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• Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

  - by Kyle

  I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

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• Precompile assets for a rails engine

  - by Peter Ehrlich

  In a standard app, I have this line in my production.rb, which creates endpoints for non-default precompiled assets: config.assets.precompile += %w( mobile.css ) My rails engine is a standard Sinatra app. It has its own assets. When on development, these assets are served fine, presumably the web requests are handled by rails and sprockets. On production I'm getting 404s on the assets, and think I have to manually tell sprockets to provide the files. How can this be done without tightly linking? It isin't evident how to set up env-specific initializers for engines. Is this done? Not only, for example, is config/development.rb within the engine not loaded, but there's no way to get the application class itself without knowing its name, in order to modify configuration. And even if there was, it seems that having any engine able to reconfigure the main app would be very bad idea. So maybe its better to let assets handling be done by sinatra itself? Or another instance of sprockets for the engine? How do other engines handle this?

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• Ad distribution problem: an optimal solution?

  - by Mokuchan

  I'm asked to find a 2 approximate solution to this problem: You’re consulting for an e-commerce site that receives a large number of visitors each day. For each visitor i, where i € {1, 2 ..... n}, the site has assigned a value v[i], representing the expected revenue that can be obtained from this customer. Each visitor i is shown one of m possible ads A1, A2 ..... An as they enter the site. The site wants a selection of one ad for each customer so that each ad is seen, overall, by a set of customers of reasonably large total weight. Thus, given a selection of one ad for each customer, we will define the spread of this selection to be the minimum, over j = 1, 2 ..... m, of the total weight of all customers who were shown ad Aj. Example Suppose there are six customers with values 3, 4, 12, 2, 4, 6, and there are m = 3 ads. Then, in this instance, one could achieve a spread of 9 by showing ad A1 to customers 1, 2, 4, ad A2 to customer 3, and ad A3 to customers 5 and 6. The ultimate goal is to find a selection of an ad for each customer that maximizes the spread. Unfortunately, this optimization problem is NP-hard (you don’t have to prove this). So instead give a polynomial-time algorithm that approximates the maximum spread within a factor of 2. The solution I found is the following: Order visitors values in descending order Add the next visitor value (i.e. assign the visitor) to the Ad with the current lowest total value Repeat This solution actually seems to always find the optimal solution, or I simply can't find a counterexample. Can you find it? Is this a non-polinomial solution and I just can't see it?

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• CSS Clearing Floats

  - by Frank

  I'm making more of an effort to separate my html structure from presentation, but sometimes when I look at the complexity of the hacks or workarounds to make things work cross-browser, I'm amazed at huge collective waste of productive hours that are put into this. As I understand it, floats were never created for creating layouts, but because many layouts need a footer, that's how they're often being used. To clear the floats, you can add an empty div that clears both sides (div class="clear"). That is simple and works cross browser, but it adds "non-semantic" html rather than solving the presentation problem within the CSS. I realize this, but after looking at all of the solutions with their benefits and drawbacks, it seems to make more sense to go with the empty div (predictable behavior across browsers), rather than create separate stylesheets, including various css hacks and workarounds, etc. which would also need to change as CSS evolves. Is it o.k. to do this as long as you do understand what you're doing and why you're doing it? Or is it better to find the CSS workarounds, hacks and separate structure from presentation at all costs, even when the CSS presentation tools provided are not evolved to the point where they can handle such basic layout issues?

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• Why does GetWindowThreadProcessId return 0 when called from a service

  - by Marve

  When using the following class in a console application, and having at least one instance of Notepad running, GetWindowThreadProcessId correctly returns a non-zero thread id. However, if the same code is included in a Windows Service, GetWindowThreadProcessId always returns 0 and no exceptions are thrown. Changing the user the service launches under to be the same as the one running the console application didn't alter the result. What causes GetWindowThreadProcessId to return 0 even if it is provided with a valid hwnd? And why does it function differently in the console application and the service? Note: I am running Windows 7 32-bit and targeting .NET 3.5. public class TestClass { [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern uint GetWindowThreadProcessId(IntPtr hWnd, IntPtr ProcessId); public void AttachToNotepad() { var processesToAttachTo = Process.GetProcessesByName("Notepad") foreach (var process in processesToAttachTo) { var threadID = GetWindowThreadProcessId(process.MainWindowHandle, IntPtr.Zero); .... } } } Console Code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var testClass = new TestClass(); testClass.AttachToNotepad(); } } Service Code: public class TestService : ServiceBase { private TestClass testClass = new TestClass(); static void Main() { ServiceBase.Run(new TestService()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { testClass.AttachToNotepad(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { ... } }

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• Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

  - by BitFiddler

  So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

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• Problem convert column values from VARCHAR(n) to DECIMAL

  - by Kevin Babcock

  I have a SQL Server 2000 database with a column of type VARCHAR(255). All the data is either NULL, or numeric data with up to two points of precision (e.g. '11.85'). I tried to run the following T-SQL query but received the error 'Error converting data type varchar to numeric' SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; I tried a more specific cast, which also failed. SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL(6,2)) FROM [MyTable]; I also tried the following to see if any data is non-numeric, and the only values returned were NULL. SELECT ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]), [MyColumn] FROM [MyTable] WHERE ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]) = 0; I tried to convert to other data types, such as FLOAT and MONEY, but only MONEY was successful. So I tried the following: SELECT CAST(CAST([MyColumn] AS MONEY) AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; ...which worked just fine. Any ideas why the original query failed? Will there be a problem if I first convert to MONEY and then to DECIMAL? Thanks!

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• Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

  - by Tyler McHenry

  I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

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• Choosing a W3C valid DOCTYPE and charset combination?

  - by George Carter

  I have a homepage with the following: <DOCTYPE html> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> My choice of the DOCTYPE "html" is based on a recommendation for html pages using jQuery. My choice of charset=utf=8 is based on a recommendation to make my pages readable on most browsers. But these choices may be wrong. When I run this page thru the W3C HTML validator, I get messages you see below. Any way I can eliminate the 2 errors? ! Using experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. The validator checked your document with an experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. This feature has been made available for your convenience, but be aware that it may be unreliable, or not perfectly up to date with the latest development of some cutting-edge technologies. If you find any issue with this feature, please report them. Thank you. Validation Output: 2 Errors 1. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing character encoding utf-8 and reparsing. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> 2. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing encoding at this point would need non-streamable behavior. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">

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• Java: how do I get a class literal from a generic type?

  - by Tom

  Typically, I've seen people use the class literal like this: Class<Foo> cls = Foo.class; But what if the type is generic, e.g. List? This works fine, but has a warning since List should be parameterized: Class<List> cls = List.class So why not add a <?>? Well, this causes a type mismatch error: Class<List<?>> cls = List.class I figured something like this would work, but this is just a plain ol' a syntax error: Class<List<Foo>> cls = List<Foo>.class How can I get a Class<List<Foo>> statically, e.g. using the class literal? I could use @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") to get rid of the warnings caused by the non-parameterized use of List in the first example, Class<List> cls = List.class, but I'd rather not. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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• Question about Virtual Inheritance hierarchy

  - by Summer_More_More_Tea

  Hi there: I encounter this problem when tackling with virtual inheritance. I remember that in a non-virtual inheritance hierarchy, object of sub-class hold an object of its direct super-class. What about virtual inheritance? In this situation, does object of sub-class hold an object of its super-class directly or just hold a pointer pointing to an object of its super-class? By the way, why the output of the following code is: sizeof(A): 8 sizeof(B): 20 sizeof(C): 20 sizeof(C): 36 Code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A{ char k[ 3 ]; public: virtual void a(){}; }; class B : public virtual A{ char j[ 3 ]; public: virtual void b(){}; }; class C : public virtual B{ char i[ 3 ]; public: virtual void c(){}; }; class D : public B, public C{ char h[ 3 ]; public: virtual void d(){}; }; int main( int argc, char *argv[] ){ cout << "sizeof(A): " << sizeof( A ) << endl; cout << "sizeof(B): " << sizeof( B ) << endl; cout << "sizeof(C): " << sizeof( C ) << endl; cout << "sizeof(D): " << sizeof( D ) << endl; return 0; } Thanks in advance. Kind regards.

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• Why there is no scoped locks for multiple mutexes in C++0x or Boost.Thread?

  - by Vicente Botet Escriba

  C++0x thread library or Boost.thread define non-member variadic template function that lock all lock avoiding dead lock. template <class L1, class L2, class... L3> void lock(L1&, L2&, L3&...); While this function avoid help to deadlock, the standard do not includes the associated scoped lock to write exception safe code. { std::lock(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock li l2 exception safe } That means that we need to use other mechanism as try-catch block to make exception safe code or define our own scoped lock on multiple mutexes ourselves or even do that { std::lock(l1,l2); std::unique_lock lk1(l1, std::adopted); std::unique_lock lk2(l2, std::adopted); // do some thing // unlock li l2 on destruction of lk1 lk2 } Why the standard doesn't includes a scoped lock on multiple mutexes of the same type, as for example { std::array_unique_lock<std::mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } or tuples of mutexes { std::tuple_unique_lock<std::mutex, std::recursive_mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } Is there something wrong on the design?

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• Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

  - by Ben Robinson

  We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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• What is your personal approach/take on commenting?

  - by Trae

  Duplicate What are your hard rules about commenting? A Developer I work with had some things to say about commenting that were interesting to me (see below). What is your personal approach/take on commenting? "I don't add comments to code unless its a simple heading or there's a platform-bug or a necessary work-around that isn't obvious. Code can change and comments may become misleading. Code should be self-documenting in its use of descriptive names and its logical organization - and its solutions should be the cleanest/simplest way to perform a given task. If a programmer can't tell what a program does by only reading the code, then he's not ready to alter it. Commenting tends to be a crutch for writing something complex or non-obvious - my goal is to always write clean and simple code." "I think there a few camps when it comes to commenting, the enterprisey-type who think they're writing an API and some grand code-library that will be used for generations to come, the craftsman-like programmer that thinks code says what it does clearer than a comment could, and novices that write verbose/unclear code so as to need to leave notes to themselves as to why they did something."

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• Database abstraction/adapters for ruby

  - by Stiivi

  What are the database abstractions/adapters you are using in Ruby? I am mainly interested in data oriented features, not in those with object mapping (like active record or data mapper). I am currently using Sequel. Are there any other options? I am mostly interested in: simple, clean and non-ambiguous API data selection (obviously), filtering and aggregation raw value selection without field mapping: SELECT col1, col2, col3 = [val1, val2, val3] not hash of { :col1 = val1 ...} API takes into account table schemas 'some_schema.some_table' in a consistent (and working) way; also reflection for this (get schema from table) database reflection: get list of table columns, their database storage types and perhaps adaptor's abstracted types table creation, deletion be able to work with other tables (insert, update) in a loop enumerating selection from another table without requiring to fetch all records from table being enumerated Purpose is to manipulate data with unknown structure at the time of writing code, which is the opposite to object mapping where structure or most of the structure is usually well known. I do not need the object mapping overhead. What are the options, including back-ends for object-mapping libraries?

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• mod rewrite to remove facebook query string

  - by user905752

  I can't get my query string to work..please help... I have the following url: http://betatest.bracknell-forest.gov.uk/help?fb_action_ids=372043216205703&fb_action_types=og.likes&fb_source=aggregation&fb_aggregation_id=288381481237582 (sorry but the page will be unavailable as it is a test internal domain link) I want the following url: http://betatest.bracknell-forest.gov.uk/help I get a browser message saying 'The system cannot find the file specified.' I know it is because I already have a mod rewrite to remove the .htm from the page name to return clean urls but I don't know what I need to do to accept a clean url and return the page. Here is the mod rewrite code I have: RewriteRule ^/([\w]+)$ /$1.htm [I,L] #Any bare URL will get rewritten to a URL with .htm appended RedirectRule ^/(.+)\.(htm)$ http://betatest.bracknell-forest.gov.uk/$1 [R=301] RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^fb_action_ids=(.)$ #if the query string contains fb_action_ids RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} !="" #if there is a query string RewriteRule ^(.*) $1? [R=301,L] I think it is because I am using R=301 twice but do not know what I need to use as an alternative. If I append .htm from help?fb_action_ids.... to help.htm?fb_action_ids.... this returns the required page fine but I need to return the page name for the non appended url. Many thanks for any help in advance.

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• Best Practice: Access form elements by HTML id or name attribute?

  - by seth

  As any seasoned JavaScript developer knows, there are many (too many) ways to do the same thing. For example, say you have a text field as follows: <form name="myForm"> <input type="text" name="foo" id="foo" /> There are many way to access this in JavaScript: [1] document.forms[0].elements[0]; [2] document.myForm.foo; [3] document.getElementById('foo'); [4] document.getElementById('myForm').foo; ... and so on ... Methods [1] and [3] are well documented in the Mozilla Gecko documentation, but neither are ideal. [1] is just too general to be useful and [3] requires both an id and a name (assuming you will be posting the data to a server side language). Ideally, it would be best to have only an id attribute or a name attribute (having both is somewhat redundant, especially if the id isn't necessary for any css, and increases the likelihood of typos, etc). [2] seems to be the most intuitive and it seems to be widely used, but I haven't seen it referenced in the Gecko documentation and I'm worried about both forwards compatibility and cross browser compatiblity (and of course I want to be as standards compliant as possible). So what's best practice here? Can anyone point to something in the DOM documentation or W3C specification that could resolve this? Note I am specifically interested in a non-library solution (jQuery/Prototype).

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• socket timeout and remove O_NONBLOCK option

  - by juxstapose

  Hello, I implemented a socket timeout and retry but in order to do it I had to set the socket as a non-blocking socket. However, I need the socket to block. This was my attempt at a solution to these two problems. This is not working. Subsequent send calls block but never send any data. When I connect without the select and the timeout, subsequent send calls work normally. References: C: socket connection timeout How to reset a socket back to blocking mode (after I set it to nonblocking mode)? Code: fd_set fdset; struct timeval tv; fcntl(dsock, F_SETFL, O_NONBLOCK); tv.tv_sec = theDeviceTimeout; tv.tv_usec = 0; int retries=0; logi(theLogOutput, LOG_INFO, "connecting to device socket num retrys: %i", theDeviceRetry); for(retries=0;retries<theDeviceRetry;retries++) { connect(dsock, (struct sockaddr *)&daddr, sizeof daddr); FD_ZERO(&fdset); FD_SET(dsock, &fdset); if (select(dsock + 1, NULL, &fdset, NULL, &tv) == 1) { int so_error; socklen_t slen = sizeof so_error; getsockopt(dsock, SOL_SOCKET, SO_ERROR, &so_error, &slen); if (so_error == 0) { logi(theLogOutput, LOG_INFO, "connected to socket on port %i on %s", theDevicePort, theDeviceIP); break; } else { logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "connect to %i failed on ip %s because %s retries %i", theDevicePort, theDeviceIP, strerror(errno), retries); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "failed to connect to device %s", strerror(errno)); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "error: %i %s", so_error, strerror(so_error)); continue; } } } int opts; opts = fcntl(dsock,F_GETFL); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_DEBUG, "clearing nonblock option %i retries %i", opts, retries); opts ^= O_NONBLOCK; fcntl(dsock, F_SETFL, opts);

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• Fatal error with Custom Magento Module on one server but not the other

  - by Jack

  Hi, I am creating my own custom module in Magento and during testing on a Litespeed server (PHP v5.2.14) I am getting a Fatal Error: Call to a member function batch() on a non-object in ../../../BatchController.php on line 25 that was not appearing during testing on another linux server and a wamp server (PHP v5.2.11). This one has stumped me. I am guessing it has something to do with the server configuration rather than the code itself. But i am just guessing. I was hoping someone here could tell me. The only real major difference I could see, aside from the php versions and environment, is that the server that the error is on is using the Suhosin Patch. But would that be something that could cause this? The line in question is Mage::getModel('mymodule/mymodel')->batch(); which is enclosed in an IF statement. batch() is a public function located in my model file. If you need more code let me know. Thanks!

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• implementing a read/write field for an interface that only defines read

  - by PaulH

  I have a C# 2.0 application where a base interface allows read-only access to a value in a concrete class. But, within the concrete class, I'd like to have read/write access to that value. So, I have an implementation like this: public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } } public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } internal set { start_time_ = value; } } } But, this gives me the error: Foo.cs(200,22): error CS0546: 'Foo.StartTime.set': cannot override because 'Base.StartTime' does not have an overridable set accessor I don't want the base class to have write access. But, I do want the concrete class to provide read/write access. Is there a way to make this work? Thanks, PaulH Unfortunately, Base can't be changed to an interface as it contains non-abstract functionality also. Something I should have thought to put in the original problem description. public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } public void Buzz() { // do something interesting... } } My solution is to do this: public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } } internal void SetStartTime { start_time_ = value; } } It's not as nice as I'd like, but it works.

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• What good open source programs exist for fuzzing popular image file types?

  - by JohnnySoftware

  I am looking for a free, open source, portable fuzzing tool for popular image file types that is written in either Java, Python, or Jython. Ideally, it would accept specifications for the fuzzable fields using some kind of declarative constraints. Non-procedural grammar for specifying constraints are greatly preferred. Otherwise, might as well write them all in Python or whatever. Just specifying ranges of valid values or expressions for them. Ideally, it would support some kind of generative programming to export the fuzzer into various programming languages to suit cases where more customization was required. If it supported a direct-manipulation GUI for controlling parameter values and ranges, that would be nice too. The file formats that should be supported are: GIF JPEG PNG So basically, it should be sort of a toolkit consisting of ready-to-run utility, a framework or library, and be capable of generating the fuzzed files directly as well as from programs it generates. It needs to be simple so that test images can be created quickly. It should have a batch capability for creating a series of images. Creating just one at a time would be too painful. I do not want a hacking tool, just a QA tool. Basically, I just want to address concerns that it is taking too long to get commonplace image rendering/parsing libraries stable and trustworthy.

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• mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

  - by meeble

  I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

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• Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

  - by Vaibhav Garg

  Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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• Generics vs inheritance (when no collection classes are involved)

  - by Ram

  This is an extension of this questionand probably might even be a duplicate of some other question(If so, please forgive me). I see from MSDN that generics are usually used with collections The most common use for generic classes is with collections like linked lists, hash tables, stacks, queues, trees and so on where operations such as adding and removing items from the collection are performed in much the same way regardless of the type of data being stored. The examples I have seen also validate the above statement. Can someone give a valid use of generics in a real-life scenario which does not involve any collections ? Pedantically, I was thinking about making an example which does not involve collections public class Animal<T> { public void Speak() { Console.WriteLine("I am an Animal and my type is " + typeof(T).ToString()); } public void Eat() { //Eat food } } public class Dog { public void WhoAmI() { Console.WriteLine(this.GetType().ToString()); } } and "An Animal of type Dog" will be Animal<Dog> magic = new Animal<Dog>(); It is entirely possible to have Dog getting inherited from Animal (Assuming a non-generic version of Animal)Dog:Animal Therefore Dog is an Animal Another example I was thinking was a BankAccount. It can be BankAccount<Checking>,BankAccount<Savings>. This can very well be Checking:BankAccount and Savings:BankAccount. Are there any best practices to determine if we should go with generics or with inheritance ?

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• What is happening in Crockford's object creation technique?

  - by Chris Noe

  There are only 3 lines of code, and yet I'm having trouble fully grasping this: Object.create = function (o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); }; newObject = Object.create(oldObject); (from Prototypal Inheritance) 1) Object.create() starts out by creating an empty function called F. I'm thinking that a function is a kind of object. Where is this F object being stored? Globally I guess. 2) Next our oldObject, passed in as o, becomes the prototype of function F. Function (i.e., object) F now "inherits" from our oldObject, in the sense that name resolution will route through it. Good, but I'm curious what the default prototype is for an object, Object? Is that also true for a function-object? 3) Finally, F is instantiated and returned, becoming our newObject. Is the "new" operation strictly necessary here? Doesn't F already provide what we need, or is there a critical difference between function-objects and non-function-objects? Clearly it won't be possible to have a constructor function using this technique. What happens the next time Object.create() is called? Is global function F overwritten? Surely it is not reused, because that would alter previously configured objects. And what happens if multiple threads call Object.create(), is there any sort of synchronization to prevent race conditions on F?

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