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  • Revisiting .NET, but what should I focus on?

    - by Wayne M
    After about a two-year hiatus, I'm brushing up on my .NET skills to find a .NET job (my previous two positions have very little development, or development using legacy technologies, so apart from a few very minor apps I have not touched .NET in close to two years). I'm aware of things like ASP.NET MVC, and I have previously read on things like NHibernate and DI/IOC, albeit I have yet to use them apart from very trivial "Hello World" type applications. I have a subscription to Rob Conery's Tekpub website and occasionally watch these videos when I have free time. My concern is this: I don't live in a very technical area. I would be surprised if any but the most tech-savvy companies have heard of, let alone use, ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate (or even LINQ/EF), or know about IoC. I would be willing to bet a large sum of money that 95% of the possible jobs I could obtain will use the following: Visual Source Safe, if any VCS at all ASP.NET 2.0 Webforms (3.5 if lucky) Raw ADO.NET on top of a very thin implementation of the Gateway pattern Stored Procedures in the database for most CRUD operations Gratuitous use of code-behind, with a Service layer if I'm lucky If I were extremely lucky, I might find a shop that has heard of ORMs and either uses one, or has wrote their own data abstraction. Also if I were lucky, the company would be using Model-View-Presenter. In light of this I'm not sure what I should focus on learning. Personally, I would prefer to be using the latest stuff - ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate, jQuery, WCF etc. Reality says I should go back to the basics, since it looks like most potential opportunities aren't going to be anywhere near the cutting edge, or anywhere close to it. And, as much as I would like to find a position and start to show the other developers the benefits, in my past experience this has usually resulted in my being fired for "not being a team player" and doing things the bad old way. So, I am curious how you would approach a situation like this? What should I focus on, in order to A) Reaquaint myself with .NET, and B) Prepare myself to obtain a .NET job again that is more than likely going to use techniques that I and most other knowledgeable developers will scoff at?

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  • PopulateOnDemand does not work on data bound ASP.Net TreeView

    - by Shay Friedman
    Hi, I have a TreeView that is bound to a XmlDataSource control. I've added some TreeNodeBinding elements to define how I want the XML data to be shown. I have also added PopulateOnDemand=true to these TreeNodeBindings. However, doing so didn't change a thing and the entire XML tree is displayed. Moreover, the TreeNodePopulate event is not fired on node expand as well. Important information: I'm using ASP.NET 4. This is an example that reproduces the problem (very straight forward): <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <script type="text/C#" runat="server"> protected void TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate(Object sender, TreeNodeEventArgs e) { // This method is never called... } </script> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="XmlDataSource1" OnTreeNodePopulate="TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate" ExpandDepth="0"> <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="#" TextField="#" ValueField="#" PopulateOnDemand="true" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView> <asp:XmlDataSource ID="XmlDataSource1" runat="server" DataFile="Sample.xml" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> The Sample.xml can be any xml file you want, it doesn't really matter. I tried to put a breakpoint within the TreeView1_TreeNodePopulate method and it was never hit. I also tried to: Set a TreeNodeBinding for each possible data member with PopulateOnDemand="true". Via code, go through all tree nodes and set their PopulateOnDemand property to true. Nothing worked. The only way the populate-on-demand thing worked was when I added nodes manually to the nodes instead of binding it to a data source. What am I doing wrong?

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  • jQuery Cycle plugin IE6/7 issues

    - by Aaron Moodie
    I've implemented a slideshow using the Cycle plugin, which is working in all browsers except IE6&7, where the images just show up in a list, and the #page_copy div is not hiding. I've been going through the code all day without any luck, and not exactly sure how or what I should be looking for. What would be the best way to go about debugging this issue? I know that the #page_copy div is hiding when I remove the rest of the code, and I've tried the reverse (which had no result) <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery.fn.fadeToggle = function(speed, easing, callback) { return this.animate({opacity: 'toggle'}, speed, easing, callback); }; $(document).ready(function() { $('#page_copy').hide(); $('a#info_close_button').click(function() { $('#page_copy').fadeOut(200); return false; }); $('a#info_button').click(function() { $('#page_copy').fadeToggle(200); return false; }); }); $(window).load(function() { // vertically center single image var $image_cnt = $("#images > img").size(); if($image_cnt < 2) { var $single_img = $("#images").children(':first-child'); var h = $single_img.height(); $single_img.css({ marginTop: (620 - h) / 2, }); $(".next").css("display","none"); $(".prev").css("display","none"); } }); // wait until images have loaded before starting cycle $(window).load(function() { // front image rotator $('#images').cycle({ fx: 'fade', speed: 300, next: '.next', prev: '.prev', containerResize: 0, timeout: 0, delay: -2000, before: onBefore }); }); // hide all but the first image when page loads $(document).ready(function() { $('#images img:gt(0)').hide(); }); // callback fired when each slide transition begins function onBefore(curr,next,opts) { var $slide = $(next); var w = $slide.width(); var h = $slide.height(); $slide.css({ marginTop: (620 - h) / 2, marginLeft: (650 - w) / 2 }); }; </script>

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  • iPhone Key-Value Observer: observer not registering in UITableViewController

    - by Scott
    Hi Fellow iPhone Developers, I am an experienced software engineer but new to the iPhone platform. I have successfully implemented sub-classed view controllers and can push and pop parent/child views on the view controller stack. However, I have struck trouble while trying to update a view controller when an object is edited in a child view controller. After much failed experimentation, I discovered the key-value observer API which looked like the perfect way to do this. I then registered an observer in my main/parent view controller, and in the observer I intend to reload the view. The idea is that when the object is edited in the child view controller, this will be fired. However, I think that the observer is not being registered, because I know that the value is being updated in the editing view controller (I can see it in the debugger), but the observing method is never being called. Please help! Code snippets follow below. Object being observed. I believe that this is key-value compliant as the value is set when called with the setvalue message (see Child View Controller below). X.h: @interface X : NSObject <NSCoding> { NSString *name; ... @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; X.m: @implementation X @synthesize name; ... Main View Controller.h: @class X; @interface XViewController : UITableViewController { X *x; ... Main View Controller.m: @implementation XViewController @synthesize x; ... - (void)viewDidLoad { ... [self.x addObserver:self forKeyPath: @"name" options: (NSKeyValueObservingOptionNew | NSKeyValueObservingOptionOld) context:nil]; [super viewDidLoad]; } ... - (void)observeValueForKeyPath:(NSString *)keyPath ofObject:(id)object change:(NSDictionary *)change context:(void *)context { if ([keyPath isEqual:@"name"]) { NSLog(@"Found change to X"); [self.tableView reloadData]; } [super observeValueForKeyPath:keyPath ofObject:object change:change context:context]; } Child View Controller.m: (this correctly sets the value in the object in the child view controller) [self.x setValue:[[tempValues objectForKey:key] text] forKey:@"name"];

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  • MySql multiple selects batching in .net

    - by Amith George
    I have a situation in my application. For each x-axis point in my chart, I am plotting 5 y-axis values. To calculate each of these 5 values, I need to make 4 different queries. Ie, for each x-axis point I need to fire 20 sql queries. Now, I need to plot 40 such points in the my chart. Its resulting in a pathetic performance where it takes close to a minute to get all the data back from the database. Each of 4 different queries consists of a join between 2 tables. One has only 6 rows. The other close to 10,000. Each of the 4 queries has different WHERE clauses, so they are different queries. For each point in the x-axis, only the values for the where clauses change. I have tried combining each of the 4 queries into one big string. Basically batch the four selects. These are again batched for each y-axis value. So, for each x-axis point, I am now firing one big command that consists of 20 different select statements. Technically, I should be experiencing a big performance boost, right? Instead of hitting the db 40x5x4 = 800 times, I am now hitting it just 40 times. But instead of taking 60 seconds, it taking 50-55 seconds... not much of a help. I am using MySql 5.1, and the 6.1 version of its .Net connector. What can I do to improve the performance? Edit: One of the 4 queries is as follows: SELECT SUM(TIME_TO_SEC(TIMEDIFF(T1.col2, T1.col1))* T2.col1 / (3600 *1000)) AS TotalTime FROM Table T1 JOIN Table T2 ON T1.col3 = T2.col3 WHERE T1.col4 = 'i' AND T1.col1 >= '2009-12-25 00:00:00' AND T1.col2 <= '2009-12-26 00:00:00'; The other 3 queries are similar, only the where clause changes slightly. This set of 4 queries is fired 5 times. The first 3 times against the join of table T1 and T2, passing in different values for col4. And the next two times against the join of table T3 and T2 passing in different values for col4. These 5 values are the y-axis values for a particular x-axis point. The data returned by all these queries is the same format. so, we tried doing a UNION ALL on all these queries. No substantial difference. One strange thing, however, after indexing the foreign key on the table T1 [while it contained over a lakh records], the queries were using the index, but they had become slower. At times, the queries would take double the time to return the data.

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  • Playing dynamically embedded sound object via Javascript

    - by Vikram Goyal
    I need to background load some WAV files for an HTML page using AJAX. I use AJAX to get the details of the WAV files, then use the embed tag, and I can confirm that the files have loaded successfully because when I set autostart to true, the files play. However, I need the files to play only when the user clicks on a button (or an event is fired). The following is my code to preload these files: function preloadMedia() { for(var i = 0; i < testQuestions.length; i++) { var soundEmbed = document.createElement("embed"); soundEmbed.setAttribute("src", "/media/sounds/" + testQuestions[i].mediaFile); soundEmbed.setAttribute("hidden", true); soundEmbed.setAttribute("id", testQuestions[i].id); soundEmbed.setAttribute("autostart", false); soundEmbed.setAttribute("width", 0); soundEmbed.setAttribute("height", 0); soundEmbed.setAttribute("enablejavascript", true); document.body.appendChild((soundEmbed)); } } I use the following code to play the file (based on what sound file that user wants to play) function soundPlay(which) { var sounder = document.getElementById(which); sounder.Play(); } Something is wrong here, as none of the browsers I have tested on play the files using the code above. There are no errors, and the code just returns. I would have left it at that (that is - I would have convinced the client to convert all WAV's to MP3 and use MooTools). But I realized that I could play the sound files, which were not dynamically embeded. Thus, the same soundPlay function would work for a file embeded in the following manner: <embed src="/media/sounds/hug_sw1.wav" id="sound2" width="0" heigh="0" autostart="false" enablejavascript="true"/> anywhere within the HTML. And it plays well in all the browsers. Anyone have a clue on this? Is this some sort of undocumented security restriction in all the browsers? (Please remember that the files do get preloaded dynamically, as I can confirm by setting the autostart property to true - They all play). Any help appreciated.

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  • getView() (for a Custom ListView ) doesn't get called on notifyDatasetChanged()

    - by hungson175
    Hi everyone, I have the following problem, and searched for a while but haven't got any solution from the net: I have a custom list view, each item has the following layout (I just post the essential): <LinearLayout> <ImageView android:id="@+id/friendlist_iv_avatar" /> <TextView andorid:id="@+id/friendlist_tv_nick_name" /> <ImageView android:id="@+id/friendlist_iv_status_icon" /> </LinearLayout> And I have a class FriendRowItem, which is inflated from the above layout: public class FriendRowItem extends LinearLayout{ private ImageView ivAvatar; private ImageView ivStatusIcon; private TextView tvNickName; public FriendRowItem(Context context) { super(context); RelativeLayout friendRow = (RelativeLayout) Helpers.inflate(context, R.layout.friendlist_row); this.addView(friendRow); ivAvatar = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.friendlist_iv_avatar); ivStatusIcon = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.friendlist_iv_status_icon); tvNickName = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.friendlist_tv_nick_name); } public void setPropeties(Friend friend) { //Avatar ivAvatar.setImageResource(friend.getAvatar().getDrawableResourceId()); //Status Status.Type status = friend.getStatusType(); if ( status == Type.ONLINE) { ivStatusIcon.setImageResource(R.drawable.online_icon); } else { ivStatusIcon.setImageResource(R.drawable.offline_icon); } //Nickname String name = friend.getChatID(); if ( friend.hasName()) { name = friend.getName(); } tvNickName.setText(name); } } In the main activity, I have a custom listview: lvMainListView, with an custom adapter (whose class extends ArrayAdapter - and off course: override the method getView ), the data set of the adapter is: ArrayList<Friend> friends: private class FriendRowAdapter extends ArrayAdapter<Friend> { public FriendRowAdapter(Context applicationContext, int friendlistRow, ArrayList<Friend> friends) { super(applicationContext, friendlistRow, friends); } @Override public View getView(int position,View convertView,ViewGroup parent) { Friend friend = getItem(position); FriendRowItem row = (FriendRowItem) convertView; if ( row == null ) { row = new FriendRowItem(ShowFriendsList.this.getApplicationContext()); } row.setPropeties( friend ); return row; } } the problem is when I change the status of a friend from OFFLINE to ONLINE, then call notifyDataSetChanged(), nothing happens : the status icon of that friend doesn't change. I tried debugging, and saw the code: notifyDataSetChanged() get called, but the custom getView() is not fired ! Can you please tell me, that is normal in Android, or did I do something wrong ? (I am using Android 1.5). Thank you in advance, Son

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  • iPhone UIImage upload to web service

    - by user347635
    Hi all, I worked on this for several hours today and I'm pretty close to a solution but clearly need some help from someone who's pulled this off. I'm trying to post an image to a web service from the iPhone. I'll post the code first then explain everything I've tried: NSData *imageData = UIImageJPEGRepresentation(barCodePic, .9); NSString *soapMsg = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?><soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\"><soap:Body><WriteImage xmlns=\"http://myserver/imagewebservice/\"><ImgIn>%@</ImgIn></WriteImage></soap:Body></soap:Envelope>", [NSData dataWithData:imageData] ]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/service1.asmx"]; NSMutableURLRequest *req = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMsg length]]; [req addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [req addValue:@"http://myserver/imagewebservice/WriteImage" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [req addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [req setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [req setHTTPBody: [soapMsg dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; conn = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:req delegate:self]; if (conn) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } First thing, this code works fine for anything but an image. The web service is running on my local network and I can change the source code at will and if I change the "ImgIn" parameter to a string and pass a string in, everything works fine, I get a return value no problem. So there are no connectivity issues at all, I'm able to call and get data from this web service on this server no problems. But I need to upload an image to this web service via the ImgIn parameter, so the above code is my best shot so far. I also have didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError, etc all being handled. The above code fires off didRecieveResponse every time. However didReceiveData is never fired and it's like the web service itself never even runs. When I debug the web service itself, it runs and debugs fine when I use a string parameter, but with the image parameter, it never even debugs when I call it. It's almost like the ImgIn parameter is too long (it's huge when I output it to the screen) and the web service just chokes on it. I've read about having to encode to Base64 when using this method, but I can't find any good links on how that's done. If that's what I'm doing wrong, can you PLEASE provide code as to how to do this, not just "you need to use Base64", I'd really appreciate it as I can find almost nothing on how to implement this with an example. Other than that, I'm kind of lost, it seems like I'm doing everything else right. Please help! Thanks

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  • Android GridView Custom BaseAdapter ImageView ImageButton OnItemClick doesn´t work

    - by Marek
    i have a problem using a GridView with a CustomAdapter (extends BaseAdapter). any Activity implements the OnItemClickListener. if i use ImageView as item everything works fine, OnItemClick-Events will be fired/catched I have not found a useful example for a GridView with a custom BaseAdapter using ImageButton. Has anyone an idea? Many thanks in advantage! Snippets: class MyActivity extends Activity implements OnItemClickListener { ... @Override public void onCreate() { ... GridView gridview = (GridView) findViewById(R.id.gridview); gridview.setOnItemClickListener(this); gridview.setAdapter(new ImageButtonAdapter(this)); } ... @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> adapter, View view, int arg2, long arg3) { Log.e("onItemClick()", "arg2=" + arg2 + ", arg3=" + arg3); } } public class ImageButtonAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Context mContext; public LayoutMenuAdapter(Context c) { mContext = c; } public int getCount() { return mThumbIds.length; } public Object getItem(int position) { return null; } public long getItemId(int position) { return 0; } public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { /* IF I USE THIS PART EVERYTHING WORKS FINE */ // ImageView imageView; // if (convertView == null) { // imageView = new ImageView(mContext); // imageView.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(100, 100)); // imageView.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); // imageView.setPadding(0, 0, 0, 0); // imageView.setFocusable(false); // } else { // imageView = (ImageView) convertView; // } // imageView.setImageResource(mThumbIds[position]); // return imageView; /* IF I USE THIS PART NO THE ACTIVITY/LISTENER RECEIVES NO EVENT */ ImageButton imageButton; if (convertView == null) { imageButton = new ImageButton(mContext); imageButton.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(100, 100)); imageButton.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); imageButton.setPadding(0, 0, 0, 0); imageButton.setFocusable(false); } else { imageButton = (ImageButton) convertView; } imageButton.setImageResource(mThumbIds[position]); return imageButton; } // references to images private Integer[] mThumbIds = { R.drawable.media}; }

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  • Button.MouseDown

    - by Gilad
    Hi Guys, I'm relatively new with WPF. I'm trying to understand the difference between MouseDownEvent and PreviewMouseDownEvent. I understand the WPF event strategies and i understand that the MouseDown event is a bubbling event and the PreviewMouseDown is a tunneling event. I also understand the order of which these events are being fired - according to this MSDN overview http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms742806.aspx#routing (there is a diagram with example there). So i tried to code some my self, check this for example: <Grid x:Name="grid" Width="250"> <StackPanel Mouse.MouseDown="StackPanel_MouseDown" PreviewMouseDown="StackPanel_PreviewMouseDown"> <WPFVisualizerExample:MyButton x:Name="B1" PreviewMouseDown="B1_PreviewMouseDown" MouseDown="B1_MouseDown" Margin="5,5,5,5"> <WPFVisualizerExample:MyButton x:Name="B2" PreviewMouseDown="B2_PreviewMouseDown" MouseDown="B2_MouseDown" Margin="5,5,5,5"> <WPFVisualizerExample:MyButton x:Name="B3" PreviewMouseDown="B3_PreviewMouseDown" MouseDown="B3_MouseDown" Margin="5,5,5,5">Click Me</WPFVisualizerExample:MyButton> </WPFVisualizerExample:MyButton> </WPFVisualizerExample:MyButton> </StackPanel> </Grid> I have an event handler for each of the events (the preview and non-preview) and i wanted to see what is happening, which of the event is being thrown (i have a message box shown for each event). The 'MyButton' user control simply extends the base Button and override the OnMouseDown and OnPreviewMouseDown to set the e.Handled false: protected override void OnMouseDown(System.Windows.Input.MouseButtonEventArgs e) { base.OnMouseDown(e); e.Handled = false; } protected override void OnPreviewMouseDown(System.Windows.Input.MouseButtonEventArgs e) { base.OnPreviewMouseDown(e); e.Handled = false; } (tried with this and without this). According to the MSDN overview (in the link above), if i have 3 elements then the events route should be as follows: PreviewMouseDown (tunnel) on root element. PreviewMouseDown (tunnel) on intermediate element #1. PreviewMouseDown (tunnel) on source element #2. MouseDown (bubble) on source element #2. MouseDown (bubble) on intermediate element #1. MouseDown (bubble) on root element. So I expected the the message boxes to be shown according to the above. From some reason - which I don't understand only the preview events are being thrown (according to what the MSDN says Preview_B1=Preview_B2=Preview_B3). My expectations were: Preview_B1=Preview_B2=Preview_B3=NonPreview_B3=NonPreview_B2=NonPreview_B1. But the non-preview events are not being thrown at all. So basically I don't understand the route of the events, from MSDN overview I understood that the route starts from the root element, goes down (tunnel) to the source element and then back up (bubble) to the root element, but this is not what happening in practice. It is really important for me to understand how this events are working, i probably miss-understand something basic here, your help will be appreciated. THANX!! -Gili

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  • How do you stop a user-instance of Sql Server? (Sql Express user instance database files locked, eve

    - by Bittercoder
    When using SQL Server Express 2005's User Instance feature with a connection string like this: <add name="Default" connectionString="Data Source=.\SQLExpress; AttachDbFilename=C:\My App\Data\MyApp.mdf; Initial Catalog=MyApp; User Instance=True; MultipleActiveResultSets=true; Trusted_Connection=Yes;" /> We find that we can't copy the database files MyApp.mdf and MyApp_Log.ldf (because they're locked) even after stopping the SqlExpress service, and have to resort to setting the SqlExpress service from automatic to manual startup mode, and then restarting the machine, before we can then copy the files. It was my understanding that stopping the SqlExpress service should stop all the user instances as well, which should release the locks on those files. But this does not seem to be the case - could anyone shed some light on how to stop a user instance, such that it's database files are no longer locked? Update OK, I stopped being lazy and fired up Process Explorer. Lock was held by sqlserver.exe - but there are two instances of sql server: sqlserver.exe PID: 4680 User Name: DefaultAppPool sqlserver.exe PID: 4644 User Name: NETWORK SERVICE The file is open by the sqlserver.exe instance with the PID: 4680 Stopping the "SQL Server (SQLEXPRESS)" service, killed off the process with PID: 4644, but left PID: 4680 alone. Seeing as the owner of the remaining process was DefaultAppPool, next thing I tried was stopping IIS (this database is being used from an ASP.Net application). Unfortunately this didn't kill the process off either. Manually killing off the remaining sql server process does remove the open file handle on the database files, allowing them to be copied/moved. Unfortunately I wish to copy/restore those files in some pre/post install tasks of a WiX installer - as such I was hoping there might be a way to achieve this by stopping a windows service, rather then having to shell out to kill all instances of sqlserver.exe as that poses some problems: Killing all the sqlserver.exe instances may have undesirable consequencies for users with other Sql Server instances on their machines. I can't restart those instances easily. Introduces additional complexities into the installer. Does anyone have any further thoughts on how to shutdown instances of sql server associated with a specific user instance?

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  • Should Application_End fire on an automatic App Pool Recycle?

    - by Laramie
    I have read this, this, this and this plus a dozen other posts/blogs. I have an ASP.Net app in shared hosting that is frequently recycling. We use NLog and have the following code in global.asax void Application_Start(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION STARTING\r\n\r\n"); } protected void Application_OnEnd(Object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION_OnEnd\r\n\r\n"); } void Application_End(object sender, EventArgs e) { HttpRuntime runtime = (HttpRuntime)typeof(System.Web.HttpRuntime).InvokeMember("_theRuntime", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.GetField, null, null, null); if (runtime == null) return; string shutDownMessage = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownMessage", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); string shutDownStack = (string)runtime.GetType().InvokeMember("_shutDownStack", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.GetField, null, runtime, null); ApplicationShutdownReason shutdownReason = System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.ShutdownReason; NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug(String.Format("\r\n\r\nAPPLICATION END\r\n\r\n_shutDownReason = {2}\r\n\r\n _shutDownMessage = {0}\r\n\r\n_shutDownStack = {1}\r\n\r\n", shutDownMessage, shutDownStack, shutdownReason)); } void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { NLog.Logger logger = NLog.LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); logger.Debug("\r\n\r\nApplication_Error\r\n\r\n"); } Our log file is littered with "APPLICATION STARTING" entries, but neither Application_OnEnd, Application_End, nor Application_Error are ever fired during these spontaneous restarts. I know they are working because there are entries for touching the web.config or /bin files. We also ran a memory overload test and can trigger an OutOfMemoryException which is caught in Application_Error. We are trying to determine whether the virtual memory limit is causing the recycling. We have added GC.GetTotalMemory(false) throughout the code, but this is for all of .Net, not just our App´s pool, correct? We've also tried var oPerfCounter = new PerformanceCounter(); oPerfCounter.CategoryName = "Process"; oPerfCounter.CounterName = "Virtual Bytes"; oPerfCounter.InstanceName = "iisExpress"; logger.Debug("Virtual Bytes: " + oPerfCounter.RawValue + " bytes"); but don't have permission in shared hosting. I've monitored the app on a dev server with the same requests that caused the recycles in production with ANTS Memory Profiler attached and can't seem to find a culprit. We have also run it with a debugger attached in dev to check for uncaught exceptions in spawned threads that might cause the app to abort. My questions are these: How can I effectively monitor memory usage in shared hosting to tell how much my application is consuming prior to an application recycle? Why are the Application_[End/OnEnd/Error] handlers in global.asax not being called? How else can I determine what is causing these recycles? Thanks.

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  • Agilent E4426B signal generator locks up during multiple GPIB *SAV operations

    - by aspiehler
    I have a test fixture with an Agilent E4426B RF signal generator connected to a PC via a National Instrument Ethernet-to-GPIB bridge. My software is attempting to sanitize the instrument by presetting it and then saving the current state to all of the memory locations writable via the standard SCPI command "*SAV x,y". The loop works to a point, but eventually the instrument responds with an error and continuously displays the "L" icon on the front display and a "Remote preset" message at the bottom. At that point it won't respond to any more remote commands and I have to either cycle power or press LOCAL, then PRESET at which point it takes about 3 minutes to finish presetting. At that point the "L" icon is still present and and the next GPIB command sent to the instrument causes it to report a -113 error (undefined header) in the instrument error queue. I fired up NI spy to see what was happening, and found that the error was happening at the same point in the loop - "*SAV 6,2" in this case. From NI Spy: Send (0, 0x0017, "*SAV 6,2", 8 (0x8), NLend (0,0x01)) Process ID: 0x00000520 Thread ID: 0x00000518 ibsta:0xc168 iberr: 6 ibcntl: 2(0x2) And here's the code from the instrument driver: int CHP_E4426b::Erase() { if ((m_StatusCode = Initialize()) != GPIB_SUCCESS) // basically just sends "*RST" return m_StatusCode; m_SaveState = "*SAV %d, %d"; for (int i=0; i < 10; i++) for (int j=0; j < 100; j++) { sprintf(m_CmdString, m_SaveState, j, i); if ((m_StatusCode = Send(m_CmdString, strlen(m_CmdString))) != GPIB_SUCCESS) return m_StatusCode; } return GPIB_SUCCESS; } I tried putting a small Sleep() delay (10-20 ms) at the end of the inner loop, and to my surprise it caused the error to show up earlier rather than later. 10 ms caused the loop to error out at 44,1 and 20 ms was even sooner. I've already eliminated faulty cabling or the instrument as the culprit. This same type of sequence works without any error on a higher end signal generator, so I'm tempted to chalk this up to a bug in the instrument's firmware.

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  • Javascript HTML and Script injection issue in IE

    - by MartinHN
    Hi I have a javascript variable containing escaped HTML. There can be script tags inside the HTML, like this: var valueToInsert = "%3Cscript%20type%3D%22text/javascript%22%3Ealert%28%27test%27%29%3B%3C/script%3E%0A%3Cscript%20type%3D%22text/javascript%22%20src%3D%22http%3A//devserver/testinclude.js%22%3E%3C/script%3E%0A%3Cimg%20src%3D%22http%3A//www.footballpictures.net/data/media/131/manchester_united_logo.jpg%22%20/%3E" I want to append this to the DOM, and get all the javascript fired as expected. Right now I'm using this approach: var div = document.createElement("div"); div.innerHTML = unescape(valueToInsert); document.body.appendChild(div); In IE, at the time i set div.innerHTML - all script tags are removed. If I use jQuery to and do this: $(document.body).append(valueToInsert) It all works fine. Bad thing is, that I cannot use jQuery as this code will be added to sites I'm not in control of using some "already-implemented" script includes. Does someone have a trick? If jQuery can do it, it must be possible? I had another issue in Opera. I changed the injection script to be this: (still doesn't work in IE) var div = document.createElement("div"); div.innerHTML = unescape(valueToInsert); var a = new Array(); for (var i = 0; i < div.childNodes.length; i++) a.push(div.childNodes[i]); for (var i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { if (a[i].nodeName == "SCRIPT" && a[i].getAttribute("src") != null && a[i].getAttribute("src") != "" && typeof (a[i].getAttribute("src")) != "undefined") { var scriptTag = document.createElement("script"); scriptTag.src = a[i].getAttribute("src"); scriptTag.type = "text/javascript"; document.body.appendChild(scriptTag); } else if (a[i].nodeName == "SCRIPT") { eval(a[i].innerHTML); } else { document.body.appendChild(a[i]); } }

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  • Core Animation performance on iphone

    - by nico
    I'm trying to do some animations using Core Animation on the iphone. I'm using CABasicAnimation on CALayer. It's a straight forward animation from a random place at the top of the screen to the bottom of the screen at random speed, I have 30 elements that doing the same animation continuously until another action happens. But the performance on the iPhone 3G is very sluggish when the animations start. The image is only 8k. Is this the right approach? How should I change so it performs better. // image cached somewhere else. CGImageRef imageRef = [[UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:name ofType:@"png"]] CGImage]; - (void)animate:(NSTimer *)timer { int startX = round(radom() % 320); float speed = 1 / round(random() % 100 + 2); CALayer *layer = [CALayer layer]; layer.name = @"layer"; layer.contents = imageRef; // cached image layer.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, CGImageGetWidth(imageRef), CGImageGetHeight(imageRef)); int width = layer.frame.size.width; int height = layer.frame.size.height; layer.frame = CGRectMake(startX, self.view.frame.origin.y, width, height); [effectLayer addSublayer:layer]; CGPoint start = CGPointMake(startX, 0); CGPoint end = CGPointMake(startX, self.view.frame.size.height); float repeatCount = 1e100; CABasicAnimation *animation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; animation.delegate = self; animation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:start]; animation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:end]; animation.duration = speed; animation.repeatCount = repeatCount; animation.autoreverses = NO; animation.removedOnCompletion = YES; animation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [layer addAnimation:animation forKey:@"position"]; } The animations are fired off using a NSTimer. animationTimer = [NSTimer timerWithTimeInterval:0.2 target:self selector:@selector(animate:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [[NSRunLoop currentRunLoop] addTimer:animationTimer forMode:NSDefaultRunLoopMode];

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  • Forcing a checkbox bound to a DataSource to update when it has not been viewed yet.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    Here is a test framework to show what I am doing: create a new project add a tabbed control on tab 1 put a button on tab 2 put a check box paste this code for its code (use default names for controls) public partial class Form1 : Form { private List<bool> boolList = new List<bool>(); BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); boolList.Add(false); bs.DataSource = boolList; checkBox1.DataBindings.Add("Checked", bs, ""); this.button1.Click += new System.EventHandler(this.button1_Click); this.checkBox1.CheckedChanged += new System.EventHandler(this.checkBox1_CheckedChanged); } bool updating = false; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { updating = true; boolList[0] = true; bs.ResetBindings(false); Application.DoEvents(); updating = false; } private void checkBox1_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!updating) MessageBox.Show("CheckChanged fired outside of updating"); } } The issue is if you run the program and look at tab 2 then press the button on tab 1 the program works as expected, however if you press the button on tab 1 then look at tab 2 the event for the checkbox will not fire untill you look at tab 2. The reason for this is the controll on tab 2 is not in the "created" state, so its binding to change the checkbox from unchecked to checked does not happen until after the control has been "Created". checkbox1.CreateControl() does not do anything because according to MSDN CreateControl does not create a control handle if the control's Visible property is false. You can either call the CreateHandle method or access the Handle property to create the control's handle regardless of the control's visibility, but in this case, no window handles are created for the control's children. I tried getting the value of Handle(there is no public CreateHandle() for CheckBox) but still the same result. Any suggestions other than have the program quickly flash all of my tabs that have data-bound check boxes when it first loads? EDIT-- per Jaxidian's suggestion I created a new class public class newcheckbox : CheckBox { public new void CreateHandle() { base.CreateHandle(); } } I call CreateHandle() right after updating = true same results as before.

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  • How to know when a user has really released a key in Java?

    - by Luis Soeiro
    (Edited for clarity) I want to detect when a user presses and releases a key in Java Swing, ignoring the keyboard auto repeat feature. I also would like a pure Java approach the works on Linux, Mac OS and Windows. Requirements: When the user presses some key I want to know what key is that; When the user releases some key, I want to know what key is that; I want to ignore the system auto repeat options: I want to receive just one keypress event for each key press and just one key release event for each key release; If possible, I would use items 1 to 3 to know if the user is holding more than one key at a time (i.e, she hits 'a' and without releasing it, she hits "Enter"). The problem I'm facing in Java is that under Linux, when the user holds some key, there are many keyPress and keyRelease events being fired (because of the keyboard repeat feature). I've tried some approaches with no success: Get the last time a key event occurred - in Linux, they seem to be zero for key repeat, however, in Mac OS they are not; Consider an event only if the current keyCode is different from the last one - this way the user can't hit twice the same key in a row; Here is the basic (non working) part of code: import java.awt.event.KeyListener; public class Example implements KeyListener { public void keyTyped(KeyEvent e) { } public void keyPressed(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyPressed: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } public void keyReleased(KeyEvent e) { System.out.println("KeyReleased: "+e.getKeyCode()+", ts="+e.getWhen()); } } When a user holds a key (i.e, 'p') the system shows: KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271673 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271923 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271956 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637271990 KeyReleased: 80, ts=1253637272023 KeyPressed: 80, ts=1253637272023 ... At least under Linux, the JVM keeps resending all the key events when a key is being hold. To make things more difficult, on my system (Kubuntu 9.04 Core 2 Duo) the timestamps keep changing. The JVM sends a key new release and new key press with the same timestamp. This makes it hard to know when a key is really released. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Why SQL2008 debugger would NOT step into a certain child stored procedure

    - by John Galt
    I'm encountering differences in T-SQL with SQL2008 (vs. SQL2000) that are leading me to dead-ends. I've verified that the technique of sharing #TEMP tables between a caller which CREATES the #TEMP and the child sProc which references it remain valid in SQL2008 See recent SO question. My core problem remains a critical "child" stored procedure that works fine in SQL2000 but fails in SQL2008 (i.e. a FROM clause in the child sProc is coded as: SELECT * FROM #AREAS A) despite #AREAS being created by the calling parent. Rather than post snippets of the code now, here is another symptom that may help you suggest something. I fired up the new debugger in SQL Mgmt Studio: EXEC dbo.AMS1 @S1='06',@C1='037',@StartDate='01/01/2008',@EndDate='07/31/2008',@Type=1,@ACReq = 1,@Output = 0,@NumofLines = 30,@SourceTable = 'P',@LoanPurposeCatg='P' This is a very large sProc and the key snippet that is weird is the following: **create table #Areas ( State char(2) , County char(3) , ZipCode char(5) NULL , CityName varchar(28) NULL , PData varchar(3) NULL , RData varchar(3) NULL , SMSA_CD varchar(10) NULL , TypeCounty varchar(50) , StateAbbr char(2) ) EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 -- this child populates #Areas @SMSA = @SMSA , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @SourceTable = @SourceTable , @CustomID = @CustomID , @UserName = @UserName , @CityName = @CityName , @Debug=0 EXECUTE dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC -- this child cannot reference #Areas @StartDate = @StartDate , @EndDate = @EndDate , @SMSA_CD = @SMSA_CD , @S1 = @S1 , @C1 = @C1 , @Z1 = @Z1 , @CityName = @CityName , @CustomID = @CustomID , @Debug=0 -- continuation of the parent sProc** I can step through the execution of the parent stored procedure. When I get to the first child sproc above, I can either STEP INTO dbo.AMS_I_GetAreasV5 or STEP OVER its execution. When I arrive at the invocation of the 2nd child sProc - dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC - I try to STEP INTO it (because that is where the problem statement is) and STEP INTO is ignored (i.e. treated like STEP OVER instead; yet I KNOW I pressed F11 not F10). It WAS executed however, because when control is returned to the statement after the EXECUTE, I click Continue to finish execution and the results windows shows the errors in the dbo.AMS_I_GetAreas_FixAC (i.e. the 2nd child) stored procedure. Is there a way to "pre-load" an sProc with the goal of setting a breakpoint on its entry so that I can pursue execution inside it? In summary, I wonder if the inability to step into a given child sproc might be related to the same inability of this particular child to reference a #temp created by its parent (caller).

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  • Custom dynamic error pages in Ruby on Rails not working

    - by PlanetMaster
    Hi, I'm trying to implement custom dynamic error pages following this post: http://www.perfectline.co.uk/blog/custom-dynamic-error-pages-in-ruby-on-rails I did exactly what the blog post says. I included config.action_controller.consider_all_requests_local = false in my environment.rb. But is not working. My browser shows: Routing Error No route matches "/555" with {:method=>:get} So, it looks like the rescues are not fired. I get the following in my log file: ActionController::RoutingError (No route matches "/555" with {:method=>:get}): Rendering rescues/layout (not_found) Is there some routing interfering with the code? I'm not sure what to look for. I'm running rails 2.3.5. Here is the routes.rb file: ActionController::Routing::Routes.draw do |map| # routing van property-url map.connect 'buy/:property_type_plural/:province/:city/:address/:house_number', :controller => 'properties' , :action => 'show', :id => 'whatever' map.myimmonatie 'myimmonatie' , :controller => 'myimmonatie/properties', :action => 'index' map.login "login", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "create", :conditions => {:method => :post} map.login "login", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "new" map.logout "logout", :controller => "user_sessions", :action => "destroy" map.buy "buy", :controller => 'buy' map.sell "sell", :controller => 'sell' map.home "home", :controller => 'home' map.disclaimer "disclaimer", :controller => 'disclaimer' map.sign_up "sign_up", :controller => 'users', :action => :new map.contact "contact", :controller => 'contact' map.resources :user_sessions map.resources :contact map.resources :password_resets map.resources :messages map.resources :users, :only => [:index,:new,:create,:activate,:edit,:profile,:password] map.resources :images map.resources :activation , :only => [:new,:resend] map.resources :email map.resources :properties, :except => [:index,:destroy] map.namespace :admin do |admin| admin.resources :users admin.resources :properties admin.resources :order_items, :as => :orders admin.resources :blog_posts, :as => :blog end map.connect 'myimmonatie/:action' , :controller => 'users', :id => 'current', :requirements => {:action => /(profile)|(password)|(email)/} map.namespace :myimmonatie do |myimmonatie| myimmonatie.resources :messages, :controller => 'messages' myimmonatie.resources :password, :as => "password", :controller => 'users', :action => 'password' myimmonatie.resources :properties , :controller => 'properties' myimmonatie.resources :orders , :only => [:index,:show,:create,:new] end map.root :controller => "home" map.connect ':controller/:action' map.connect ':controller/:action/:id' map.connect ':controller/:action/:id.:format' end ActionController::Routing::Translator.translate_from_file('config','i18n-routes.yml')

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  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

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  • Symfony : ajax call cause server to queue next queries

    - by Remiz
    Hello, I've a problem with my application when an ajax call on the server takes too much time : it queue all the others queries from the user until it's done server side (I realized that canceling the call client side has no effect and the user still have to wait). Here is my test case : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="another-page.php">Go to another page on the same server</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = 'http://localserver/some-very-long-complex-query'; $.get(url); </script> So when the get is fired and then after I click on the link, the server finish serving the first call before bringing me to the other page. My problem is that I want to avoid this behavior. I'm on a LAMP server and I'm looking in a way to inform the server that the user aborted the query with function like connection_aborted(), do you think that's the way to go ? Also, I know that the longest part of this PHP script is a MySQL query, so even if I know that connection_aborted() can detect that the user cancel the call, I still need to check this during the MySQL query... I'm not really sure that PHP can handle this kind of "event". So if you have any better idea, I can't wait to hear it. Thank you. Update : After further investigation, I found that the problem happen only with the Symfony framework (that I omitted to precise, my bad). It seems that an Ajax call lock any other future call. It maybe related to the controller or the routing system, I'm looking into it. Also for those interested by the problem here is my new test case : -new project with Symfony 1.4.3, default configuration, I just created an app and a default module. -jquery 1.4 for the ajax query. Here is my actions.class.php (in my unique module) : class defaultActions extends sfActions { public function executeIndex(sfWebRequest $request) { //Do nothing } public function executeNewpage() { //Do also nothing } public function executeWaitingaction(){ // Wait sleep(30); return false; } } Here is my indexSuccess.php template file : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="<?php echo url_for('default/newpage');?>">Go to another symfony action</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = '<?php echo url_for('default/waitingaction');?>'; $.get(url); </script> For the new page template, it's not very relevant... But with this, I'm able to reproduce the lock problem I've on my real application. Is somebody else having the same issue ? Thanks.

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  • How can you prevent both jumpiness, and interrupting tweens with animated Flash buttons?

    - by Kevin Suttle
    This is something I've never been able to figure out. You've got a button offscreen you want to animate in. We'll call it 'btn.' You've got a hit area that serves as the proximity sensor to trigger btn's animation. We'll call it 'hitZone' (as to not cause confusion with the hitArea property of display objects). Both btn and hitZone are MovieClips. The listeners go something like this. import com.greensock.*; import com.greensock.easing.*; import flash.events.MouseEvent; var endPoint:Number = 31; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onHitZoneClick); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onBtnOver); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onBtnOut); btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onBtnClick); btn.mouseChildren = false; function onHitZoneOver(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:endPoint, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("over hitZone"); } function onHitZoneOut(e:MouseEvent):void { TweenLite.to(btn, 0.75, {x:-1, ease:Expo.easeOut}); trace("out hitZone"); } function onBtnOver(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = false; hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("over BTN"); // This line is the only thing keeping the btn animation from being fired continuously // causing jumpiness. However, calling this allows the animation to be interrupted // at any point. TweenLite.killTweensOf(btn); } function onBtnOut(e:MouseEvent):void { hitZone.mouseEnabled = true; hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, onHitZoneOver); hitZone.addEventListener(MouseEvent.ROLL_OUT, onHitZoneOut); trace("out BTN"); } function onBtnClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click BTN"); } function onHitZoneClick(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("click hitZone"); } The issue is when your mouse is over both the hitZone and btn. The button continuously jumps unless you call TweenLite.killAllTweensOf(). This fixes the jumpiness, but it introduces a new problem. Now, it's very easy to interrupt the animation of the btn at any point, stopping it before it's totally visible on the stage. I've seen similar posts, but even they suffer from the same issue. Perhaps it's a problem with how Flash detects edges, because I've never once seen a workaround for this.

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  • RadioButton checkedchanged event firing multiple times

    - by kash3
    Hi, I am trying to add multiple radiobutton columns to my gridview dynamically in the code and i want to implement some logic which involves database fetch in the checkedchanged event of radiobuttons but some how the checked changed event is being fired multiple times for each row. Following is the code: aspx: <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" BackColor="White" BorderColor="#CC9966" BorderStyle="None" EnableViewState="true" BorderWidth="1px" CellPadding="4" Font-Names="Verdana"> <FooterStyle BackColor="#FFFFCC" ForeColor="#330099" /> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Select One"> <ItemTemplate> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Select Two"> <ItemTemplate> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="lblval" runat="server" Text="!" ForeColor="Red" Visible="false"/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> **code behind** void GridView1_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { if (e.Row.DataItem != null) { DataRowView dvRowview = (DataRowView)e.Row.DataItem; int currentRow = GridView1.Rows.Count; RadioButton rdoSelect1 = new RadioButton(); rdoSelect1.GroupName = "Select" + currentRow; rdoSelect1.ID = string.Concat("rdoSelect1", currentRow); rdoSelect1.AutoPostBack = true; rdoSelect1.CheckedChanged += new EventHandler(rdoSelect_CheckedChanged); e.Row.Cells[0].Controls.Add(rdoSelect1); RadioButton rdoSelect2 = new RadioButton(); rdoSelect2.GroupName = "Select" + currentRow; rdoSelect2.ID = string.Concat("rdoSelect2", currentRow); rdoSelect2.AutoPostBack = true; rdoSelect2.CheckedChanged += new EventHandler(rdoSelect_CheckedChanged); e.Row.Cells[1].Controls.Add(rdoSelect2); if (!IsPostBack) { e.Row.Cells[e.Row.Cells.Count - 1].Controls[1].Visible = false; if (e.Row.Cells[0] != null && Convert.ToBoolean(dvRowview["Select1"]) == true) rdoSelect1.Checked = true; else rdoSelect1.Checked = false; if (e.Row.Cells[0] != null && Convert.ToBoolean(dvRowview["Select2"]) == true) rdoSelect2.Checked = true; else rdoSelect2.Checked = false; } } } void rdoSelect_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { RadioButton rdoSelectedOption = (RadioButton)sender; GridViewRow selRow = rdoSelectedOption.NamingContainer as GridViewRow; if (rdoSelectedOption.Checked) selRow.Cells[selRow.Cells.Count - 1].Controls[1].Visible = true; else selRow.Cells[selRow.Cells.Count - 1].Controls[1].Visible = false; } i want the checkedchanged event to fire only once for a group name and row.

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  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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  • jquery event namespace bubbling issue

    - by Adrian Adkison
    Hi, I stumbled upon an issue with event namespacing while developing a jQuery plugin. here is the html <div class="parent"> <div class="child"> </div> </div> <a class="btn-a">trigger a</a> <a class="btn-b">trigger b</a> <a class="btn-c">trigger c</a> Here is the jQuery jQuery('#content div.child') .bind('child.a',function(){alert('a-child');}) .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-child');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-child');}); jQuery('#content div.parent') .bind('child.b',function(){alert('b-parent');}) .bind('child.c',function(){alert('c-parent');}); jQuery('a.btn-a') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.a'); }); jQuery('a.btn-b') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.b'); }); jQuery('a.btn-c') .click(function(){ jQuery('#content div.child').trigger('a.c'); }); In sum, I have attached a namespaced event listener to the child and parent and created three buttons that trigger each of the events(a.a, a.b, a.c). Note the parent is only listening to a.b and a.c. When I click on the button that triggers a.a on the child, only the div.child listener for a.a is fired, but the entire 'a' namespace event bubbles up to div.parent listeners, a.b and a.c, and triggers them. My question is, how would I still use event namespacing but only have the intended event bubble up(i.e. a.a is the only event that fires for both child and parent). I am aware of stopPropagation and stopImmediatePropagation. I would not want to put these on the child a.b and a.c listeners because there are times when i do want them to bubble. For instance when I trigger 'a.b' on the child, I would expect the 'a.b' and only the 'a.b' event to be handled by the child and the parent. Thanks

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