Search Results

Search found 53455 results on 2139 pages for 'domain value map'.

Page 47/2139 | < Previous Page | 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54  | Next Page >

  • Problem getting value from "Checkbox group value prompt"

    - by Veer
    Hi, I've value prompt with ui:checkbox group parameter: p_IsLastMonth Name: Prompt_IsLastMonth ItemCount: 1; UseValue:Yes, DisplayValue: LastMonth? and two Date Prompts. Whenever the checkbox is checked, the UseValue 'Yes' is passed to the parameter 'p_IsLastMonth'. But whenever the checkbox is left as it is, it results in an error. Element 'selectOptions' is not valid for content model: 'All(style,defaultSelections,conditionalStyles,conditionalRender,XMLAttributes)' I also tried giving a default value. But the default value has to be in the collection. But i want only one checkbox to be displayed. I tried with html checkbox. But i'm not able to send the value 'either yes or no' to the parameter through javascript because however the finish button overrides the value. Any help?

    Read the article

  • using KVO to update an NSTableView filtered by an NSPredicate

    - by KingRufus
    My UI is not updating when I expect it to. The application displays "projects" using a view similar to iTunes -- a source list on the left lets you filter a list (NSTableView) on the right. My filters update properly when they are examining any simple field (like name, a string), but not for arrays (like tags). I'm removing a tag from one of my objects (from an NSMutableArray field called "tags") and I expect it to disappear from the list because it no longer matches the predicate that is bound to my table's NSArrayController. ProjectBrowser.mm: self.filter = NSPredicate* srcPredicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"%@ IN %K", selectedTag, @"tags"]; Project.mm: [self willChangeValueForKey:@"tags"]; [tags removeAllObjects]; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"tags"]; I've also tried this, but the result is the same: [[self mutableArrayValueForKey:@"tags"] removeAllObjects]; Interface Builder setup: a ProjectBrowser object is the XIB's File Owner an NSArrayController (Project Controller) has its Content Array bound to "File's Owner".projects Project Controller's filter predicate is bound to "File's Owner".filter NSTableView's column is bound to "Project Controller".name

    Read the article

  • How can I copy one map into another using std::copy?

    - by Frank
    I would like to copy the content of one std::map into another. Can I use std::copy for that? Obviously, the following code won't work: int main() { typedef std::map<int,double> Map; Map m1; m1[3] = 0.3; m1[5] = 0.5; Map m2; m2[1] = 0.1; std::copy(m1.begin(), m1.end(), m2.begin()); return 0; } Is there any way to make it work with std::copy? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • SQL Design: representing a default value with overrides?

    - by Mark Harrison
    I need a sparse table which contains a set of "override" values for another table. I also need to specify the default value for the items overridden. For example, if the default value is 17, then foo,bar,baz will have the values 17,21,17: table "things" table "xvalue" name stuff name xval ---- ----- ---- ---- foo ... bar 21 bar ... baz ... If I don't care about a FK from xvalue.name - things.name, I could simply put a "DEFAULT" name: table "xvalue" name xval ---- ---- DEFAULT 17 bar 21 But I like having a FK. I could have a separate default table, but it seems odd to have 2x the number of tables. table "xvalue_default" xval ---- 17 table "xvalue" name xval ---- ---- bar 21 I could have a "defaults table" tablename attributename defaultvalue xvalue xval 17 but then I run into type issues on defaultvalue. My operations guys prefer as compact a representation as possible, so they can most easily see the "diff" or deviations from the default. What's the best way to represent this, including the default value? This will be for Oracle 10.2 if that makes a difference.

    Read the article

  • What is the best practice in regards to building composite dtos off of an aggregate root with domain

    - by Chance
    I'm trying to figure out the best approach/practice for assembling a composite data transfer object off of an aggregate root and would love to hear people's thoughts on this. For example, lets say I have a root that has a few domain objects as children. I want to assemble a specific view dto, based on some business logic, that either has attributes or full dto's of it's objects. What I'm struggling with is trying to figure out where that assembly should happen. I can see it going on the domain object of the aggregate root as there is some business logic associated with it. The benefits of this approach from what I've deduced thus far is that it should reduce the inevitable business logic from bleeding outisde of the domain object. It also allows for private methods that take care of tasks that could become more complex from an external builder. The downsides being that the domain object becomes much more entrenched in the application's workflow and represents much more than just the domain object. It also could become very large in the scenario where you need multiple composite Dtos. Alternatively, I could also see it belonging to some form of transfer object assembler where there is a builder for each domain object. The domain objects would still be responsible for GetDto() and UpdateFromDto(dto). Outside of that, the builder would handle the construction and deconstruction of composite dtos. The downside is kind of mentioned above, where I fear this will easily lead to developers unfamiliar with DDD bleeding a ton of business logic into the assembler which is what I want to desperately avoid. Any thoughts would be greatly apperciated.

    Read the article

  • unable to return 'true' value in C function

    - by Byron
    If Im trying to check an input 5 byte array (p) against a 5 byte array stored in flash (data), using the following function (e2CheckPINoverride), to simply return either a true or false value. But it seems, no matter what I try, it only returns as 'false'. I call the function here: if (e2CheckPINoverride(pinEntry) == 1){ PTDD_PTDD1 = 1; } else{ PTDD_PTDD1 = 0; } Here is the function: BYTE e2CheckPINoverride(BYTE *p) { BYTE i; BYTE data[5]; if(e2Read(E2_ENABLECODE, data, 5)) { if(data[0] != p[0]) return FALSE; if(data[1] != p[1]) return FALSE; if(data[2] != p[2]) return FALSE; if(data[3] != p[3]) return FALSE; if(data[4] != p[4]) return FALSE; } return TRUE; } I have already assigned true and false in the defines.h file: #ifndef TRUE #define TRUE ((UCHAR)1) #endif #ifndef FALSE #define FALSE ((UCHAR)0) #endif and where typedef unsigned char UCHAR; when i step through the code, it performs all the checks correctly, it passes in the correct value, compares it correctly and then breaks at the correct point, but is unable to process the return value of true? please help?

    Read the article

  • Windows Server 2012 Migration (DNS/AD DS Standard Eval to Essentials OEM) P2V -> Do I need a Secondary Domain Controller during migration?

    - by Aubrey Robertson
    This is my first post on this exchange (although not my first on stack exchange), so please have patience. I am a 3rd year student intern, and I have been tasked with virtualizing the server systems at the company I work for. I have come a long way, and I am almost ready to install the VM Server in migration mode. Here is some information: Source Server: Windows Server 2012 Standard Evaluation DNS Server (local only) Advanced Directory Domain Services File and Storage stuff A few other server roles Destination Server: Windows Server 2012 Essentials OEM (Hyper-V client) Running under a temporary Hyper-V host (will migrate the Hyper-V host back to the old machine after the original server is virtualized as a client). Sitting currently at the "Select Installation Mode" screen. I have been following the guides on Microsoft tech net, and today I spent most of the day getting rid of issues in the Best Practices Analyser on the source machine. I have 3 remaining issues (which are all related): ERROR: DNS: DNS servers on Ethernet (adapter name) should include the loopback address, but not as the first entry (flavour text indicates that, during migration, the DNS server may not be found) WARNING: All domains should have at least two domain controllers for redundancy. WARNING: DNS: Ethernet should be configured to use both a preferred and an alternate DNS Server. All of these issues can be resolved by deploying a secondary domain controller, but I have never done that before (see my concerns below). The main issue here that I am concerned with for installing in migration mode is the FIRST one (the error). If I try and set-up the new server deployment, and the adapter domain controller is listed as localhost, then this may cause the installation to fail. (at least, this is what the Microsoft documentation suggests). But I do not have another IP address to enter here as I have no other local domain controllers. So I did the first obvious thing that came to my mind, and tried to use Google DNS servers as my alternates. That did not work because they couldn't recognize other computers in the "forest". Now I'm no expert when it comes to DNS, so please forgive my ignorance. This DNS server is concerned only with Active Directory stuffs for the local network. If I go ahead with migration, and it fails, then I will just have to go ahead and install a secondary DNS server I suppose. The problem I have here is that I am limited by the amount of Windows Server keys I have available (I have 2); however, I do have access to a Linux box running Debian Wheezy that I set-up two weeks ago as a Mantis server. I could install Windows Server 2012 as a secondary DNS (I think) in a VM and use that, but then it seems like I will be wasting time, and probably the Windows key too, and if there's another way to do it with Linux that would be much better. Even better still, do I even need a secondary DNS server for migration at all? The hints said that during migration the original machine "might" not be found. Thank you for your time and consideration.

    Read the article

  • Mock RequireJS define dependencies with config.map

    - by Aligned
    Originally posted on: http://geekswithblogs.net/Aligned/archive/2014/08/18/mock-requirejs-define-dependencies-with-config.map.aspxI had a module dependency, that I’m pulling down with RequireJS that I needed to use and write tests against. In this case, I don’t care about the actual implementation of the module (it’s simple enough that I’m just avoiding some AJAX calls). EDIT: make sure you look at the bottom example after the edit before using the config.map approach. I found that there is an easier way. I did not want to change the constructor of the consumer as I had a chain of changes that would have to be made and that would have been to invasive for this task. I found a question on StackOverflow with a short, but helpful answer from “Artem Oboturov”. We can use the config.map from RequireJs to achieve this. Here is some code: A module example (“usefulModule” in Common/Modules/usefulModule.js): define([], function() { "use strict"; var testMethod = function() { ... }; // add more functionality of the module return { testMethod; } }); A consumer of usefulModule example: define([ "Commmon/Modules/usefulModule" ], function(usefulModule) { "use strict"; var consumerModule = function(){ var self = this; // add functionality of the module } }); Using config.map in the html of the test runner page (and in your Karma config –> I’m still trying to figure this out): map: {'*': { // replace usefulModule with a mock 'Common/Modules/usefulModule': '/Tests/Specs/Common/usefulModuleMock.js' } } With the new mapping, Require will load usefulModuleMock.js from Tests/Specs/Common instead of the real implementation. Some of the answers on StackOverflow mentioned Squire.js, which looked interesting, but I wasn’t ready to introduce a new library at this time. That’s all you need to be able to mock a depency in RequireJS. However, there are many good cases when you should pass it in through the constructor instead of this approach.   EDIT: After all that, here’s another, probably better way: The consumer class, updated: define([ "Commmon/Modules/usefulModule" ], function(UsefulModule) { "use strict"; var consumerModule = function(){ var self = this; self.usefulModule = new UsefulModule(); // add functionality of the module } }); Jasmine test: define([ "consumerModule", "/UnitTests/Specs/Common/Mocks/usefulModuleMock.js" ], function(consumerModule, UsefulModuleMock){ describe("when mocking out the module", function(){ it("should probably just override the property", function(){ var consumer = new consumerModule(); consumer.usefulModule = new UsefulModuleMock(); }); }); });   Thanks for letting me think out loud :-).

    Read the article

  • Circle-Rectangle collision in a tile map game

    - by furiousd
    I am making a 2D tile map based putt-putt game. I have collision detection working between the ball and the walls of the map, although when the ball collides at the meeting point between 2 tiles I offset it by 0.5 so that it doesn't get stuck in the wall. This aint a huge issue though. if(y % 20 == 0) { y+=0.5; } if(x % 20 == 0) { x+=0.5; } Collisions work as follows Find the closest point between each tile and the center of the ball If distance(ball_x, ball_y, close_x, close_y) <= ball_radius and the closest point belongs to a solid object, collision has occured Invert X/Y speed according to side of object collided with The next thing I tried to do was implement floating blocks in the middle of the map for the ball to bounce off of. When a ball collides with a corner of the block, it gets stuck in it. So I changed my determineRebound() function to treat corners as if they were circles. Here's that functon: `i and j are indexes of the solid object in the 2d map array. x & y are centre point of ball.` void determineRebound(int _i, int _j) { if(y > _i*tile_w && y < _i*tile_w + tile_w) { //Not a corner xs*=-1; } else if(x > _j*tile_w && x < _j*tile_w + tile_w) { //Not a corner ys*=-1; } else { //Corner float nx = x - close_x; float ny = y - close_y; float len = sqrt(nx * nx + ny * ny); nx /= len; ny /= len; float projection = xs * nx + ys * ny; xs -= 2 * projection * nx; ys -= 2 * projection * ny; } } This is where things have gotten messy. Collisions with 'floating' corners work fine, but now when the ball collides near the meeting point of 2 tiles, it detects a corner collision and does not rebound as expected. I'm a bit in over my head at this point. I guess I'm wondering if I'm going about making this sort of game in the right way. Is a 2d tile map the way to go? If so, is there a problem with my collision logic and where am I going wrong? Any advice/feedback would be great.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 / Localization / Dynamic Default Value?

    - by cyberblast
    Hello In an ASP.NET MVC 2 application, i'm having a route like this: routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{lang}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new // Parameter defaults { controller = "Home", action = "Index", lang = "de", id = UrlParameter.Optional }, new { lang = new AllowedValuesRouteConstraint(new string[] { "de", "en", "fr", "it" }, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) } Now, basically I would like to set the thread's culture according the language passed in. But there is one exception: If the user requests the page for the first time, like calling "http://www.mysite.com" I want to set the initial language if possible to the one "preferred by the browser". How can I distinguish in an early procesing stage (like global.asax), if the default parameter has been set because of the default value or mentioned explicit through the URL? (I would prefer a solution where the request URL is not getting parsed). Is there a way to dynamically provide a default-value for a paramter? Something like a hook? Or where can I override the default value (good application event?). This is the code i'm actually experimenting with: protected void Application_AcquireRequestState(object sender, EventArgs e) { string activeLanguage; string[] validLanguages; string defaultLanguage; string browsersPreferredLanguage; try { HttpContextBase contextBase = new HttpContextWrapper(Context); RouteData activeRoute = RouteTable.Routes.GetRouteData(new HttpContextWrapper(Context)); if (activeRoute == null) { return; } activeLanguage = activeRoute.GetRequiredString("lang"); Route route = (Route)activeRoute.Route; validLanguages = ((AllowedValuesRouteConstraint)route.Constraints["lang"]).AllowedValues; defaultLanguage = route.Defaults["lang"].ToString(); browsersPreferredLanguage = GetBrowsersPreferredLanguage(); //TODO: Better way than parsing the url bool defaultInitialized = contextBase.Request.Url.ToString().IndexOf(string.Format("/{0}/", defaultLanguage), StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) > -1; string languageToActivate = defaultLanguage; if (!defaultInitialized) { if (validLanguages.Contains(browsersPreferredLanguage, StringComparer.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)) { languageToActivate = browsersPreferredLanguage; } } //TODO: Where and how to overwrtie the default value that it gets passed to the controller? contextBase.RewritePath(contextBase.Request.Path.Replace("/de/", "/en/")); SetLanguage(languageToActivate); } catch (Exception ex) { //TODO: Log Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } protected string GetBrowsersPreferredLanguage() { string acceptedLang = string.Empty; if (HttpContext.Current.Request.UserLanguages != null && HttpContext.Current.Request.UserLanguages.Length > 0) { acceptedLang = HttpContext.Current.Request.UserLanguages[0].Substring(0, 2); } return acceptedLang; } protected void SetLanguage(string languageToActivate) { CultureInfo cultureInfo = new CultureInfo(languageToActivate); if (!Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.TwoLetterISOLanguageName.Equals(languageToActivate, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)) { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture = cultureInfo; } if (!Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture.TwoLetterISOLanguageName.Equals(languageToActivate, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase)) { Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture = CultureInfo.CreateSpecificCulture(cultureInfo.Name); } } The RouteConstraint to reproduce the sample: public class AllowedValuesRouteConstraint : IRouteConstraint { private string[] _allowedValues; private StringComparison _stringComparism; public string[] AllowedValues { get { return _allowedValues; } } public AllowedValuesRouteConstraint(string[] allowedValues, StringComparison stringComparism) { _allowedValues = allowedValues; _stringComparism = stringComparism; } public AllowedValuesRouteConstraint(string[] allowedValues) { _allowedValues = allowedValues; _stringComparism = StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase; } public bool Match(HttpContextBase httpContext, Route route, string parameterName, RouteValueDictionary values, RouteDirection routeDirection) { if (_allowedValues != null) { return _allowedValues.Any(a => a.Equals(values[parameterName].ToString(), _stringComparism)); } else { return false; } } } Can someone help me out with that problem? Thanks, Martin

    Read the article

  • value of Identity column returning null when retrieved by value in dataGridView

    - by Raven Dreamer
    Greetings. I'm working on a windows forms application that interacts with a previously created SQL database. Specifically, I'm working on implementing an "UPDATE" query. for (int i = 0; i < dataGridView1.RowCount; i++) { string firstName = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[0].Value; string lastName = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[1].Value; string phoneNo = (string)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[2].Value; short idVal = (short)dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[3].Value; this.contactInfoTableAdapter.UpdateQuery(firstName, lastName, phoneNo, idVal); } The dataGridView has 4 columns, First Name, Last Name, Phone Number, and ID (which was created as an identity column when I initially formed the table in SQL). When I try to run this code, the three strings are returned properly, but dataGridView1.Rows[i].Cells[3].Value is returning "null". I'm guessing this is because it was created as an identity column rather than a normal column. What's a better way to retrieve the relevant ID value for my UpdateQuery?

    Read the article

  • Asp.net Hidden field not having value in code behind, but *is* retaining value after postbacks

    - by KallDrexx
    In my ASCX, I have an asp.net hidden field defined as <asp:HiddenField ID="hdnNewAsset" runat="server" />. In the Code Behind I have the following code: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { _service = new ArticleDataService(PortalId); if (!IsPostBack) { string rawId = Request[ArticleQueryParams.ArticleId]; DisplayArticleDetails(rawId); } if (hdnNewAsset.Value.Trim() != string.Empty) ProcessNewAsset(); } Now, in my frontend, I have a javascript function to react to an event and set the hidden field and trigger a postback: function assetSelected(assetGuid) { $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]').val(assetGuid); __doPostBack() } What's happening is that my hidden field is being set in the markup (chrome shows [ <input type=?"hidden" name=?"dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset" id=?"dnn_ctr466_Main_ctl00_hdnNewAsset" value=?"98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4">? ] for $('input[id*="hdnNewAsset"]')). However, when the postback occurs, hdnNewAsset.Value is an empty string. What's even more puzzling is that at the beginning of Page_Load Request.Params["dnn$ctr466$Main$ctl00$hdnNewAsset"] shows 98d88e72-088c-40a4-9022-565a53dc33c4, and after the postback my hidden field has the same value (so the hidden field is persisting across postbacks), yet I cannot access this value via hdnNewAsset.Value. Can anyone see what I"m doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Name for method that takes a string value and returns DBNull.Value || string

    - by David Murdoch
    I got tired of writing the following code: /* Commenting out irrelevant parts public string MiddleName; public void Save(){ SqlCommand = new SqlCommand(); // blah blah...boring INSERT statement with params etc go here. */ if(MiddleName==null){ myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", DBNull.Value); } else{ myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", MiddleName); } /* // more boring code to save to DB. }*/ So, I wrote this: public static object DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull(string value) { object o; if (value == null) { o = DBNull.Value; } else { o = value; } return o; } // which would be called like: myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull(MiddleName)); If this is a good way to go about doing this then what would you suggest as the method name? DBNullValueorStringIfNotNull is a bit verbose and confusing. I'm also open to ways to alleviate this problem entirely. I'd LOVE to do this: myCmd.Parameters.Add("@MiddleName", MiddleName==null ? DBNull.Value : MiddleName); but that won't work. I've got C# 3.5 and SQL Server 2005 at my disposal if it matters.

    Read the article

  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Can't ping devices by IP address for devices allocated IPs by DHCP

    - by GiddyUpHorsey
    I have a home network with a Trendnet wireless router and a Windows Domain. The Domain Controller/DNS server is a Windows 2000 Server and is configured to forward queries to DNS servers provided by the ISP. The router provides DHCP and is configured with the Windows 2000 Server as the DNS server. The network has been set up for a couple of years and usually works fine. When I connect iPhones to the network over WiFi, the router can ping the iPhones through its browser based admin interface, but Windows machines that are part of the Windows Domain cannot. A laptop was connected to the network over WiFi that wasn't joined to the domain and it could see the iPhones. The router UI shows that the laptop has a reserved IP allocated via DHCP. All machines either have a static or DHCP allocated IP on the 192.168.0.* subnet. Router - 192.168.0.1 - Static - Wired Windows Domain Controller - 192.168.0.8 - Static - Virtual Windows 7 Workstation - 192.168.0.200 - DHCP Auto - Wired VMWare ESXi Host - 192.168.0.201 - Static? - Wired iPhone 1 - 192.168.0.202 - DHCP Auto - WiFi iPhone 2 - 192.168.0.203 - DHCP Auto - WiFi Windows Vista Laptop - 192.168.0.204 - DHCP Reserved - WiFi Using the Windows 7 machine (200), I try to ping each machine and the only DHCP machine that responds is itself. The other DHCP machines fail with Reply from 192.168.0.200: Destination host unreachable.. Using nslookup fails with *** domain.controller.name can't find 192.168.0.203: Non-existent domain. Using the Windows 2000 Domain Controller (8), I try to ping each machine and the only DHCP machine that responds is the Windows 7 machine (200). Pinging the other DHCP machines fails with Request timed out.. Using nslookup also fails with *** domain.controller.name can't find 192.168.0.203: Non-existent domain. Using the iPhone 2 (203), I try to ping (Network Ping Lite) the machines with static IP addresses and that works fine. When I try to ping the Windows 7 machine (200) it is unable to get a response. How do I configure the DNS server/Windows Domain/Router properly so that the Windows Domain machines can see the IPs allocated via DHCP?

    Read the article

  • Apache2: Trying to map a subdomain to a subdirectory

    - by user1561753
    So basically I want to have: sub.domain.com/anything - domain.com/asub/anything I'm a bit new to this and a bit confused. The first thing I did was configure my DNS settings so sub.domain.com goes to domain.com using a CNAME (would an A record and the IP be better?) Next I went into my VirtualHost file and have: RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} www.(.+) [NC] RewriteRule ^/(.*) http://domain.com/$1 [R] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^sub.domain.com RewriteRule ^/(.*) http://domain.com/asub/$1 [R] So the first rule is meant to handle www. and making sure that is caught correctly and it works. The second rule is what I've added for the subdomain mapping and it doesn't seem to be doing anything

    Read the article

  • Issue with www to non www redirect

    - by bob
    Hello, I am on slicehost and I followed the articles that they gave for DNS redirection and the www to non www url redirection does work. However, what if I want a www.domain.com to be the default domain. Would I put www.domain.com. as my DNS record name or would I keep domain.com. as my DNS record and then do something else. Basically, what happens is if someone goes to the url www.domain.com/directory/something.html they will be redirected to domain.com and not domain.com/directory/something.html I would like the second thing to happen, not just go to domain.com and call it a day. I am running nginx and am confounded on how to solve this issue. I'm not sure whether its an nginx issue or a dns issue. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • DNS subdomain problem - Hover.com

    - by Ryan Sullivan
    I use hover.com to manage my domain names. I have having a huge problem with setting a sub-domain to a specific IP address: I want the sub-domain on a particular domain name that I have. I set an A type record for that sub-domain and pointed it towards the IP address; it is not working at all. The thing that is confusing me is that when I set the IP address to a sub-domain on a different domain name it works just fine. Also, I have since deleted the DNS record from the domain that it happened to work on, and when I type that address into a browser it still resolves to the IP I had it set to. I am not sure what is going on at all. If this seems confusing I am sorry, but I am very confused about the whole thing myself. If any clarification is needed, just ask and I will try to clear things up.

    Read the article

  • emails not working after domain has been forwarded to new hosting?

    - by jan
    What's the best course of action after the forwarding of domain has been done and apparently the email has been forgotten to be taken into account? I just forwarded the domain to a new server hosting and i forgot to take into account the emails from the old provider? A few concerns arise: the emails won't be lost, right? will pointing the MX records to the old mail server IP address fix this issue right away? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54  | Next Page >