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  • Object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by MBTHQ
    Can anyone help with the following code? I'm trying to get data from the database colum to the datagridview... I'm getting error over here "Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'"" Private Sub DataGridView_stockout_CellMouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellMouseEventArgs) Handles DataGridView_stockout.CellMouseClick Dim i As Integer = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows.Count > 0 Dim thiscur_stok As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=MBTHQ\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=stock_check;Integrated Security=True") ' Sql Query Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'" ' Create Data Adapter Dim da_1 As New SqlDataAdapter(sql_1, thiscur_stok) ' Fill Dataset and Get Data Table da_1.Fill(Stock_checkDataSet1, "item") Dim dt_1 As DataTable = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables("item") If i >= DataGridView_stockout.Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, DataGridView_stockout doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If 1 >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1 doesn't any table at index 1") Exit Sub End If If i >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If Not Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Columns.Contains("os") Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any column named 'os'") Exit Sub End If 'DataGridView_stockout.Item("cs_stockout", i).Value = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i).Item("os") Dim ab As String = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i)(0).ToString() End Sub I keep on getting the error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" I dont know where I'm going wrong. Help really appreciated!!

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  • apache web server configuration problem

    - by mohit
    i want to have apache server to serve only /var/www/ directory now it serves all my files on system from directory "/" i tried to edit httpd.conf placed in /etc/apache2 and placed the folllowing content in it(intially it was empty) <Directory /> Options None AllowOverride None </Directory> DocumentRoot "/var/www" <Directory "/var/www"> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> then saved it,restarted apache server put the location /var/www in the web browser address bar,still it shows the higher level directories too then i edited the file Default,Default-ssl in the sites-available folder repeated the same process still apache serves all files on my system 2.when i try to use the following command gedit httpd.conf I get the error gedit:2696): EggSMClient-WARNING **: Failed to connect to the session manager: None of the authentication protocols specified are supported GConf Error: Failed to contact configuration server; some possible causes are that you need to enable TCP/IP networking for ORBit, or you have stale NFS locks due to a system crash. See http://projects.gnome.org/gconf/ for information. (Details - 1: Failed to get connection to session: Did not receive a reply. Possible causes include: the remote application did not send a reply, the message bus security policy blocked the reply, the reply timeout expired, or the network connection was broken.)

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  • Strange Sql Server 2005 behavior

    - by Justin C
    Background: I have a site built in ASP.NET with Sql Server 2005 as it's database. The site is the only site on a Windows Server 2003 box sitting in my clients server room. The client is a local school district, so for data security reasons there is no remote desktop access and no remote Sql Server connection, so if I have to service the database I have to be at the terminal. I do have FTP access to update ASP code. Problem: I was contacted yesterday about an issue with the system. When I looked in to it, it seems a bug that I had solved nearly a year ago had returned. I have a stored procedure that used to take an int as a parameter but a year ago we changed the structure of the system and updated the stored procedure to take an nvarchar(10). The stored procedure somehow changed back to taking an int instead of an nvarchar. There is an external hard drive connected to the server that copies data periodically and has the ability to restore the server in case of failure. I would have assumed that somehow an older version of the database had been restored, but data that I know was inserted 7 days and 1 day before the bug occurred is still in the database. Question: Is there anyway that the structure of a Sql Server 2005 database can revert to a previous version or be restored to a previous version without touching the actual data? No one else should have access to the server so I'm going a little insane trying to figure out how this even happened. Any ideas?

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  • converting to Fluent NHibernate sessionmanager

    - by czuroski
    Hello, I am changing my application to use Fluent NHibernate. I have created my Fluent mapping files and have now moved onto configuring my Session Manager. Currently, I use the following code - private ISessionFactory GetSessionFactory() { return (new Configuration()).Configure().BuildSessionFactory(); } Along with my hibernate.cfg.xml - <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-configuration xmlns="urn:nhibernate-configuration-2.2" > <session-factory> <property name="connection.provider">NHibernate.Connection.DriverConnectionProvider</property> <property name="dialect">NHibernate.Dialect.InformixDialect1000</property> <property name="connection.driver_class">NHibernate.Driver.OleDbDriver</property> <property name="connection.connection_string">Provider=Ifxoledbc.2;Password=mypass;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=myid;Data Source=mysource</property> <property name="proxyfactory.factory_class">NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle.ProxyFactoryFactory, NHibernate.ByteCode.Castle</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <mapping assembly="DataTransfer" /> </session-factory> </hibernate-configuration> Does anyone know how I could transfer this to Fluent? The problem I have having is with the Database portion of the configuration. Thanks for any thoughts.

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  • Compiling a click-once app that requires administrator?

    - by Assimilater
    Hi, a lot of my programs require the ability to write files to the hard drive. When I first made these programs for XP they worked great. Now I'm less ignorant about UAC (got a new laptop recently). And for future customers...I've noticed the potential for a LOT of annoying error messages....and quite frankly if the program can't write data to the hard drive or thumb drive it's on...there's no point to running it.... I've tried multiple times to build in the manifest a requirement for administrator or user access....I'm not sure if anything less would solve the problem...but have failed because click-once has security features in place to prevent me from doing so. I'd rather not have to tell my customers how to make the program run as an administrator by editing the file's properties...I'd much rather have a convenient pop up like what you'd see new programs such as Itunes or Filezilla show if they were in conflict with UAC requesting the privileges they need. I'd really like to do this but have had little success. Any and all advice that can remedy this grievous problem appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Users Hierarchy Logic

    - by user342944
    Hi guys, I am writing a user security module using SQLServer 2008 so threfore need to design a database accordingly. Formally I had Userinfo table with UserID, Username and ParentID to build a recursion and populated tree to represent hierarchy but now I have following criteria which I need to develop. I have now USERS, ADMINISTRATORS and GROUPS. Each node in the user hierarchy is either a user, administrator or group. User Someone who has login access to my application Administrator A user who may also manage all their child user accounts (and their children etc) This may include creating new users and assigning permissions to those users. There is no limit to the number of administrators in user structure. The higher up in the hierarchy that I go administrators have more child accounts to manage which include other child administrators. Group A user account can be designated as a group. This will be an account which is used to group one or more users together so that they can be manage as a unit. But no one can login to my application using a group account. This is how I want to create structure Super Administrator administrator ------------------------------------------------------------- | | | Manager A Manager B Manager C (adminstrator) (administrator) (administrator) | ----------------------------------------- | | | Employee A Employee B Sales Employees (User) (User) (Group) | ------------------------ | | | Emp C Emp D Emp E (User) (User) (User) Now how to build the table structure to achieve this. Do I need to create Users table alongwith Group table or what? Please guide I would really appreciate.

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  • VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

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  • Examples using Active Directory/LDAP groups for permissions \ roles in Rails App.

    - by Nick Gorbikoff
    Hello. I was wondering how other people implemented this scenario. I have an internal rails app ( inventory management, label printing, shipping,etc). I'm rewriting security on the system, cause the old way got to cumbersome to maintain ( users table, passwords, roles) - I used restful_authentication and roles. It was implemented about 3 years ago. I already implemented AuthLogic with ruby-ldap-net to authenticate users ( actually that was surprisingly easy, compared to how I struggled with other frameworks/languages before). Next step is roles. I already have groups defined in Active Directory - so I don't want to run a separate roles system in my rails app, I just want to reuse Active Directory groups - since that part of the system is already maintained for other purposes ( shared drives, backups, pc access, etc) So I was wondering if others had experience implementing permissions/roles in a rails app based on groups in Active Directory or LDAP. Also the roles requirements are pretty complex. Here is an example: For instance I have users that belong to the supervisors group in AD and to inventory dept, so I was that user to be able to run "advanced" tasks in invetory - adjust qty, run reports, however other "supervisors" from other departmanets, shouldn't be able to do this, also Top Management - should be able to use those reports (regardless weather they belong to the invetory or not), but not Middle Management, unless they are in inventory group. Admins of the system (Domain Admins) should have unrestricted access to the system , except for HR & Finances part unless they are in HR ( like you don't want all system admins (except for one authorized one) to see personal info of other employees). I looked at acl9, cancan, aegis. I was wondering if there are any advantaged/cons to using one versus the other for this particular use of system access based on AD. Suggest other systems if you had good experience. Thank you!!!

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • error invoking store procedure with input parameter from ADO.Net

    - by George2
    Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + .Net 3.5 + ADO.Net. Here is my code and related error message. The error message says, @Param1 is not supplied, but actually it is supplied in my code. Any ideas what is wrong? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Procedure or function 'Pr_Foo' expects parameter '@Param1', which was not supplied. class Program { private static SqlCommand _command; private static SqlConnection connection; private static readonly string _storedProcedureName = "Pr_Foo"; private static readonly string connectionString = "server=.;integrated Security=sspi;initial catalog=FooDB"; public static void Prepare() { connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); _command = connection.CreateCommand(); _command.CommandText = _storedProcedureName; _command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; } public static void Dispose() { connection.Close(); } public static void Run() { try { SqlParameter Param1 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param1", SqlDbType.Int, 300101); Param1.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param2 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param2", SqlDbType.Int, 100); portal_SiteInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param3 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param3", SqlDbType.Int, 200); portal_RoleInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; _command.ExecuteScalar(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e); } } static void Main(string[] args) { try { Prepare(); Thread t1 = new Thread(Program.Run); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + "\t" + ex.StackTrace); } } } thanks in avdance, George

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  • How to (kindly) ask your users to upgrade from IE6?

    - by nickf
    It's no secret at all that IE6 has been a major roadblock to the advancement of the web over the last few years. I couldn't count the number of hours I've spent bashing my head against a wall trying to fix or debug IE6 issues. The way I see it, there are two types of IE6 user. a) the poor corporate schmoe whose IT department doesn't want to upgrade in case something breaks, and b) the mums and dads of the world who think the internet is the blue E on their desktop (and I don't mean that in a nasty way). There's probably a couple of people who know about all the other browsers, but still choose to run IE6. They get what they deserve, IMO. Anyway, getting to the point, I'd say that 90% of my IE6-using visitors are in the the mums and dads category - they're not stupid, they just don't know WHY they should upgrade to IE7 or Firefox or whatever. How do I educate these people without pissing them off? Is there a nice and friendly website I can direct these people to, which explains the reasons for upgrading in plain language? Any mention of "security" or "web standards" I think would just come across as scary. I've just seen http://www.whatbrowser.org which seems to fit the bill nicely. It explains in very basic terms: what a web browser is why you'd want to upgrade it how old your current browser is (subtle hint to those with a 9 year old browser) ..aaaand it's in 22 languages. It's from Google but displays no bias (it links to Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari, Internet Explorer displayed in a random order).

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  • amount of data returned by wcf 3.0 service contract method causes error

    - by ferrell carr
    CommuncationException was unhandled The maximum message size quota for incoming messages (65536) has been exceeded. To increase the quota, use the MaxReceivedMessageSize property on the appropriate binding element. here is my svc.map file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <ServiceReference> <ProxyGenerationParameters ServiceReferenceUri="http://d3w9501/SimpleWCF/SimpleWCF.svc" Name="svc" NotifyPropertyChange="False" UseObservableCollection="False"> </ProxyGenerationParameters> <EndPoints> <EndPoint Address="http://d3w9501.americas.hpqcorp.net/SimpleWCF/SimpleWCF.svc" BindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_ISimpleWCF" Contract="TestSimpleWCF.svc.ISimpleWCF" > </EndPoint> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_ISimpleWCF" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" > <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> </EndPoints> </ServiceReference>

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  • Windows 7 Create Folder in "Program Files" failing in C# code even thought I have admin rights!

    - by Shiva
    Hi, I am unable to create a file under "program files" folder on my Windows 7 64-bit machine in VS 2008 WPF C# code. The error I get on the following code myFile = File.Create(logFile); is the following. (this is the innerException stack trace). at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.FileStream.Init(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, Int32 rights, Boolean useRights, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options, SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES secAttrs, String msgPath, Boolean bFromProxy) at System.IO.FileStream..ctor(String path, FileMode mode, FileAccess access, FileShare share, Int32 bufferSize, FileOptions options) at System.IO.File.Create(String path) at MyFirm.MyPricingApp.UI.App.InitializeLogging() in C:\Projects\MyPricingApp\App.xaml.cs:line 150 at MyFirm.MyPricingApp.UI.App.Application_Startup(Object sender, StartupEventArgs e) in C:\Projects\MyPricingApp\App.xaml.cs:line 38 at System.Windows.Application.OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) at System.Windows.Application.<.ctor>b__0(Object unused) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.InternalRealCall(Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter) at System.Windows.Threading.ExceptionWrapper.TryCatchWhen(Object source, Delegate callback, Object args, Boolean isSingleParameter, Delegate catchHandler) this seems like it has something to do with UAC in Windows 7, because why else would I get this since my user is already Admin on the machine ?! Also since the WinIOError has SECURITY_ATTRIBUTES, I am thinking this has something to do with a "new way" security is handled in Windows 7. I tried to browse to the "Program Files" folder, under which the log folder and file were to be created. I can create the folder by hand, but when i try to create the file, I get the similar "Access Denied" exception.

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  • Intermittent bug - IE6 showing file as text in browser, rather than as file download

    - by Richard Ev
    In an ASP.NET WebForms 2.0 site we are encountering an intermittent bug in IE6 whereby a file download attempt results in the contents of the being shown directly in the browser as text, rather than the file save dialog being displayed. Our application allows the user to download both PDF and CSV files. The code we're using is: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.Clear(); response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment;filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.End(); This is called from the code-behind click event handler of a button server control. Where are we going wrong with this approach? Edit Following James' answer to this posting, the code I'm using now looks like this: HttpResponse response = HttpContext.Current.Response; response.ClearHeaders(); // Setting cache to NoCache was recommended, but doing so results in a security // warning in IE6 //response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); response.AppendHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=\"theFilename.pdf\""); response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; response.BinaryWrite(MethodThatReturnsFileContents()); response.Flush(); response.End(); However, I don't believe that any of the changes made will fix the issue.

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  • XSS attack prevention

    - by Colby77
    Hi, I'm developing a web app where users can response to blog entries. This is a security problem because they can send dangerous data that will be rendered to other users (and executed by javascript). They can't format the text they send. No "bold", no colors, no nothing. Just simple text. I came up with this regex to solve my problem: [^\\w\\s.?!()] So anything that is not a word character (a-Z, A-Z, 0-9), not a whitespace, ".", "?", "!", "(" or ")" will be replaced with an empty string. Than every quatation mark will be replaced with: "&quot". I check the data on the front end and I check it on my server. Is there any way somebody could bypass this "solution"? I'm wondering how StackOverflow does this thing? There are a lot of formatting here so they must do a good work with it.

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  • Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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  • How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

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  • How to get around DnsRecordListFree error in .NET Framework 4.0?

    - by Greg Finzer
    I am doing an MxRecordLookup. I am getting an error when calling the DnsRecordListFree in the .NET Framework 4.0. I am using Windows 7. How do I get around it? Here is the error: System.MethodAccessException: Attempt by security transparent method to call native code through method. Here is my code: [DllImport("dnsapi", EntryPoint = "DnsQuery_W", CharSet = CharSet.Unicode, SetLastError = true, ExactSpelling = true)] private static extern int DnsQuery([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.VBByRefStr)]ref string pszName, QueryTypes wType, QueryOptions options, int aipServers, ref IntPtr ppQueryResults, int pReserved); [DllImport("dnsapi", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern void DnsRecordListFree(IntPtr pRecordList, int FreeType); public List<string> GetMXRecords(string domain) { List<string> records = new List<string>(); IntPtr ptr1 = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr ptr2 = IntPtr.Zero; MXRecord recMx; try { int result = DnsQuery(ref domain, QueryTypes.DNS_TYPE_MX, QueryOptions.DNS_QUERY_BYPASS_CACHE, 0, ref ptr1, 0); if (result != 0) { if (result == 9003) { //No Record Exists } else { //Some other error } } for (ptr2 = ptr1; !ptr2.Equals(IntPtr.Zero); ptr2 = recMx.pNext) { recMx = (MXRecord)Marshal.PtrToStructure(ptr2, typeof(MXRecord)); if (recMx.wType == 15) { records.Add(Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(recMx.pNameExchange)); } } } finally { DnsRecordListFree(ptr1, 0); } return records; }

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  • Cloning input type file and set the value

    - by jribeiro
    I know that it isn't possible to set the value of an input type="file" for security reasons... My problem is: I needed to style an input type="file" so what I did was have a button and hide the file input. like: <a href="#" onclick="$('input[name=&quot;photo1&quot;]').click(); return false;" id="photo1-link"></a> <input type="file" name="photo1" class="fileInput jqtranformdone validate[required]" id="photo1" /> These works great in all browsers except IE which gives me an access denied error on submitting through ajax. I'm using the ajaxSubmit jquery plugin (malsup.com/jquery/form/) So after reading for a while I tried to do: var photo1Val = $('#photo1').val(); var clone1 = $('#photo1').clone().val(photo1Val); $('#photo1').remove(); clone1.appendTo('form'); console.log(photo1Val) //prints the right value C:/fakepath/blablabla.jpg $('form').ajaxSubmit(options); The problem is that after this the value of $('#photo1') is empty... Any ideas how to work around this? Thanks

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  • Accessing MS Access database from C#

    - by Abilash
    I want to use MS Access as database for my C# windows form application.I have used OleDb driver for connecting MS Access. I am able to select the records from the MS Access using OleDbConnection and ExecuteReader.But I am un able to insert,update and delete records. My code is as follows: OleDbConnection con=new OleDbConnection(strCon); try { con.Open(); OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("INSERT INTO DPMaster(DPID,DPName,ClientID,ClientName) VALUES('53','we','41','aw')", con); int a=com.ExecuteNonQuery(); //OleDbCommand com = new OleDbCommand("SELECT * FROM DPMaster", con); //OleDbDataReader dr = com.ExecuteReader(); //while (dr.Read()) //{ // MessageBox.Show(dr[2].ToString()); //} MessageBox.Show(a.ToString()); } catch { MessageBox.Show("cannot"); } If I execute the commented block the application works.But the insert block doesnt works.Why I am unable to insert/update/delete the records into database? My Connection String is as follows: string strCon="Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=xyz.mdb;Persist Security Info=True";

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  • Bookmarklet, js injection and popup issue

    - by Neewok
    I'm currently writing a bookmarklet that loads and executes a remote js file by appending a new <script> tag in the current window, like so : javascript:(function() { if(typeof __bml_main != "undefined") return __bml_main.init(); var s= document.createElement('script'); s.type= 'text/javascript'; s.src= 'http://127.0.0.1:8000/media/bookmarklet.js'; void(document.body.appendChild(s)); })(); My bookmarklet needs to perform some dom manipulations in order to extract data from the page being viewed, and then to open a new popup to list them. The thing is : if I want to bypass pop-up blockers, I can't open my new window from the injected script. I need to open it right from the beginning in the bookmarklet code, and to access it later when needed. I've tried to do somehting like this : javascript:var my_popup = window.open('http://127.0.0.1:8000/resources/manage/new/', 'newResourcePopup',config='height=200,width=400,toolbar=no,menubar=no,scrollbars=no,resizable=no,location=no,directories=no,status=no'); (function() { // script injection (...) })(); but if I then try to access my_popup from my remotely loaded script, most browsers will throw a security warning and won't let me access the Window object. This is understandable since the script is not from the same domain than the displayed page, but I'm kind of stuck... A solution would be to use a div overlay, but I'd really prefer to open a window in this case. Any hints ?

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  • connecting to secure database from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not an option, so I have to work with the sdcenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • routing mvc on the web

    - by generic_noob
    Hi, I was wondering if anyone could possibly provide me some advice on how i could improve the routing (and/or architecture) to each 'section' of my application. (I'm writing in PHP5, and trying to use strict MVC) Basically, I have a generic index page for the app, and that will spew out boilerplate stuff like jquery and the css etc. and it also generates the main navidation for the entire site, but i'm unsure about the best approach to connect the 'main menu' items(hyperlinks) with their associated controllers. Up until now I have been appending strings into the url and using a 'switch' statement to branch to the correct controller(and view) by extracting the strings back out of '$GET[]' to let it execute the code for the corrosponding action. for instance if i had a basic crud system for customer data, the url to edit a customers details would look like 'www.example.com/index.php?page=customer&action=edit&id=4'. I'm worried that there is a security concern by doing it this way, and i'm not sure of an alternative to branch the main 'index.php' file to the correct controller for each action once the user has clicked the link. Would it be better to use mod_rewrite to disguise the controllers names? or to create a similar system to the ASP MVC framework, where there is a seperate routing system where each url is filtered to get the associated controller? Cheers!

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  • Is there any other way of using signed applets

    - by 640KB
    Hi There, If I want to deploy high privileged applets they need to be signed. For that a certificate is created and then a jar file is signed with a jarsigner. After that in the HTML code one has to specify code,codebase AND archive (jar) which we signed before. However I wrote a servlet which acts as two things: it sits at the URL pointed by the codebase and serves class bytecode to the applet. The same servlet also uses serialization to communicate with the applet whereby whenever the applet gets a class it does not know it goes to the codebase which ends up back at the servlet. Almost like a mini RMI setup but simpler. I hope you can see the power in this. Unfortunately for signed applets one needs the archive. Now the servlet is also able to load a Certificate object and can send it to the applet too. So here is the setup: At one point the applet receives class bytecode and it also has the Certificate. It would be nice if the applet could instantiate all received classes using that certificate (otherwise code from jar is signed and outside is not which prompts nasty messages to the user). So my question to you fine Java aficionados: Would there by any way for me to use the bytecode data and the Certificate to instantiate the class as a signed object so that the plugin pops the Security dialog, accepts teh certificate and elevates the object's privileges. What I could find is that the there is a class CodeSource that accepts codebase URL and certificate and is essential to the signing process. What I am not sure is how one could intercept the class loading inside applets to install additional certificates not obtained through a JAR file via archive. What do you say? Thanks a bunch.

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  • htmlspecialchars() - How and when to use and avoid multiple use

    - by naescent
    Hi, I'm building a PHP intranet for my boss. A simple customer, order, quote system. It will be denied access from the Internet and only used by 3 people. I'm not so concerned with security as I am with validation. Javascript is disables on all machines. The problem I have is this: Employee enters valid data into a form containing any of the following :;[]"' etc. Form $_POSTS this data to a validationAndProcessing.php page, and determines whether the employee entered data or not in to the fields. If they didn't they are redirected back to the data input page and the field they missed out is highlighted in red. htmlspecialchars() is applied to all data being re-populated to the form from what they entered earlier. Form is then resubmitted to validationAndProcessing.php page, if successful data is entered into the database and employee is taken to display data page. My question is this: If an employee repeatedly enters no data in step 1, they will keep moving between step 1 and 4 each time having htmlspecialchars() applied to the data. So that:- & becomes:- &amp; becomes:- &amp;amp; becomes:- &amp;amp;amp; etc.. How can I stop htmlspecialchars() being applied multiple times to data that is already cleaned? Thanks, Adam

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