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  • What are some methods to prevent double posting in a form? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit. METHODS: someone suggested using sessions. I would set the random token to $_SESSION['_token'] and check if that session token is equal to the $_POST['_token'], but how do I do that? When I tried, it still doesn't check

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  • Security header is not valid - using curl php

    - by toni
    Hi all, Im implementing the Express Checkout, Paypal API using PHP. I have no problem with the first step:SetExpressCheckout. I a have awk=success. But in method GetExpressCheckout I get "Security header is not valid". I try to figure out the problem and i think found out maybe it was the curl not working well.. What i did i copy the whole URL: https://api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp?USER=sanbox_1276609583_biz_api1.gmail.com&PWD=1276609589&SIGNATURE=AYVosblmD7khKkvvb.bNxvFT0OQ2A8GopwByEuC.CfMHt65VaUmvAEy-&VERSION=62.0&token=EC-3YG18670X88588437&METHOD=GetExpressCheckoutDetails and paste it to the browser. This will result to: TOKEN=EC%2d3YG18670X88588437&CHECKOUTSTATUS=PaymentActionNotInitiated&TIMESTAMP=2010%2d06%2d16T07%3a40%3a12Z&CORRELATIONID=e1a1e469bf066&ACK=Success&VERSION=62%2e0&BUILD=1356926... But when that url executed in the function I made it will not work. Below is my function: function mycurl($url,$querystr){ $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $querystr); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER,1); $response = curl_exec($ch); curl_close ($ch); return $response; } I hope somebody can help on this. thanks so much. Note: - I Used the sandbox for this. I created a sandbox account, I have a Business account to represent a merchant, and a Personal account to represent a buyer. And I used this: endpoint url: api-3t.sandbox.paypal.com/nvp sandbox url: www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr This should not be the issue.

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  • Strategies for when to use properties and when to use internal variables on internal classes?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    In almost all of my classes, I have a mixture of properties and internal class variables. I have always chosen one or the other by the rule "property if you need it externally, class variable if not". But there are many other issues which make me rethink this often, e.g.: at some point I want to use an internal variable from outside the class, so I have to refactor it into a property which makes me wonder why I don't just make all my internal variables properties in case I have to access them externally anyway, since most classes are internal classes anyway it aren't exposed on an API so it doesn't really matter if the internal variables are accessible from outside the class or not but then since C# doesn't allow you to instantiate e.g. List<string> property in the definition, then these properties have to be initialized in every possible constructor, so these variables I would rather have internal variables just to keep things cleaner in that they are all initialized in one place C# code reads more cleanly if constructor/method parameters are camel case and you assign them to pascal case properties instead of the ambiguity of seeing "templateIdCode" and having to look around to see if it is a local variable, method parameter or internal class variable, e.g. it is easier when you see "TemplateIdCode = templateIdCode" that this is a parameter being assigned to a class property. This would be an argument for always using only properties on internal classes. e.g.: public class TextFile { private string templateIdCode; private string absoluteTemplatePathAndFileName; private string absoluteOutputDirectory; private List<string> listItems = new List<string>(); public string Content { get; set; } public List<string> ReportItems { get; set; } public TextFile(string templateIdCode) { this.templateIdCode = templateIdCode; ReportItems = new List<string>(); Initialize(); } ... When creating internal (non-API) classes, what are your strategies in deciding if you should create an internal class variable or a property?

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  • Why Enumerable.Range is faster than a direct yield loop?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    Below code is checking performance of three different ways to do same solution. public static void Main(string[] args) { // for loop { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); int accumulator = 0; for (int i = 1; i <= 100000000; ++i) { accumulator += i; } sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, accumulator); } //Enumerable.Range { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = Enumerable.Range(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } //self-made IEnumerable<int> { Stopwatch sw = Stopwatch.StartNew(); var ret = GetIntRange(1, 100000000).Aggregate(0, (accumulator, n) => accumulator + n); sw.Stop(); Console.WriteLine("time = {0}; result = {1}", sw.ElapsedMilliseconds, ret); } } private static IEnumerable<int> GetIntRange(int start, int count) { int end = start + count; for (int i = start; i < end; ++i) { yield return i; } } } The result is like this: time = 306; result = 987459712 time = 1301; result = 987459712 time = 2860; result = 987459712 It is not surprising that "for loop" is faster than the other two solutions, because Enumerable.Aggregate takes more method invocations. However, it really surprises that "Enumerable.Range" is faster than the "self-made IEnumerable". I thought that Enumerable.Range will take more overhead than the simple GetIntRange method. What is the possible reason for this?

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • ASP.NET AJAX weirdness

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Ok, I thought I understood these topics well, but I guess not, so hopefully someone here can clear this up. Page.IsAsync seems to be broken. It always returns false. But ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack seems to work, sort of. It returns true during the round trip for controls inside UpdatePanels. This is good; I can tell if it's a partial postback or a regular one. ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack returns false however for async Page Methods. Why is this? It's not a regular postback, I'm just calling a public static method on the page. It causes a problem because I also realized that if you have a control with AutoPostBack = false, it won't trigger a postback on it's own, but if it has an event handler on the page, that event handler code WILL run on the next postback, regardless of how the postback occurred, IF the value has changed. i.e. if I tweak a dropdown and then hit a button, that dropdown's handler code will fire. This is ok, except that it will also happen during Page Method calls, and I have no way to know the difference. Any thoughts?

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  • Wildcards vs. generic methods

    - by FredOverflow
    Is there any practical difference between the following approaches to print all elements in a range? public static void printA(Iterable<?> range) { for (Object o : range) { System.out.println(o); } } public static <T> void printB(Iterable<T> range) { for (T x : range) { System.out.println(x); } } Apparently, printB involves an additional checked cast to Object (see line 16), which seems rather stupid to me -- isn't everything an Object anyway? public static void printA(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 24 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: astore_1 17: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 20: aload_1 21: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 24: aload_2 25: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 30: ifne 10 33: return public static void printB(java.lang.Iterable); Code: 0: aload_0 1: invokeinterface #18, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/lang/Iterable.iterator:()Ljava/util/Iterator; 6: astore_2 7: goto 27 10: aload_2 11: invokeinterface #24, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.next:()Ljava/lang/Object; 16: checkcast #3; //class java/lang/Object 19: astore_1 20: getstatic #30; //Field java/lang/System.out:Ljava/io/PrintStream; 23: aload_1 24: invokevirtual #36; //Method java/io/PrintStream.println:(Ljava/lang/Object;)V 27: aload_2 28: invokeinterface #42, 1; //InterfaceMethod java/util/Iterator.hasNext:()Z 33: ifne 10 36: return

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  • How to properly load HTML data from third party website using MVC+AJAX?

    - by Dmitry
    I'm building ASP.NET MVC2 website that lets users store and analyze data about goods found on various online trade sites. When user is filling a form to create or edit an item, he should have a button "Import data" that automatically fills some fields based on data from third party website. The question is: what should this button do under the hood? I see at least 2 possible solutions. First. Do the import on client side using AJAX+jQuery load method. I tried it in IE8 and received browser warning popup about insecure script actions. Of course, it is completely unacceptable. Second. Add method ImportData(string URL) to ItemController class. It is called via AJAX, does the import + data processing server-side and returns JSON-d result to client. I tried it and received server exception (503) Server unavailable when loading HTML data into XMLDocument. Also I have a feeling that dealing with not well-formed HTML (missing closing tags, etc.) will be a huge pain. Any ideas how to parse such HTML documents?

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  • CCNet exception during build of vs2010 project

    - by sonee
    We have two build machines. Lately, we've migrated our projects to vs2010 from vs2005. But the problem is that one of the machines occurs error during build. Another machine works well, but just one machine shows error. The differences between the machines are os and computer spec. The machine which is working well is installed windows server 2003 and the other is windows7. the error message is unhandled exception: System.NullReferenceException: Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.InvokeOnUIThread(InvokableBase invokable) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Shell.ThreadHelper.Invoke(Action action)Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VS.Implementation.VSShellServices.InvokeOnUIThread(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.ApartmentMarshaler.Invoke(Action method) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.VisualC.VCProjectEngine.VCConfigBuildJob.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission ar) Microsoft.VisualStudio.Project.Contracts.Implementation.BuildProjectBase.BuildCompletedCallbackManager.BuildCompleted(BuildSubmission buildSubmission) Microsoft.Build.Execution.BuildSubmission.<CheckForCompletion>b__0(Object state) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() Curiously enough, when I run building project in command line on the machine which occurs error, it works well. The machine just shows error when launched by ccnet. I've installed latest version of ccnet to all machines. Is there anybody who faced like this problem?

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  • String Parameter in url

    - by Ivan90
    Hy Guys, I have to pass in a method action a string parameter, because I want to implement a tags' search in my site with asp.net MVC but everytime in action it is passed a null value. I post some code! I try to create a personal route. routes.MapRoute( "TagsRoute", "Tags/PostList/{tag}", new {tag = "" } ); My RouteLink in a viewpage for each tag is: <% foreach (var itemtags in item.tblTagArt) {%> <%= Html.RouteLink(itemtags.Tags.TagName,"TagsRoute", new {tag=itemtags.Tags.TagName})%>, <% } %> My method action is: public ActionResult PostList(string tag) { if (tag == "") { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { var articoli = artdb.GetArticoliByTag(tag); if (articoli == null) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } return View(articoli); } } Problem is value tag that's always null, and so var articoli is always empty! Probably my problem is tag I have to make a route contrainst to my tag parameter. Anybody can help me? N.B I am using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 and not 2.0!

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  • How should rules for Aggregate Roots be enforced?

    - by MylesRip
    While searching the web, I came across a list of rules from Eric Evans' book that should be enforced for aggregates: The root Entity has global identity and is ultimately responsible for checking invariants Root Entities have global identity. Entities inside the boundary have local identity, unique only within the Aggregate. Nothing outside the Aggregate boundary can hold a reference to anything inside, except to the root Entity. The root Entity can hand references to the internal Entities to other objects, but they can only use them transiently (within a single method or block). Only Aggregate Roots can be obtained directly with database queries. Everything else must be done through traversal. Objects within the Aggregate can hold references to other Aggregate roots. A delete operation must remove everything within the Aggregate boundary all at once When a change to any object within the Aggregate boundary is committed, all invariants of the whole Aggregate must be satisfied. This all seems fine in theory, but I don't see how these rules would be enforced in the real world. Take rule 3 for example. Once the root entity has given an exteral object a reference to an internal entity, what's to keep that external object from holding on to the reference beyond the single method or block? (If the enforcement of this is platform-specific, I would be interested in knowing how this would be enforced within a C#/.NET/NHibernate environment.)

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  • problem adding object to hashtable

    - by daemonkid
    I am trying to call a class method dynamically depending on a condition. This is how I am doing it I have three classes implement a single interface interface IReadFile { string DoStuff(); } The three classes A,B,C implement the interface above. I am trying to add them to a hashtable with the code below _HashT.Add("a", new classA()); _HashT.Add("b", new classB()); _HashT.Add("c", new classC()); This compiles fine, but gives a runtime error.{Object reference not set to an instance of an object.} I was planning to return the correct class to the interface type depending on a parameter that matches the key value. say if I send in a. ClassA is returned to the interface type and the method is called. IReadFile Obj = (IReadFile )_HashT["a"].GetType(); obj.DoStuff(); How do I correct the part above where the objects need to be added to the hashtable? Or do I need to use a different approach? All the classes are in the same assembly and namespace. Thanks for your time.

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  • Why is my panel not positioned correctly even after setting the boundaries?

    - by nutellafella
    I'm trying to make a simple GUI with radio buttons and I grouped them into one panel. I wanted it positioned on the leftmost side so I used the setBounds method. Whatever numbers I put on the parameters, the panel won't move. Are panels not affected by the setBounds method? Or is there another way to position my panel. Here's the snippet of my code: JPanel radioPanel = new JPanel(); radioPanel.setLayout(new GridLayout(3,1)); JRadioButton Rbutton1 = new JRadioButton("Credit Card"); JRadioButton Rbutton2 = new JRadioButton("E-Funds"); JRadioButton Rbutton3 = new JRadioButton("Check"); Rbutton3.setSelected(true); ButtonGroup Bgroup = new ButtonGroup(); Bgroup.add(Rbutton1); Bgroup.add(Rbutton2); Bgroup.add(Rbutton3); radioPanel.add(Rbutton1); radioPanel.add(Rbutton2); radioPanel.add(Rbutton3); radioPanel.setBounds(10,50,50,40); //this is where I'm trying to position the panel with the radio buttons paymentPanel.add(radioPanel); contentPane.add(paymentPanel); //contentPane is the frame contentPane.setVisible(true);

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  • Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

    - by Jack
    Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

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  • Animating the drawing of a line

    - by jkigel
    I'm trying to animate the drawing of a line by the following way: .h CAShapeLayer *rootLayer; CAShapeLayer *lineLayer; CGMutablePathRef path; .m path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, nil, self.frame.size.width/2-100, 260); CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, nil, self.frame.size.width/2+100.0, 260); CGPathCloseSubpath(path); self.rootLayer = [CALayer layer]; rootLayer.frame = self.bounds; [self.layer addSublayer:rootLayer]; self.lineLayer = [CAShapeLayer layer]; [lineLayer setPath:path]; [lineLayer setFillColor:[UIColor redColor].CGColor]; [lineLayer setStrokeColor:[UIColor blueColor].CGColor]; [lineLayer setLineWidth:1.5]; [lineLayer setFillRule:kCAFillRuleNonZero]; [rootLayer addSublayer:lineLayer]; [self performSelector:@selector(startTotalLine) withObject:nil afterDelay:1.5]; - (void)startTotalLine { CABasicAnimation *animation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"animatePath"]; [animation setDuration:3.5]; animation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]; [animation setAutoreverses:NO]; [animation setFromValue:(id)path]; [animation setToValue:(id)path]; [lineLayer addAnimation:animation forKey:@"animatePath"]; } The line had drawn before the startTotalLine method is invoked. Also, the startTotalLine method doesn't affect the line. I want it to animate the the line drawing from right to left

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  • Is it possible to recreate User Gestures in iPhone?

    - by MadhavanRP
    I am developing an app and I have encountered a problem that comes down to this scenario: Consider a superview with two buttons(button1,button2) and a text view, all as its subviews. When I click on one button, I display the text view. When I tap on anywhere outside the textview, but in the super view, I need to dismiss the text view. I have added a UITapGestureRecognizer to the super view and it calls a method tap:. In tap:, I get the point of the tap and if it is outside the text view, I dismiss the text view and remove the GestureRecognizer. Now the problem occurs when I tap on button 2. I need to dismiss the text view as well as execute the action for button 2. But it enters tap: and I do not wish to call the button 2's method from there. What I want to know is if it would be possible to emulate the same tap at the same co ordinates after the gesture recognizer is removed? If not what is the way I proceed to solve this issue?

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  • Fast serarch of 2 dimensional array

    - by Tim
    I need a method of quickly searching a large 2 dimensional array. I extract the array from Excel, so 1 dimension represents the rows and the second the columns. I wish to obtain a list of the rows where the columns match certain criteria. I need to know the row number (or index of the array). For example, if I extract a range from excel. I may need to find all rows where column A =”dog” and column B = 7 and column J “a”. I only know which columns and which value to find at run time, so I can’t hard code the column index. I could use a simple loop, but is this efficient ? I need to run it several thousand times, searching for different criteria each time. For r As Integer = 0 To UBound(myArray, 0) - 1 match = True For c = 0 To UBound(myArray, 1) - 1 If not doesValueMeetCriteria(myarray(r,c) then match = False Exit For End If Next If match Then addRowToMatchedRows(r) Next The doesValueMeetCriteria function is a simple function that checks the value of the array element against the query requirement. e.g. Column A = dog etc. Is it more effiecent to create a datatable from the array and use the .select method ? Can I use Linq in some way ? Perhaps some form of dictionary or hashtable ? Or is the simple loop the most effiecent ? Your suggestions are most welcome.

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  • How can my facebook application post message to a wall?

    - by Thomas Dekiere
    i already found out how to post something to a wall with the graph api on behalf of the facebook user. But now i want to post something in the name of my application. Here is how i'm trying to do this: protected void btn_submit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Dictionary<string, string> data = new Dictionary<string, string>(); data.Add("message", "Testing"); // i'll add more data later here (picture, link, ...) data.Add("access_token", FbGraphApi.getAppToken()); FbGraphApi.postOnWall(ConfigSettings.getFbPageId(), data); } FbGraphApi.getAppToken() // ... private static string graphUrl = "https://graph.facebook.com"; //... public static string getAppToken() { MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl + "/" + "oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=" + ConfigSettings.getAppID() + "&client_secret=" + ConfigSettings.getAppSecret(), "GET"); return req.GetResponse().Split('=')[1]; } FbGraphApi.postOnWall() public static void postOnWall(string id, Dictionary<string,string> args) { call(id, "feed", args); } FbGraphApi.call() private static void call(string id, string method, Dictionary<string,string> args ) { string data = ""; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> arg in args) { data += arg.Key + "=" + arg.Value + "&"; } MyWebRequest req = new MyWebRequest(graphUrl +"/" + id + "/" + method, "POST", data.Substring(0, data.Length - 1)); req.GetResponse(); // here i get: "The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden." } Does anyone see where this i going wrong? I'm really stuck on this. Thanks!

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  • Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

    - by eman
    Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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  • Ruby on Rails Truncate text - can I use it for a combination of title and content?

    - by Quhby
    I have <%=link_to topic.title, topic_path(topic) % - <%= truncate(topic.description_without_embed, :length=50, :omission ="...") % But what I really want to do is to truncate both the title and the post to 50 characters. How can this be done? The output should look something like Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. instead of Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. I don't need to use the truncate method, any method would be helpful. Thanks.

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  • iPhone: Calling dealloc on parentViewController causes an exception

    - by arielcamus
    Hi, I'm dealing with viewDidUnload and dealloc methods and I've founded a problem when calling [super dealloc]; in parent view controller. I have a lot of view controllers with custom code which I have putted outside on a parent view controller. So, when defining my view controllers I set a reference to the super class: @interface LoginViewController : AbstractViewController Then, at the dealloc method I call the AbstractViewController dealloc method: //(Login View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [user release]; [passwd release]; [super dealloc]; } [super dealloc] execute the following code: //(Abstract View Controller code) - (void)dealloc { [dbUtils release]; [loadingView release]; [super dealloc]; } If I simulate a memory warning on iPhone Simulator, the following exception is thrown: 2010-03-03 11:27:45.805 MyApp[71563:40b] Received simulated memory warning. 2010-03-03 11:27:45.808 MyApp[71563:40b] *** -[LoginViewController isViewLoaded]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x13b51b0 kill quit However, if I comment the [super dealloc] line in AbstractViewController the exception is not thrown and my app still running. Thank you for your help once again!

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  • Do I really ned bindParam?

    - by sandelius
    Hi there! I'm trying to do a little PDO CRUD to learn some PDO. I have a question about bindParam. Here's my update method right now: public static function update($conditions = array(), $data = array(), $table = '') { self::instance(); // Late static bindings (PHP 5.3) $table = ($table === '') ? self::table() : $table; // Check which data array we want to use $values = (empty($data)) ? self::$_fields : $data; $sql = "UPDATE $table SET "; foreach ($values as $f => $v) { $sql .= "$f = ?, "; } // let's build the conditions self::build_conditions($conditions); // fix our WHERE, AND, OR, LIKE conditions $extra = self::$condition_string; // querystring $sql = rtrim($sql, ', ') . $extra; // let's merge the arrays into on $v_val = array_values($values); $c_val = array_values($conditions); $array = array_merge($v_val, self::$condition_array); $stmt = self::$db->prepare($sql); return $stmt->execute($array); } in my "self::$condition_array" I get all the right values from the ?. SO the query looks like this: UPDATE table SET this = ?, another = ? WHERE title = ? AND time = ? as you can see I dont use bindParams instead I pass the right values in the right order ($array) directly into the execute($array) method. This works like a charm BUT is it safe not use use bindParam here? If not then how can I do it? Thanks from Sweden Tobias

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  • ScriptManager duplicates javascript

    - by Andreas
    Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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  • Using 'or' in Java Generics declaration

    - by Shervin
    I have a method that returns an instance of Map<String, List<Foo>> x(); and another method that returns an instance of Map<String, Collection<Foo>> y(); Now if I want to dynamically add one of this Maps in my field, how can I write the generics for it to work? ie: public class Bar { private Map<String, ? extends Collection<Foo>> myMap; public void initializer() { if(notImportant) myMap = x(); //OK else myMap = y(); // !OK (Need cast to (Map<String, ? extends Collection<Foo>>) } Now is it ok that I cast to the signature even though the y() is declared as being Collection? } } If it is not ok to cast, can I somehow write this (Collection OR List) I mean, List is a Collection, so it should somehow be possible. private Map<String, Collection<Foo> | List<Foo>>> myMap;

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  • How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

    - by tucaz
    Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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