Search Results

Search found 13859 results on 555 pages for 'non functional'.

Page 470/555 | < Previous Page | 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477  | Next Page >

• What is the benefit of using ONLY OpenID authentication on a site?

  - by Peter

  From my experience with OpenID, I see a number of significant downsides: Adds a Single Point of Failure to the site It is not a failure that can be fixed by the site even if detected. If the OpenID provider is down for three days, what recourse does the site have to allow its users to login and access the information they own? Takes a user to another sites content and every time they logon to your site Even if the OpenID provider does not have an error, the user is re-directed to their site to login. The login page has content and links. So there is a chance a user will actually be drawn away from the site to go down the Internet rabbit hole. Why would I want to send my users to another company's website? [ Note: my provider no longer does this and seems to have fixed this problem (for now).] Adds a non-trivial amount of time to the signup To sign up with the site a new user is forced to read a new standard, chose a provider, and signup. Standards are something that the technical people should agree to in order to make a user experience frictionless. They are not something that should be thrust on the users. It is a Phisher's Dream OpenID is incredibly insecure and stealing the person's ID as they log in is trivially easy. [ taken from David Arno's Answer below ] For all of the downside, the one upside is to allow users to have fewer logins on the Internet. If a site has opt-in for OpenID then users who want that feature can use it. What I would like to understand is: What benefit does a site get for making OpenID mandatory?

  Read the article

• Question about Virtual Inheritance hierarchy

  - by Summer_More_More_Tea

  Hi there: I encounter this problem when tackling with virtual inheritance. I remember that in a non-virtual inheritance hierarchy, object of sub-class hold an object of its direct super-class. What about virtual inheritance? In this situation, does object of sub-class hold an object of its super-class directly or just hold a pointer pointing to an object of its super-class? By the way, why the output of the following code is: sizeof(A): 8 sizeof(B): 20 sizeof(C): 20 sizeof(C): 36 Code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A{ char k[ 3 ]; public: virtual void a(){}; }; class B : public virtual A{ char j[ 3 ]; public: virtual void b(){}; }; class C : public virtual B{ char i[ 3 ]; public: virtual void c(){}; }; class D : public B, public C{ char h[ 3 ]; public: virtual void d(){}; }; int main( int argc, char *argv[] ){ cout << "sizeof(A): " << sizeof( A ) << endl; cout << "sizeof(B): " << sizeof( B ) << endl; cout << "sizeof(C): " << sizeof( C ) << endl; cout << "sizeof(D): " << sizeof( D ) << endl; return 0; } Thanks in advance. Kind regards.

  Read the article

• Ad distribution problem: an optimal solution?

  - by Mokuchan

  I'm asked to find a 2 approximate solution to this problem: You’re consulting for an e-commerce site that receives a large number of visitors each day. For each visitor i, where i € {1, 2 ..... n}, the site has assigned a value v[i], representing the expected revenue that can be obtained from this customer. Each visitor i is shown one of m possible ads A1, A2 ..... An as they enter the site. The site wants a selection of one ad for each customer so that each ad is seen, overall, by a set of customers of reasonably large total weight. Thus, given a selection of one ad for each customer, we will define the spread of this selection to be the minimum, over j = 1, 2 ..... m, of the total weight of all customers who were shown ad Aj. Example Suppose there are six customers with values 3, 4, 12, 2, 4, 6, and there are m = 3 ads. Then, in this instance, one could achieve a spread of 9 by showing ad A1 to customers 1, 2, 4, ad A2 to customer 3, and ad A3 to customers 5 and 6. The ultimate goal is to find a selection of an ad for each customer that maximizes the spread. Unfortunately, this optimization problem is NP-hard (you don’t have to prove this). So instead give a polynomial-time algorithm that approximates the maximum spread within a factor of 2. The solution I found is the following: Order visitors values in descending order Add the next visitor value (i.e. assign the visitor) to the Ad with the current lowest total value Repeat This solution actually seems to always find the optimal solution, or I simply can't find a counterexample. Can you find it? Is this a non-polinomial solution and I just can't see it?

  Read the article

• socket timeout and remove O_NONBLOCK option

  - by juxstapose

  Hello, I implemented a socket timeout and retry but in order to do it I had to set the socket as a non-blocking socket. However, I need the socket to block. This was my attempt at a solution to these two problems. This is not working. Subsequent send calls block but never send any data. When I connect without the select and the timeout, subsequent send calls work normally. References: C: socket connection timeout How to reset a socket back to blocking mode (after I set it to nonblocking mode)? Code: fd_set fdset; struct timeval tv; fcntl(dsock, F_SETFL, O_NONBLOCK); tv.tv_sec = theDeviceTimeout; tv.tv_usec = 0; int retries=0; logi(theLogOutput, LOG_INFO, "connecting to device socket num retrys: %i", theDeviceRetry); for(retries=0;retries<theDeviceRetry;retries++) { connect(dsock, (struct sockaddr *)&daddr, sizeof daddr); FD_ZERO(&fdset); FD_SET(dsock, &fdset); if (select(dsock + 1, NULL, &fdset, NULL, &tv) == 1) { int so_error; socklen_t slen = sizeof so_error; getsockopt(dsock, SOL_SOCKET, SO_ERROR, &so_error, &slen); if (so_error == 0) { logi(theLogOutput, LOG_INFO, "connected to socket on port %i on %s", theDevicePort, theDeviceIP); break; } else { logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "connect to %i failed on ip %s because %s retries %i", theDevicePort, theDeviceIP, strerror(errno), retries); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "failed to connect to device %s", strerror(errno)); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_WARN, "error: %i %s", so_error, strerror(so_error)); continue; } } } int opts; opts = fcntl(dsock,F_GETFL); logi(theLogOutput, LOG_DEBUG, "clearing nonblock option %i retries %i", opts, retries); opts ^= O_NONBLOCK; fcntl(dsock, F_SETFL, opts);

  Read the article

• Javascript CS-PRNG - 64-bit random

  - by Jack

  Hi, I need to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit unsigned random integer in Javascript. The first problem is that Javascript only allows 64-bit signed integers, so 9223372036854775808 is the biggest supported integer without going into floating point use I think? To fix this I can use a big number library, no problem. My Method: var randNum = SHA256( randBigInt(128, 0) ) % 2^64; Where SHA256() is a secure hash function and randBigInt() is defined below as a non-crypto PRNG, im giving it a 128bit seed so brute force shouldn't be a problem. randBigInt(n,s) //return an n-bit random BigInt (n>=1). If s=1, then the most significant of those n bits is set to 1. Is this a secure method to generate a cryptographically secure 64-bit random int? And importantly does taking the 2^64 mod guarantee 100% I have a 64-bit number? An abstract example, say this number is prime (it isn't i know), I will use it in the Galois Field [2^p], where p must be 64bits so that every possible 1-63bit number is a field element. In this query, my random int must be larger than any 63-bit number. And Im not sure im correct in taking the 2^64 mod of a 256bit hash output. Thanks (hope that makes sense)

  Read the article

• Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

  - by Ben Robinson

  We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

  Read the article

• iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

  - by randombits

  According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

  Read the article

• What is the proper way to use a Logger in a Serializable Java class?

  - by Tim Visher

  I have the following (doctored) class in a system I'm working on and Findbugs is generating a SE_BAD_FIELD warning and I'm trying to understand why it would say that before I fix it in the way that I thought I would. The reason I'm confused is because the description would seem to indicate that I had used no other non-serializable instance fields in the class but bar.model.Foo is also not serializable and used in the exact same way (as far as I can tell) but Findbugs generates no warning for it. import bar.model.Foo; import java.io.File; import java.io.Serializable; import java.util.List; import org.slf4j.Logger; import org.slf4j.LoggerFactory; public class Demo implements Serializable { private final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); private final File file; private final List<Foo> originalFoos; private Integer count; private int primitive = 0; public Demo() { for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } ... } My initial blush at a solution is to get a logger reference from the factory right as I use it: public DispositionFile() { Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(this.getClass()); for (Foo foo : originalFoos) { this.logger.debug(...); } } That doesn't seem particularly efficient, though. Thoughts?

  Read the article

• mod rewrite to remove facebook query string

  - by user905752

  I can't get my query string to work..please help... I have the following url: http://betatest.bracknell-forest.gov.uk/help?fb_action_ids=372043216205703&fb_action_types=og.likes&fb_source=aggregation&fb_aggregation_id=288381481237582 (sorry but the page will be unavailable as it is a test internal domain link) I want the following url: http://betatest.bracknell-forest.gov.uk/help I get a browser message saying 'The system cannot find the file specified.' I know it is because I already have a mod rewrite to remove the .htm from the page name to return clean urls but I don't know what I need to do to accept a clean url and return the page. Here is the mod rewrite code I have: RewriteRule ^/([\w]+)$ /$1.htm [I,L] #Any bare URL will get rewritten to a URL with .htm appended RedirectRule ^/(.+)\.(htm)$ http://betatest.bracknell-forest.gov.uk/$1 [R=301] RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} ^fb_action_ids=(.)$ #if the query string contains fb_action_ids RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} !="" #if there is a query string RewriteRule ^(.*) $1? [R=301,L] I think it is because I am using R=301 twice but do not know what I need to use as an alternative. If I append .htm from help?fb_action_ids.... to help.htm?fb_action_ids.... this returns the required page fine but I need to return the page name for the non appended url. Many thanks for any help in advance.

  Read the article

• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

  - by Kyle

  I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

  Read the article

• PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

  - by Misiur

  Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

  Read the article

• mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

  - by meeble

  I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

  Read the article

• Performance of C# method polymorphism with generics

  - by zildjohn01

  I noticed in C#, unlike C++, you can combine virtual and generic methods. For example: using System.Diagnostics; class Base { public virtual void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("base concrete");} public virtual void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("base generic");} } class Derived : Base { public override void Concrete() {Debug.WriteLine("derived concrete");} public override void Generic<T>() {Debug.WriteLine("derived generic");} } class App { static void Main() { Base x = new Derived(); x.Concrete(); x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); } } Given that any number of versions of Generic<T> could be instantiated, it doesn't look like the standard vtbl approach could be used to resolve method calls, and in fact it's not. Here's the generated code: x.Concrete(); mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov eax,dword ptr [ecx] call dword ptr [eax+38h] x.Generic<PerformanceCounter>(); push 989A38h mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] mov edx,989914h call 76A874F1 mov dword ptr [ebp-4],eax mov ecx,dword ptr [ebp-8] call dword ptr [ebp-4] The extra code appears to be looking up a dynamic vtbl according to the generic parameters, and then calling into it. Has anyone written about the specifics of this implementation? How well does it perform compared to the non-generic case?

  Read the article

• Problem importing Oracle .dmp file

  - by BitFiddler

  So I have looked at all the suggested ways of importing .dmp files and non of them seem to answer this question: where does the data go once you import it? Context: I created a user like so: SQL> create user IMPORTER identified by "12345"; SQL> grant connect, unlimited tablespace, resource to IMPORTER; I then ran the 'imp' command as follows: C:\>imp system/password FROMUSER=OVIEDOE TOUSER=IMPORTER file=c:\database1.dmp Now there were 9 .dmp files, after each one it asked me for the next one and then I received the message "Import terminated successfully with warnings." The warning was: Warning: the objects were exported by OVIEDOE, not by you import done in WE8MSWIN1252 character set and AL16UTF16 NCHAR character set export client uses WE8ISO8859P1 character set (possible charset conversion) IMP-00046: using FILESIZE value from export file of 2147483648 Now it says it was terminated successfully so my assumption (I am new to oracle so this may be wrong) is that the data was loaded. However, when I use SQL developer to connect to the database and look under the 'tables' node under the IMPORTER user, there is nothing there. What is going on? Did the data load? If so, where can I find it?

  Read the article

• Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

  - by Tyler McHenry

  I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

  Read the article

• Generics vs inheritance (when no collection classes are involved)

  - by Ram

  This is an extension of this questionand probably might even be a duplicate of some other question(If so, please forgive me). I see from MSDN that generics are usually used with collections The most common use for generic classes is with collections like linked lists, hash tables, stacks, queues, trees and so on where operations such as adding and removing items from the collection are performed in much the same way regardless of the type of data being stored. The examples I have seen also validate the above statement. Can someone give a valid use of generics in a real-life scenario which does not involve any collections ? Pedantically, I was thinking about making an example which does not involve collections public class Animal<T> { public void Speak() { Console.WriteLine("I am an Animal and my type is " + typeof(T).ToString()); } public void Eat() { //Eat food } } public class Dog { public void WhoAmI() { Console.WriteLine(this.GetType().ToString()); } } and "An Animal of type Dog" will be Animal<Dog> magic = new Animal<Dog>(); It is entirely possible to have Dog getting inherited from Animal (Assuming a non-generic version of Animal)Dog:Animal Therefore Dog is an Animal Another example I was thinking was a BankAccount. It can be BankAccount<Checking>,BankAccount<Savings>. This can very well be Checking:BankAccount and Savings:BankAccount. Are there any best practices to determine if we should go with generics or with inheritance ?

  Read the article

• IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

  - by crosan

  We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

  Read the article

• What good open source programs exist for fuzzing popular image file types?

  - by JohnnySoftware

  I am looking for a free, open source, portable fuzzing tool for popular image file types that is written in either Java, Python, or Jython. Ideally, it would accept specifications for the fuzzable fields using some kind of declarative constraints. Non-procedural grammar for specifying constraints are greatly preferred. Otherwise, might as well write them all in Python or whatever. Just specifying ranges of valid values or expressions for them. Ideally, it would support some kind of generative programming to export the fuzzer into various programming languages to suit cases where more customization was required. If it supported a direct-manipulation GUI for controlling parameter values and ranges, that would be nice too. The file formats that should be supported are: GIF JPEG PNG So basically, it should be sort of a toolkit consisting of ready-to-run utility, a framework or library, and be capable of generating the fuzzed files directly as well as from programs it generates. It needs to be simple so that test images can be created quickly. It should have a batch capability for creating a series of images. Creating just one at a time would be too painful. I do not want a hacking tool, just a QA tool. Basically, I just want to address concerns that it is taking too long to get commonplace image rendering/parsing libraries stable and trustworthy.

  Read the article

• Tips for Using Multiple Development Systems

  - by Tim Lytle

  When I travel, I don't pack up the desktop I use in the office and take it with me. Maybe I should, but I don't. However, since I'm a contract programmer I like to be able to work wherever I am: I'm mostly thinking of web development here. Version Control goes a long way in keeping sane and working on multiple projects on multiple systems (two or three computers); however, there are the issues of: IDE settings - different display sizes mean the IDE settings can't be completely synced, if at all. Database - if the database is 'external' (even if it's running on the same system, it's not in version control), how do you maintain the needed syncs of structure. Development Stack - Some projects need non-standard extensions, libraries, etc installed. Just an overview of some of the hassle involved with developing on multiple systems. I'll probably end up asking some specific questions, but I thought a CW style tips might reveal some things I would even think to ask about. Update: I guess this would also address tips to make upgrading/replacing your development system easier (something I've just done). So, one tip per answer please, so the 'top' tips are easy to find. How do you make it easier to develop on multiple systems, or to transfer work after upgrading/replaceing a development system?

  Read the article

• Shrinking the transaction log of a mirrored SQL Server 2005 database

  - by Peter Di Cecco

  I've been looking all over the internet and I can't find an acceptable solution to my problem, I'm wondering if there even is a solution without a compromise... I'm not a DBA, but I'm a one man team working on a huge web site with no extra funding for extra bodies, so I'm doing the best I can. Our backup plan sucks, and I'm having a really hard time improving it. Currently, there are two servers running SQL Server 2005. I have a mirrored database (no witness) that seems to be working well. I do a full backup at noon and at midnight. These get backed up to tape by our service provider nightly, and I burn the backup files to dvd weekly to keep old records on hand. Eventually I'd like to switch to log shipping, since mirroring seems kinda pointless without a witness server. The issue is that the transaction log is growing non-stop. From the research I've done, it seems that I can't truncate a log file of a mirrored database. So how do I stop the file from growing!? Based on this web page, I tried this: USE dbname GO CHECKPOINT GO BACKUP LOG dbname TO DISK='NULL' WITH NOFORMAT, INIT, NAME = N'dbnameLog Backup', SKIP, NOREWIND, NOUNLOAD GO DBCC SHRINKFILE('dbname_Log', 2048) GO But that didn't work. Everything else I've found says I need to disable the mirror before running the backup log command in order for it to work. My Question (TL;DR) How can I shrink my transaction log file without disabling the mirror?

  Read the article

• Problem convert column values from VARCHAR(n) to DECIMAL

  - by Kevin Babcock

  I have a SQL Server 2000 database with a column of type VARCHAR(255). All the data is either NULL, or numeric data with up to two points of precision (e.g. '11.85'). I tried to run the following T-SQL query but received the error 'Error converting data type varchar to numeric' SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; I tried a more specific cast, which also failed. SELECT CAST([MyColumn] AS DECIMAL(6,2)) FROM [MyTable]; I also tried the following to see if any data is non-numeric, and the only values returned were NULL. SELECT ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]), [MyColumn] FROM [MyTable] WHERE ISNUMERIC([MyColumn]) = 0; I tried to convert to other data types, such as FLOAT and MONEY, but only MONEY was successful. So I tried the following: SELECT CAST(CAST([MyColumn] AS MONEY) AS DECIMAL) FROM [MyTable]; ...which worked just fine. Any ideas why the original query failed? Will there be a problem if I first convert to MONEY and then to DECIMAL? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Fatal error with Custom Magento Module on one server but not the other

  - by Jack

  Hi, I am creating my own custom module in Magento and during testing on a Litespeed server (PHP v5.2.14) I am getting a Fatal Error: Call to a member function batch() on a non-object in ../../../BatchController.php on line 25 that was not appearing during testing on another linux server and a wamp server (PHP v5.2.11). This one has stumped me. I am guessing it has something to do with the server configuration rather than the code itself. But i am just guessing. I was hoping someone here could tell me. The only real major difference I could see, aside from the php versions and environment, is that the server that the error is on is using the Suhosin Patch. But would that be something that could cause this? The line in question is Mage::getModel('mymodule/mymodel')->batch(); which is enclosed in an IF statement. batch() is a public function located in my model file. If you need more code let me know. Thanks!

  Read the article

• implementing a read/write field for an interface that only defines read

  - by PaulH

  I have a C# 2.0 application where a base interface allows read-only access to a value in a concrete class. But, within the concrete class, I'd like to have read/write access to that value. So, I have an implementation like this: public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } } public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } internal set { start_time_ = value; } } } But, this gives me the error: Foo.cs(200,22): error CS0546: 'Foo.StartTime.set': cannot override because 'Base.StartTime' does not have an overridable set accessor I don't want the base class to have write access. But, I do want the concrete class to provide read/write access. Is there a way to make this work? Thanks, PaulH Unfortunately, Base can't be changed to an interface as it contains non-abstract functionality also. Something I should have thought to put in the original problem description. public abstract class Base { public abstract DateTime StartTime { get; } public void Buzz() { // do something interesting... } } My solution is to do this: public class Foo : Base { DateTime start_time_; public override DateTime StartTime { get { return start_time_; } } internal void SetStartTime { start_time_ = value; } } It's not as nice as I'd like, but it works.

  Read the article

• C Program Stalls or Infinite Loops inside and else statement?

  - by Bobby S

  I have this weird thing happening in my C program which has never happened to me before. I am calling a void function with a single parameter, the function is very similar to this so you can get the jist: ... printf("Before Call"); Dumb_Function(a); printf("After Call"); ... ... void Dumb_Function(int a){ if(a == null) { } else{ int i; for(i=0; i<a; i++) { do stuff } printf("test"); } } This will output Before Call test and NOT "After Call" How is this possible? Why does my function not return? Did my program counter get lost? I can not modify it to a non void function. When running the cursor will blink and I am able to type, I press CTRL+C to terminate. Any ideas?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 466 467 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477  | Next Page >