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• What is the benefit of using ONLY OpenID authentication on a site?

  - by Peter

  From my experience with OpenID, I see a number of significant downsides: Adds a Single Point of Failure to the site It is not a failure that can be fixed by the site even if detected. If the OpenID provider is down for three days, what recourse does the site have to allow its users to login and access the information they own? Takes a user to another sites content and every time they logon to your site Even if the OpenID provider does not have an error, the user is re-directed to their site to login. The login page has content and links. So there is a chance a user will actually be drawn away from the site to go down the Internet rabbit hole. Why would I want to send my users to another company's website? [ Note: my provider no longer does this and seems to have fixed this problem (for now).] Adds a non-trivial amount of time to the signup To sign up with the site a new user is forced to read a new standard, chose a provider, and signup. Standards are something that the technical people should agree to in order to make a user experience frictionless. They are not something that should be thrust on the users. It is a Phisher's Dream OpenID is incredibly insecure and stealing the person's ID as they log in is trivially easy. [ taken from David Arno's Answer below ] For all of the downside, the one upside is to allow users to have fewer logins on the Internet. If a site has opt-in for OpenID then users who want that feature can use it. What I would like to understand is: What benefit does a site get for making OpenID mandatory?

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• iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

  - by randombits

  According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

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• Why does GetWindowThreadProcessId return 0 when called from a service

  - by Marve

  When using the following class in a console application, and having at least one instance of Notepad running, GetWindowThreadProcessId correctly returns a non-zero thread id. However, if the same code is included in a Windows Service, GetWindowThreadProcessId always returns 0 and no exceptions are thrown. Changing the user the service launches under to be the same as the one running the console application didn't alter the result. What causes GetWindowThreadProcessId to return 0 even if it is provided with a valid hwnd? And why does it function differently in the console application and the service? Note: I am running Windows 7 32-bit and targeting .NET 3.5. public class TestClass { [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(IntPtr hWnd, IntPtr ProcessId); public void AttachToNotepad() { var processesToAttachTo = Process.GetProcessesByName("Notepad") foreach (var process in processesToAttachTo) { var threadID = GetWindowThreadProcessId(process.MainWindowHandle, IntPtr.Zero); .... } } } Console Code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var testClass = new TestClass(); testClass.AttachToNotepad(); } } Service Code: public class TestService : ServiceBase { private TestClass testClass = new TestClass(); static void Main() { ServiceBase.Run(new TestService()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { testClass.AttachToNotepad(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { ... } }

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• Java: how do I get a class literal from a generic type?

  - by Tom

  Typically, I've seen people use the class literal like this: Class<Foo> cls = Foo.class; But what if the type is generic, e.g. List? This works fine, but has a warning since List should be parameterized: Class<List> cls = List.class So why not add a <?>? Well, this causes a type mismatch error: Class<List<?>> cls = List.class I figured something like this would work, but this is just a plain ol' a syntax error: Class<List<Foo>> cls = List<Foo>.class How can I get a Class<List<Foo>> statically, e.g. using the class literal? I could use @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") to get rid of the warnings caused by the non-parameterized use of List in the first example, Class<List> cls = List.class, but I'd rather not. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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• Ad distribution problem: an optimal solution?

  - by Mokuchan

  I'm asked to find a 2 approximate solution to this problem: You’re consulting for an e-commerce site that receives a large number of visitors each day. For each visitor i, where i € {1, 2 ..... n}, the site has assigned a value v[i], representing the expected revenue that can be obtained from this customer. Each visitor i is shown one of m possible ads A1, A2 ..... An as they enter the site. The site wants a selection of one ad for each customer so that each ad is seen, overall, by a set of customers of reasonably large total weight. Thus, given a selection of one ad for each customer, we will define the spread of this selection to be the minimum, over j = 1, 2 ..... m, of the total weight of all customers who were shown ad Aj. Example Suppose there are six customers with values 3, 4, 12, 2, 4, 6, and there are m = 3 ads. Then, in this instance, one could achieve a spread of 9 by showing ad A1 to customers 1, 2, 4, ad A2 to customer 3, and ad A3 to customers 5 and 6. The ultimate goal is to find a selection of an ad for each customer that maximizes the spread. Unfortunately, this optimization problem is NP-hard (you don’t have to prove this). So instead give a polynomial-time algorithm that approximates the maximum spread within a factor of 2. The solution I found is the following: Order visitors values in descending order Add the next visitor value (i.e. assign the visitor) to the Ad with the current lowest total value Repeat This solution actually seems to always find the optimal solution, or I simply can't find a counterexample. Can you find it? Is this a non-polinomial solution and I just can't see it?

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• Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

  - by Jack

  Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

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• Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

  - by Kyle

  I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

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• Tips for Using Multiple Development Systems

  - by Tim Lytle

  When I travel, I don't pack up the desktop I use in the office and take it with me. Maybe I should, but I don't. However, since I'm a contract programmer I like to be able to work wherever I am: I'm mostly thinking of web development here. Version Control goes a long way in keeping sane and working on multiple projects on multiple systems (two or three computers); however, there are the issues of: IDE settings - different display sizes mean the IDE settings can't be completely synced, if at all. Database - if the database is 'external' (even if it's running on the same system, it's not in version control), how do you maintain the needed syncs of structure. Development Stack - Some projects need non-standard extensions, libraries, etc installed. Just an overview of some of the hassle involved with developing on multiple systems. I'll probably end up asking some specific questions, but I thought a CW style tips might reveal some things I would even think to ask about. Update: I guess this would also address tips to make upgrading/replacing your development system easier (something I've just done). So, one tip per answer please, so the 'top' tips are easy to find. How do you make it easier to develop on multiple systems, or to transfer work after upgrading/replaceing a development system?

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• Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

  - by zildjohn01

  I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

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• How to read time from recorded surveillance camera video?

  - by stressed_geek

  I have a problem where I have to read the time of recording from the video recorded by a surveillance camera. The time shows up on the top-left area of the video. Below is a link to screen grab of the area which shows the time. Also, the digit color(white/black) keeps changing during the duration of the video. http://i55.tinypic.com/2j5gca8.png Please guide me in the direction to approach this problem. I am a Java programmer so would prefer an approach through Java. EDIT: Thanks unhillbilly for the comment. I had looked at the Ron Cemer OCR library and its performance is much below our requirement. Since the ocr performance is less than desired, I was planning to build a character set using the screen grabs for all the digits, and using some image/pixel comparison library to compare the frame time with the character-set which will show a probabilistic result after comparison. So I was looking for a good image comparison library(I would be OK with a non-java library which I can run using the command-line). Also any advice on the above approach would be really helpful.

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• PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

  - by Misiur

  Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

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• What is the proper way to use a Logger in a Serializable Java class?

  - by Tim Visher

  I have the following (doctored) class in a system I'm working on and Findbugs is generating a SE_BAD_FIELD warning and I'm trying to understand why it would say that before I fix it in the way that I thought I would. The reason I'm confused is because the description would seem to indicate that I had used no other non-serializable instance fields in the class but bar.model.Foo is also not serializable and used in the exact same way (as far as I can tell) but Findbugs generates no warning for it. import bar.model.Foo; import java.io.File; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.List; import org.slf4j.Logger; import org.slf4j.LoggerFactory; public class Demo implements Serializable { private final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); private final File file; private final List<Foo> originalFoos; private Integer count; private int primitive = 0; public Demo() { for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } ... } My initial blush at a solution is to get a logger reference from the factory right as I use it: public DispositionFile() { Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } That doesn't seem particularly efficient, though. Thoughts?

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• Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

  - by Ben Robinson

  We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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• Problem convert column values from VARCHAR(n) to DECIMAL

  - by Kevin Babcock

  I have a SQL Server 2000 database with a column of type VARCHAR(255). All the data is either NULL, or numeric data with up to two points of precision (e.g. '11.85'). I tried to run the following T-SQL query but received the error 'Error converting data type varchar to numeric' SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; I tried a more specific cast, which also failed. SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL(6,2)) FROM [MyTable]; I also tried the following to see if any data is non-numeric, and the only values returned were NULL. SELECT ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]), [MyColumn] FROM [MyTable] WHERE ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]) = 0; I tried to convert to other data types, such as FLOAT and MONEY, but only MONEY was successful. So I tried the following: SELECT CAST(CAST([MyColumn] AS MONEY) AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; ...which worked just fine. Any ideas why the original query failed? Will there be a problem if I first convert to MONEY and then to DECIMAL? Thanks!

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• Shrinking the transaction log of a mirrored SQL Server 2005 database

  - by Peter Di Cecco

  I've been looking all over the internet and I can't find an acceptable solution to my problem, I'm wondering if there even is a solution without a compromise... I'm not a DBA, but I'm a one man team working on a huge web site with no extra funding for extra bodies, so I'm doing the best I can. Our backup plan sucks, and I'm having a really hard time improving it. Currently, there are two servers running SQL Server 2005. I have a mirrored database (no witness) that seems to be working well. I do a full backup at noon and at midnight. These get backed up to tape by our service provider nightly, and I burn the backup files to dvd weekly to keep old records on hand. Eventually I'd like to switch to log shipping, since mirroring seems kinda pointless without a witness server. The issue is that the transaction log is growing non-stop. From the research I've done, it seems that I can't truncate a log file of a mirrored database. So how do I stop the file from growing!? Based on this web page, I tried this: USE dbname GO CHECKPOINT GO BACKUP LOG dbname TO DISK='NULL' WITH NOFORMAT, INIT, NAME = N'dbnameLog Backup', SKIP, NOREWIND, NOUNLOAD GO DBCC SHRINKFILE('dbname_Log', 2048) GO But that didn't work. Everything else I've found says I need to disable the mirror before running the backup log command in order for it to work. My Question (TL;DR) How can I shrink my transaction log file without disabling the mirror?

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• mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

  - by meeble

  I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

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• Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

  - by Tyler McHenry

  I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

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• Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

  - by BitFiddler

  So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

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• Fatal error with Custom Magento Module on one server but not the other

  - by Jack

  Hi, I am creating my own custom module in Magento and during testing on a Litespeed server (PHP v5.2.14) I am getting a Fatal Error: Call to a member function batch() on a non-object in ../../../BatchController.php on line 25 that was not appearing during testing on another linux server and a wamp server (PHP v5.2.11). This one has stumped me. I am guessing it has something to do with the server configuration rather than the code itself. But i am just guessing. I was hoping someone here could tell me. The only real major difference I could see, aside from the php versions and environment, is that the server that the error is on is using the Suhosin Patch. But would that be something that could cause this? The line in question is Mage::getModel('mymodule/mymodel')->batch(); which is enclosed in an IF statement. batch() is a public function located in my model file. If you need more code let me know. Thanks!

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• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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• Which templating languages output HTML *as a tree of nodes*?

  - by alamar

  HTML is a tree of nodes, before all. It's not just a text. However, most templating engines handle their input and output as it was just a text; they don't care what happens around their tags, their {$foo}'s and <% bar() %>'s; also they don't care about what are they outputting. Sometimes they happen to produce a correct html, but that's just a coincidence; they didn't aim for that, all they wanted is to replace some funny marks in the text stream with their evaluation. There are a few templating engines which do treat their output as a set of nodes; XSLT and Haml come to mind. For some tasks, this has advantages: for example, you can automatically reformat (like, delete all empty text nodes; auto-indent; word-wrap). The result is guaranteed to be a correct xml/sgml unless you use a strict subset of operations that can break that. Also, such templating engine would automatically quote strings, differently in text nodes and in attributes, because it strictly knows whether you're writing an attribute or a text node. Moreover, it can conditionally remove a node from output because it knows where it does begin and end, which is useful, and do other non-trivial node operations. You might not like XSLT for its verbosiness or functionalness, but it's damn helps that your template is xmllint-able XML, and your output is a good sgml/xml. So the question is: Which template engines do you know that treat their output as a set of correct nodes, not just an unstructured text? I know XSLT, Haml and some obscure python-based one. Moar!

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• gcc -finline-functions behaviour?

  - by user176168

  I'm using gcc with the -finline-functions optimization for release builds. In order to combat code bloat because I work on an embedded system I want to say don't inline particular functions. The obvious way to do this would be through function attributes ie attribute(noinline). The problem is this doesn't seem to work when I switch on the global -finline-functions optimisation which is part of the -O3 switch. It also has something to do with it being templated as a non templated version of the same function doesn't get inlined which is as expected. Has anybody any idea of how to control inlining when this global switch is on? Here's the code: #include <cstdlib> #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Base { public: template<typename _Type_> static _Type_ fooT( _Type_ x, _Type_ y ) __attribute__ (( noinline )); }; template<typename _Type_> _Type_ Base::fooT( _Type_ x, _Type_ y ) { asm(""); return x + y; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int test = Base::fooT( 1, 2 ); printf( "test = %d\n", test ); system("PAUSE"); return EXIT_SUCCESS; }

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• Multi-reader IPC solution?

  - by gct

  I'm working on a framework in C++ (just for fun for now), that lets the user write plugins that use a standard API to stream data between each other. There's going to be three basic transport mechanisms for the data: files, sockets, and some kind of IPC piping system. The system is set up so that for the non-file transport, each stream can have multiple readers. IE once a server socket it setup, multiple computers can connect and stream the data. I'm a little stuck at the multi-reader IPC system though. All my plugins run in threads so they live in the same address space, so some kind of shared memory system would work fine, I was thinking I'd write my own circular buffer with a write pointer and read pointers chassing it around the buffer, but I have my doubts that I can achieve the same performance as something like linux pipes. I'm curious what people would suggest for a multi-reader solution to something like this? Is the overhead for pipes or domain sockets low enough that I could just open a connection to each reader and issue separate writes to each reader? This is intended to be significant volumes of data (tens of mega-samples/sec), so performance is a must.

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• implementing a read/write field for an interface that only defines read

  - by PaulH

  I have a C# 2.0 application where a base interface allows read-only access to a value in a concrete class. But, within the concrete class, I'd like to have read/write access to that value. So, I have an implementation like this: public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } } public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } internal set { start_time_ = value; } } } But, this gives me the error: Foo.cs(200,22): error CS0546: 'Foo.StartTime.set': cannot override because 'Base.StartTime' does not have an overridable set accessor I don't want the base class to have write access. But, I do want the concrete class to provide read/write access. Is there a way to make this work? Thanks, PaulH Unfortunately, Base can't be changed to an interface as it contains non-abstract functionality also. Something I should have thought to put in the original problem description. public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } public void Buzz() { // do something interesting... } } My solution is to do this: public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } } internal void SetStartTime { start_time_ = value; } } It's not as nice as I'd like, but it works.

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