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• LINQ to Entity: using Contains in the "select" portion throws unexpected error

  - by Chu

  I've got a LINQ query going against an Entity Framework object. Here's a summary of the query: //a list of my allies List<int> allianceMembers = new List<int>() { 1,5,10 }; //query for fleets in my area, including any allies (and mark them as such) var fleets = from af in FleetSource select new Fleet { fleetID = af.fleetID, fleetName = af.fleetName, isAllied = (allianceMembers.Contains(af.userID) ? true : false) }; Basically, what I'm doing is getting a set of fleets. The allianceMembers list contains INTs of all users who are allied with me. I want to set isAllied = true if the fleet's owner is part of that list, and false otherwise. When I do this, I am seeing an exception: "LINQ to Entities does not recognize the method 'Boolean Contains(Int32)' method" I can understand getting this error if I had used the contains in the where portion of the query, but why would I get it in the select? By this point I would assume the query would have executed and returned the results. This little ditty of code does nothing to constrain my data at all. Any tips on how else I can accomplish what I need to with setting the isAllied flag? Thanks

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• Flex profiling - what is [enterFrameEvent] doing?

  - by Herms

  I've been tasked with finding (and potentially fixing) some serious performance problems with a Flex application that was delivered to us. The application will consistently take up 50 to 100% of the CPU at times when it is simply idling and shouldn't be doing anything. My first step was to run the profiler that comes with FlexBuilder. I expected to find some method that was taking up most of the time, showing me where the bottleneck was. However, I got something unexpected. The top 4 methods were: [enterFrameEvent] - 84% cumulative, 32% self time [reap] - 20% cumulative and self time [tincan] - 8% cumulative and self time global.isNaN - 4% cumulative and self time All other methods had less than 1% for both cumulative and self time. From what I've found online, the [bracketed methods] are what the profiler lists when it doesn't have an actual Flex method to show. I saw someone claim that [tincan] is the processing of RTMP requests, and I assume [reap] is the garbage collector. Does anyone know what [enterFrameEvent] is actually doing? I assume it's essentially the "main" function for the event loop, so the high cumulative time is expected. But why is the self time so high? What's actually going on? I didn't expect the player internals to be taking up so much time, especially since nothing is actually happening in the app (and there are no UI updates going on). Is there any good way to find dig into what's happening? I know something is going on that shouldn't be (it looks like there must be some kind of busy wait or other runaway loop), but the profiler isn't giving me any results that I was expecting. My next step is going to be to start adding debug trace statements in various places to try and track down what's actually happening, but I feel like there has to be a better way.

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• OptimisticLockException in inner transaction ruins outer transaction

  - by Pace

  I have the following code (OLE = OptimisticLockException)... public void outer() { try { middle() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); outer(); } } @Transactional public void middle() { try { inner() } catch (OLE) { updateEntities(); middle(); } @Transactional public void inner() { //Do DB operation } inner() is called by other non-transactional methods which is why both middle() and inner() are transactional. As you can see, I deal with OLEs by updating the entities and retrying the operation. The problem I'm having is that when I designed things this way I was assuming that the only time one could get an OLE was when a transaction closed. This is apparently not the case as the call to inner() is throwing an OLE even when the stack is outer()->middle()->inner(). Now, middle() is properly handling the OLE and the retry succeeds but when it comes time to close the transaction it has been marked rollbackOnly by Spring. When the middle() method call finally returns the closing aspect throws an exception because it can't commit a transaction marked rollbackOnly. I'm uncertain what to do here. I can't clear the rollbackOnly state. I don't want to force create a transaction on every call to inner because that kills my performance. Am I missing something or can anyone see a way I can structure this differently? EDIT: To clarify what I'm asking, let me explain my main question. Is it possible to catch and handle OLE if you are inside of an @Transactional method? FYI: The transaction manager is a JpaTransactionManager and the JPA provider is Hibernate.

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• Entity Framework 4 + POCO with custom classes and WCF contracts (serialization problem)

  - by eman

  Yesterday I worked on a project where I upgraded to Entity Framework 4 with the Repository pattern. In one post, I have read that it is necessary to turn off the custom tool generator classes and then write classes (same like entites) by hand. That I can do it, I used the POCO Entity Generator and then deleted the new generated files .tt and all subordinate .cs classes. Then I wrote the "entity classes" by myself. I added the repository pattern and implemented it in the business layer and then implemented a WCF layer, which should call the methods from the business layer. By calling an Insert (Add) method from the presentation layer and everything is OK. But if I call any method that should return some class, then I get an error like (the connection was interrupted by the server). I suppose there is a problem with the serialization or am I wrong? How can by this problem solved? I'm using Visual Studio S2010, Entity Framework 4, C#. UPDATE: I have uploaded the project and hope somebody can help me! link text UPDATE 2: My questions: Why is POCO good (pros/cons)? When should POCO be used? Is POCO + the repository pattern a good choice? Should POCO classes by written by myself or could I use auto generated POCO classes?

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• Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

  - by Elroy

  My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

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• Radiobutton in iphone

  - by Harita

  hi, i am using radio button image (empty circle) in button to answer the question from 3 options, and the 3 options are radio button's. i have created 3 uibuttons programmatically in tableview delegate method cellforrowatindexpath. i need when one button is selected(with filled circle image) other one if selected before gets unselected. i am using below code in button clicked method. static int _row; -(IBAction) optionClicked:(id)sender { UIButton *btn = (UIButton)sender; _row = btn.tag; if (btn.tag == 0) { if(btn1On) { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad1 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn1On = TRUE; btn2On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 1) { if(btn2On) { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad2 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn2On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn3On = FALSE; } } else if (btn.tag == 2) { if(btn3On) { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"unfilled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On=FALSE; } else { [btnrad3 setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"filled.png"]forState:UIControlStateNormal]; btn3On = TRUE; btn1On = FALSE; btn2On = FALSE; } } else { NSLog(@"Error"); } } above code is doing selection of button in another row. like i am selecting 1st option in 1st row but its is selecting 2nd row button. i don't know how to use _row to check for every cell of table view.

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• Ruby on Rails Truncate text - can I use it for a combination of title and content?

  - by Quhby

  I have <%=link_to topic.title, topic_path(topic) % - <%= truncate(topic.description_without_embed, :length=50, :omission ="...") % But what I really want to do is to truncate both the title and the post to 50 characters. How can this be done? The output should look something like Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. instead of Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. - Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Curabitur eu dolor est, id pharetra lectus. Phasellus nec feugiat dolor. Curabitur feugiat ultrices leo ut egestas. Nullam nec nisi in ligula feugiat placerat. Ut adipiscing urna consequat tortor euismod pretium. Maecenas eget quam aliquet orci blandit eleifend eu et quam. Donec. I don't need to use the truncate method, any method would be helpful. Thanks.

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• Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

  - by Travelsized

  I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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• User defined literal arguments are not constexpr?

  - by Pubby

  I'm testing out user defined literals. I want to make _fac return the factorial of the number. Having it call a constexpr function works, however it doesn't let me do it with templates as the compiler complains that the arguments are not and cannot be constexpr. I'm confused by this - aren't literals constant expressions? The 5 in 5_fac is always a literal that can be evaluated during compile time, so why can't I use it as such? First method: constexpr int factorial_function(int x) { return (x > 0) ? x * factorial_function(x - 1) : 1; } constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_function(x); // this works } Second method: template <int N> struct factorial { static const unsigned int value = N * factorial<N - 1>::value; }; template <> struct factorial<0> { static const unsigned int value = 1; }; constexpr int operator "" _fac(unsigned long long x) { return factorial_template<x>::value; // doesn't work - x is not a constexpr }

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• How to provide an inline model field with a queryset choices without losing field value for inline r

  - by Judith Boonstra

  The code displayed below is providing the choices I need for the app field, and the choices I need for the attr field when using Admin. I am having a problem with the attr field on the inline form for already saved records. The attr selected for these saved does show in small print above the field, but not within the field itself. # MODELS: Class Vocab(models.Model): entity = models.Charfield, max_length = 40, unique = True) Class App(models.Model): name = models.ForeignKey(Vocab, related_name = 'vocab_appname', unique = True) app = SelfForeignKey('self, verbose_name = 'parent', blank = True, null = True) attr = models.ManyToManyField(Vocab, related_name = 'vocab_appattr', through ='AppAttr' def parqs(self): a method that provides a queryset consisting of available apps from vocab, excluding self and any apps within the current app's dependent line. def attrqs(self): a method that provides a queryset consisting of available attr from vocab excluding those already selected by current app, 2) those already selected by any apps within the current app's parent line, and 3) those selected by any apps within the current app's dependent line. Class AppAttr(models.Model): app = models.ForeignKey(App) attr = models.ForeignKey(Vocab) # FORMS: from models import AppAttr def appattr_form_callback(instance, field, *args, **kwargs) if field.name = 'attr': if instance: return field.formfield(queryset = instance.attrqs(), *kwargs) return field.formfield(*kwargs) # ADMIN: necessary imports class AppAttrInline(admin.TabularInline): model = AppAttr def get_formset(self, request, obj = None, **kwargs): kwargs['formfield_callback'] = curry(appattr_form_callback, obj) return super(AppAttrInline, self).get_formset(request, obj, **kwargs) class AppForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = App def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(AppForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) if self.instance.id is None: working = App.objects.all() else: thisrec = App.objects.get(id = self.instance.id) working = thisrec.parqs() self.fields['par'].queryset = working class AppAdmin(admin.ModelAdmin): form = AppForm inlines = [AppAttrInline,] fieldsets = .......... necessary register statements

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• IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

  - by Tokimon

  Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

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• How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

  - by tucaz

  Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

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• Displaying modal view in Objective-C

  - by kpower

  I'm trying to display Modal View in my app. I have subclass of UIViewController that has only the "Done" button (UIButton created with IB and linked with XCode). .h @interface myModalVC : UIViewController { UIButton *bDone; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIButton *bDone; - (IBAction)bDoneTouchDown:(id)sender; @end .m #import "myModalVC.h" @implementation myModalVC @synthesize bDone; - (void)dealloc { [bDone release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; } - (void)viewDidUnload { } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return (UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft == interfaceOrientation || UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight == interfaceOrientation); } - (void)didReceiveMemoryWarning { [super didReceiveMemoryWarning]; } - (IBAction)bDoneTouchDown:(id)sender { [self.parentViewController dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } @end I'm trying to display modal view with this code (from my main view): myModalVC *temp = [[[myModalVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"myModalVC" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]] autorelease]; [self presentModalViewController:temp animated:YES]; If this code is placed in some method, that responds to button touches - everything is fine. But when I place it to some other method (called during some processes in my app) - modal view is displayed without problems, but when I press (touch) "Done" button, application crashes with "Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”." What am I doing wrong?

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• ScriptManager duplicates javascript

  - by Andreas

  Hi! I have a usercontrol that can be used in for example a gridview itemtemplate, this means that the control might or might not be on the page at page load. In the case where the control is inside an itemtemplate i will popupate the gridview via asyncronous postbacks (via updatepanels). The control itselfs registrers scriptblocks since it is depending on javascripts. First i used Page.ClientScript.RegistrerClientScriptBlock But this doesn't work on asyncronous postbacks (updatepanels) so i then tried the same using ScriptManager which allows me to registrer scripts on the page after async postbacks. great!. ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock However, ScriptManager (what i know of) does not have the functionallity to see if a script already is on the page, so i will for every postback generate duplicates of the script blocks, this is ofcourse unwanted behaviour. I did a run at Google and found that i can call the Dispose() method of the PageRequestManager can be used, this does work since it clears the scripts and then adding them again (this also solves my issue with removing unused script blocks from removed controls). Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().Dispose() However, ofcourse there is a downside since im posting here :). The Dispose() method disposes the instance on the master page as well which leads to scripts running there will stop to function after an async postback (updateprogress for example). So, is there a way to check if a script already exists on the page using ScriptManager or any other tools, that will prevent me of inserting duplicate scripts? Also, is there a way to remove certain script blocks (when i am removing an item in itemtemplate for example). Big thanks in advance.

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• is it better to test if a function is needed inside or outside of it?

  - by b0x0rz

  what is the best practice? call a function then return if you test for something, or test for something then call? i prefer the test inside of function because it makes an easier viewing of what functions are called. for example: protected void Application_BeginRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.FixURLCosmetics(); } and private void FixURLCosmetics() { HttpContext context = HttpContext.Current; if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; string url = context.Request.RawUrl.ToString(); bool doRedirect = false; // remove > default.aspx if (url.EndsWith("/default.aspx", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { url = url.Substring(0, url.Length - 12); doRedirect = true; } // remove > www if (url.Contains("//www")) { url = url.Replace("//www", "//"); doRedirect = true; } // redirect if necessary if (doRedirect) { context.Response.Redirect(url); } } is this good: if (!context.Request.HttpMethod.ToString().Equals("GET", StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { // if not a GET method cancel url cosmetics return; }; or should that test be done in Application_BeginRequest? what is better? thnx

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• Ways of breaking down SQL transactional/call data into reports -- 'square data'?

  - by RizwanK

  I've got a large database of call-traffic information (although the question could be answered with any generic data set.) For instance, a row contains : call endpoint server (endpoint_name) call endpoint status (sip_disconnect_reason) call destination (destination) call completed (duration) [duration 0 is completed] call account group (account_group) It's pretty easy to run SQL reports against the data, i.e. select count(*), endpoint_name from calls where duration0 group by endpoint_name select count(*),destination from calls where blah group by destination I've been calling this filtering or breakdown reports (I get the number of calls per carrier, etc.). Add another breakdown, and you've got two breakdowns, a la select count(*), endpoint_name, sip_disconnect_reason from calls where duration=0 group by endpoint_name, sip_disconnect_reason Of course, if you keep adding breakdowns, you end up making super-large reports and slicing your data so thin that you can't extract any trends from it. So my question is this : Is there a name for this sort of method of report writing? (I've heard words like squares, slicing and breakdown reports applied to them) --- I'm looking for a Python/Reporting toolkit that I can use to make these easier to generate for my end users. aside : Are there other ways of representing transactional data that might be useful rather than the above method? Thanks,

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• how to retreive the row value on click

  - by kumar

  var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( var s = $("#Grid").jqGrid('getGridParam', 'selarrrow').toString(); alert(s); $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + s)); }; on RowClick i am trying to get the value of that row to send throw URL.. to access this Row value in my Actionresult method. but I am getting null value for the row? is this right what I am doing here? Thanks When I am doing somethign like this.. var value; $("#Grid").click(function(e) { var row = jQuery(e.target).parent(); value= row.attr("id"); }); var RowClick = function() { ("#Grid").click( $("#showgrid").load('/Inventory/Products/List/' + value)); }; on alert I am getting the row value perfectly but in my action result method Its showing me null value? Public Actionresult List(string value) { return View(); } can anybody help me out.. thanks

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• What is the difference between calling Stream.Write and using a StreamWriter?

  - by John Nelson

  What is the difference between instantiating a Stream object, such as MemoryStream and calling the memoryStream.Write() method to write to the stream, and instantiating a StreamWriter object with the stream and calling streamWriter.Write()? Consider the following scenario: You have a method that takes a Stream, writes a value, and returns it. The stream is read from later on, so the position must be reset. There are two possible ways of doing it (both seem to work). // Instantiate a MemoryStream somewhere // - Passed to the following two methods MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); // Not using a StreamWriter private static Stream WriteToStream(Stream stream, string value) { stream.Write(Encoding.Default.GetBytes(value), 0, value.Length); stream.Flush(); stream.Position = 0; return stream; } // Using a StreamWriter private static Stream WriteToStreamWithWriter(Stream stream, string value) { StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(stream); sw.Write(value, 0, value.Length); sw.Flush(); stream.Position = 0; return stream; } This is partially a scope problem, as I don't want to close the stream after writing to it since it will be read from later. I also certainly don't want to dispose it either, because that will close my stream. The difference seems to be that not using a StreamWriter introduces a direct dependency on Encoding.Default, but I'm not sure that's a very big deal. What's the difference, if any?

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• Why is my jQuery event not being triggered when the button is clicked?

  - by Ankur

  I am trying to call the .ajax() method when a button with id=go is clicked. This button is displayed when another jQuery event is triggered, namely that a button with a class called predicate is clicked. The button with id=go is displayed without any problems but on clicking it, there is no call to the alert() or getResults() method which are supposed to occur. Howver if I hard code the button with id=go into the page and don't have it generated by jQuery then the thing works fine. Why does the generated code cause a problem. $(document).ready( function() { $(".predicate").click( function() { makeQuery(this.id); //alert(this.id); }); $(".object").click( function() { //alert(this.id); }); var variables = 0; var queryString = ""; var noOfResults; var formValues=""; var goBegin = ""; var goEnd = "<br/><input name='go' id='go' type='button' value='go'/>"; function makeQuery(value) { queryString = queryString + "val" + variables + "=" + value + "&"; formValues=formValues+"<input type='hidden' name='val"+variables+"' value='"+value+"' />"; variables = variables + 1; $("#resultCount").html(goBegin+formValues+queryString+goEnd); } function getResults(){ $.ajax( { type : "GET", url : "ObjectCount", data : queryString + "count=" + variables, success : function(results) { noOfResults = results; $("#resultCount").html(results - 1 + " results"); } }); } $("#go").click( function() { alert("We have been alerted"); getResults(); }); });

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• How to handle 'this' pointer in constructor?

  - by Kyle

  I have objects which create other child objects within their constructors, passing 'this' so the child can save a pointer back to its parent. I use boost::shared_ptr extensively in my programming as a safer alternative to std::auto_ptr or raw pointers. So the child would have code such as shared_ptr<Parent>, and boost provides the shared_from_this() method which the parent can give to the child. My problem is that shared_from_this() cannot be used in a constructor, which isn't really a crime because 'this' should not be used in a constructor anyways unless you know what you're doing and don't mind the limitations. Google's C++ Style Guide states that constructors should merely set member variables to their initial values. Any complex initialization should go in an explicit Init() method. This solves the 'this-in-constructor' problem as well as a few others as well. What bothers me is that people using your code now must remember to call Init() every time they construct one of your objects. The only way I can think of to enforce this is by having an assertion that Init() has already been called at the top of every member function, but this is tedious to write and cumbersome to execute. Are there any idioms out there that solve this problem at any step along the way?

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• new Stateful session bean instance without calling lookup

  - by kislo_metal

  Scenario: I have @Singleton UserFactory (@Stateless could be) , its method createSession() generating @Stateful UserSession bean by manual lookup. If I am injecting by DI @EJB - i will get same instance during calling fromFactory() method(as it should be) What I want - is to get new instance of UserSession without preforming lookup. Q1: how could I call new instance of @Stateful session bean? Code: @Singleton @Startup @LocalBean public class UserFactory { @EJB private UserSession session; public UserFactory() { } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void creatingInstances(){ try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); UserSession session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void fromFactory(){ System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session.getSessionUUID()); } public UserSession creatSession(){ UserSession session2 = null; try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return session2; } } As I understand, calling of session.getClass().newInstance(); is not a best idea Q2 : is it true? I am using glassfish v3, ejb 3.1.

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• Thread loses Message after wait() and notify()

  - by fugu2.0

  Hey Guys! I have a problem handling messages in a Thread. My run-method looks like this public void run() { Looper.prepareLooper(); parserHandler = new Handler { public void handleMessage(Message msg) { Log.i("","id from message: "+msg.getData.getString("id")); // handle message this.wait(); } } } I have several Activities sending messages to this thread, like this: Message parserMessage = new Message(); Bundle data = new Bundle(); data.putString("id", realId); data.putString("callingClass", "CategoryList"); parserMessage.setData(data); parserMessage.what = PARSE_CATEGORIES_OR_PRODUCTS; parserHandler = parser.getParserHandler(); synchronized (parserHandler) { parserHandler.notify(); Log.i("","message ID: " + parserMessage.getData().getString("id")); } parserHandler.sendMessage(parserMessage); The problem is that the run-method logs "id from message: null" though "message ID" has a value in the Log-statement. Why does the message "lose" it's data when being send to the thread? Has it something to do with the notify? Thanks for your help

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• how to set style through javascript in IE immediately

  - by rezna

  Hi, recently I've encountered a problem with IE. I have a function function() { ShowProgress(); DoSomeWork(); HideProgress(); } where ShowProgress and HideProgress just manipulate the 'display' CSS style using jQuery's css() method. In FF everything is OK, and at the same time I change the display property to block, progress-bar appears. But not in IE. In IE the style is applied, once I leave the function. Which means it's never shown, because at the end of the function I simply hide it. (if I remove the HideProgress line, the progress-bar appears right after finishing executing the function (more precisely, immediately when the calling functions ends - and so there's nothing else going on in IE)). Has anybody encountered this behavior? Is there a way to get IE to apply the style immediately? I've prepared a solution but it would take me some time to implement it. My DoSomeWork() method is doing some AJAX calls, and these are right now synchronous. I assume that making them asynchronous will kind of solve the problem, but I have to redesign the code a bit, so finding a solution just for applying the style immediately would much simplier. Thanks rezna

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• java: "downcasting" to new object / opposite of slicing

  - by rhavin

  Sorry, i really dont know how to make a headline for that question; maybe there is a name for what im trying to do that i dont know, but i can explain it with some code: Guess you have a class that unfortunately neither has a copy-constructor nor a public static copy method. class A { private int i; // <- private, cant access String x; // <- even worse: cant access unless in same pkg! /* … other stuff, ctor, etc. … */ public A clone() { A a = new A(); a.i = i; a.x = x; return x; } } Guess further, there is some function that returns an object of that class: public static A someFn(x,y,z); Now the problem: I want to derive from that class to add some functionality. Unfortunately, i neither have a sizeof in java nor a cc or static copy method. So when i do a class B extends A { protected w; public B clone() { /* as usual */ } } then i can clone my B and get a new one, but how can i convert the returned A from someFn() into a B. Is there anyway to do the opposite of slicing in java? if i clone it, it's still an A, and i cant copy it field by field. This is all simple in c++, but how to do this in Java?

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• Ajax request gets to server but page doesn't update - Rails, jQuery

  - by Jesse

  So I have a scenario where my jQuery ajax request is hitting the server, but the page won't update. I'm stumped... Here's the ajax request: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: '/jsrender', data: "id=" + $.fragment().nav.replace("_link", "") }); Watching the rails logs, I get the following: Processing ProductsController#jsrender (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-03-17 23:07:35) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"jsrender", "id"=>"products", "controller"=>"products"} ... Rendering products/jsrender.rjs Completed in 651ms (View: 608, DB: 17) | 200 OK [http://localhost/jsrender?id=products] So, it seems apparent to me that the ajax request is getting to the server. The code in the jsrender method is being executed, but the code in the jsrender.rjs doesn't fire. Here's the method, jsrender: def jsrender @currentview = "shared/#{params[:id]}" respond_to do |format| format.js {render :template => 'products/jsrender.rjs'} end end For the sake of argument, the code in jsrender.rjs is: page<<"alert('this works!');" Why is this? I see in the params that there is no authenticity_token, but I have tried passing an authenticity_token as well with the same result. Thanks in advance.

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