahesh
    Hi, I have a table defnition as given below: License ClientId Type Total Used ClientId and Type together uniquely identifies a row. I have a mapping file as given below: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" auto-import="true"> <class name="Acumen.AAM.Domain.Model.License, Acumen.AAM.Domain" lazy="false" table="License"> <id name="ClientId" access="field" column="ClientID" /> <property name="Total" access="field" column="Total"/> <property name="Used" access="field" column="Used"/> <property name="Type" access="field" column="Type"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> If a client used a license to create a user, I need to update the Used column in the table. As I set ClientId as the id column for this table, I am getting TooManyRowsAffectedException. could you please let me know how to set a composite key at mapping level so that NHibernate can udpate based on ClientId and Type. Something like: Update License SET Used=Used-1 WHERE ClientId='xxx' AND Type=1 Please help. Thanks, Mahesh

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  • UITableView, having problems changing accessory when selected

    - by zpasternack
    I'm using a UITableView to allow selection of one (of many) items. Similar to the UI when selecting a ringtone, I want the selected item to be checked, and the others not. I would like to have the cell selected when touched, then animated back to the normal color (again, like the ringtone selection UI). A UIViewController subclass is my table's delegate and datasource (not UITableViewController, because I also have a toolbar in there). I'm setting the accessoryType of the cells in cellForRowAtIndexPath:, and updating my model when cells are selected in didSelectRowAtIndexPath:. The only way I can think of to set the selected cell to checkmark (and clear the previous one) is to call [tableView reloadData] in didSelectRowAtIndexPath:. However, when I do this, the animating of the cell deselection is weird (a white box appears where the cell's label should be). If I don't call reloadData, of course, the accessoryType won't change, so the checkmarks won't appear. I suppose I could turn the animation off, but that seems lame. I also toyed with getting and altering the cells in didSelectRowAtIndexPath:, but that's a big pain. Any ideas? Abbreviated code follows... - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { UITableViewCell* aCell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:kImageCell]; if( aCell == nil ) { aCell = [[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:kImageCell]; } aCell.text = [imageNames objectAtIndex:[indexPath row]]; if( [indexPath row] == selectedImage ) { aCell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryCheckmark; } else { aCell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryNone; } return aCell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:YES]; selectedImage = [indexPath row] [tableView reloadData]; }

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