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  • Rails test db doesn't persist record changes

    - by nathan.f77
    I've been trying to solve a problem for a few weeks now. I am running rspec tests for my Rails app, and they are working fine except for one error that I can't seem get my head around. I am using MySQL with the InnoDB engine. I have set config.use_transactional_fixtures = true in spec_helper.rb I load my test fixtures manually with the command rake spec:db:fixtures:load. The rspec test is being written for a BackgrounDRb worker, and it is testing that a record can have its state updated (through the state_machine gem). Here is my problem: I have a model called Listings. The rspec test calls the update_sold_items method within a file called listing_worker.rb. This method calls listing.sell for a particular record, which sets the listing record's 'state' column to 'sold'. So far, this is all working fine, but when the update_sold_items method finishes, my rspec test fails here: listing = Listing.find_by_listing_id(listing_id) listing.state.should == "sold" expected: "sold", got: "current" (using ==) I've been trying to track down why the state change is not persisting, but am pretty much lost. Here is the result of some debugging code that I placed in the update_sold_items method during the test: pp listing.state # => "current" listing.sell! listing.save! pp listing.state # => "sold" listing.reload pp listing.state # => "current" I cannot understand why it saves perfectly fine, but then reverts back to the original record whenever I call reload, or Listing.find etc. Thanks for reading this, and please ask any questions if I haven't given enough information. Thanks for your help, Nathan B P.S. I don't have a problem creating new records for other classes, and testing those records. It only seems to be a problem when I am updating records that already exist in the database.

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  • Using a dynamic <script> (a <script> appended to the DOM by JavaScript) to load and initialize Click

    - by Bungle
    I'm creating an HTML/JavaScript widget to be used on third-party sites. This widget is generated by a <script> that our customers will insert on their page. The <script> creates an <iframe> in the customer's domain, and then creates and inserts all of that <iframe>'s content using JavaScript. It's important that this <iframe> contain Clicky's tracking code to monitor clicks on outbound links. Unfortunately, I'm not having any luck getting Clicky to work when I append the requisite <script> elements to the <iframe> using JavaScript. I first tried simply appending the Clicky tracking code to the <iframe> after appending some test outbound links, hoping that Clicky could attach to those automatically as it does on a static page. That didn't seem to work, so my next inclination was to use the "advanced_disable" custom option and use clicky.log() on the links I want to track. Here's a link to a test page that's along those lines: http://onespot.wsj.com/static/clicky_iframe_test.html When clicking a link on that test page, the action is not logged in Clicky, and a JavaScript error appears: clicky is not defined This ("clicky") appears to be defined in http://static.getclicky.com/js, which I confirmed through the Firebug console is indeed loading before I click a test outbound link. Has anyone successfully loaded Clicky in this way? If so, could you provide some sample code, a link to a working implementation, or some feedback on what's wrong with my code? I would also be interested to know if this is even possible. Thanks very much for any help or advice!

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  • Pointing non-www to a spcific sub-directory

    - by Ben Sinclair
    I might be going about this all wrong so let me know if I am. I am creating software that allows people to sign up and have their own sub-domain on my website. So say my website is ben.com, they could have their own sub-domain called juice.ben.com. When they type their sub-domain juice.ben.com in their address bar, it will load the contents in a root directory. I have also set-up a .htaccess redirect to redirect www.ben.com to ben.com. Not sure if this matters with my question but I thought I'd mention it. Ok, so basically what I think I need to do is put the software they they've signed up to in the root directory. So when someone goes to juice.ben.com, they will be pointed to the root directory (I beleive I cans et-up wild card sub-domains with my host) and the software will then analyse their sub-domain and then display their account. Now, if someone just types in ben.com into their browser, I want it to show the contents of the ben.com/_website/ folder but still show in the address bar that they are still in the root directory. Hopefully I am making sense :) Is this possible with htaccess? If so, what do I need to do?

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  • Links on SharePoint 2010 Master Page not changed based on Alternate Access Mappings

    - by victor_c
    We are creating a custom branded Master Page in SharePoint 2010. To make the page similar to a legacy page we have implemented an html based custom dropdown navigation menu we had in place directly on the Master Page (consisted of basic HTML elements ULs and LIs with A tags styled with a CSS class). I assumed the links from the basic HTML on the page would be subject to Alternate Access Mappings currently in place, but it seems to not be the case. On a test page opened in 3 different URLs (http://sharepoint2010, http://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com, https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com) the links from a WIKI page are modified as I expected, but the links from the Custom Navigation Menu (plain HTML on the Master Page) are not modified. I can see where that would be useful... But is there a way that I can add links on the MasterPage in a way that SharePoint parses them first, making them subject to Alternate Access Mapping translation? I tried placing a link inside a SPLinkButton control, but it didn't achieve the desired behavior. e.g. <ul id="navmenu"> <li><SharePoint:SPLinkButton runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint link</SharePoint:SPLinkButton></li> <li><a href="http://sharepoint2010">sharepoint2010</a></li> <li>test</li> </ul> When I access the page via https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com the links above are still http://sharepoint2010 rather than https://sharepoint2010.mydomain.com Any thoughts? Thanks, Victor

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  • WCF - Increase ReaderQuoatas on REST service

    - by Christo Fur
    I have a WCF REST Service which accepts a JSON string One of the parameters is a large string of numbers This causes the following error - which is visible by tracing and using SVC Trace Viewer There was an error deserializing the object of type CarConfiguration. The maximum string content length quota (8192) has been exceeded while reading XML data. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxStringContentLength property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. Now I've read all sorts of articles advising how to rectify this All of them recommend increasing various config settings on the server and client e.g. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/65452/error-serializing-string-in-webservice-call http://bloggingabout.net/blogs/ramon/archive/2008/08/20/wcf-and-large-messages.aspx http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en/wcf/thread/f570823a-8581-45ba-8b0b-ab0c7d7fcae1 So my config file looks like this <webHttpBinding> <binding name="webBinding" maxBufferSize="5242880" maxReceivedMessageSize="5242880" > <readerQuotas maxDepth="5242880" maxStringContentLength="5242880" maxArrayLength="5242880" maxBytesPerRead="5242880" maxNameTableCharCount="5242880"/> </binding> </webHttpBinding> ... ... ... <endpoint address="/" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="webBinding" My problem is that I can change this on the server, but there are no WCF config settings on the client as its a REST service and I'm just making a http request using the WebClient object any ideas?

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  • Legit? Two foreign keys referencing the same primary key.

    - by Ryan
    Hi All, I'm a web developer and have recently started a project with a company. Currently, I'm working with their DBA on getting the schema laid out for the site, and we've come to a disagreement regarding the design on a couple tables, and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Basically, we are working on a site that will implement a "friends" network. All users of the site will be contained in a table tblUsers with (PersonID int identity PK, etc). What I am wanting to do is to create a second table, tblNetwork, that will hold all of the relationships between users, with (NetworkID int identity PK, Owners_PersonID int FK, Friends_PersonID int FK, etc). Or conversely, remove the NetworkID, and have both the Owners_PersonID and Friends_PersonID shared as the Primary key. This is where the DBA has his problem. Saying that "he would only implement this kind of architecture in a data warehousing schema, and not for a website, and this is just another example of web developers trying to take the easy way out." Now obviously, his remark was a bit inflammatory, and that have helped motivate me to find an suitable answer, but more so, I'd just like to know how to do it right. I've been developing databases and programming for over 10 years, have worked with some top-notch minds, and have never heard this kind of argument. What the DBA is wanting to do is instead of storing both the Owners_PersonId and Friends_PersonId in the same table, is to create a third table tblFriends to store the Friends_PersonId, and have the tblNetwork have (NetworkID int identity PK, Owner_PersonID int FK, FriendsID int FK(from TBLFriends)). All that tblFriends would house would be (FriendsID int identity PK, Friends_PersonID(related back to Persons)). To me, creating the third table is just excessive in nature, and does nothing but create an alias for the Friends_PersonID, and cause me to have to add (what I view as unneeded) joins to all my queries, not to mention the extra cycles that will be necessary to perform the join on every query. Thanks for reading, appreciate comments. Ryan

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  • Getting started with Spring 3 Web MVC - Setting everything up

    - by user126379
    Hi, I'm trying to get started with JAVA/Eclipse/Spring MVC but can't seem to find a "dummies" or "step-by-step" guide for setting everything up and creating the simplest proof-of-concept application. I found http://static.springsource.org/docs/...-step-by-step/ but there seem to be differences between Spring 2.5 and Spring 3 so i'm looking for something for Spring 3. Also, the tutorial for Spring 2.5 focuses on building the application usign Ant - This i will certainly be doing for releasing but when working within Eclipse i want to have set up the project so that i can use breakpoints/debugging and this is not covered at all. I've downloaded Eclipse, Tomcat and the Spring 3 Framework but that's about it and within the downloaded Spring Framework documentation it states: 2.3 New getting started tutorial There is now a new getting started tutorial for developing a basic Spring 3.0 MVC web application. This tutorial is a separate document that can be found at the Spring Documentation page However, i can't seem to find such a tutorial on the linked page. My main problem at the moment, as seems to be the case for many people trying to get started with Spring, is that i can't seem to get everything set up. I've got a copy of Expert Spring MVC and Web Flow and i've also found this tutorial but i don't know if the setups they describe are still relevant and whether they will allow debugging. Can anyone please give some direction? Thanks

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  • FileNotFoundException, altough the XML file should be deployed

    - by Bernhard V
    Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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  • How to configure properly IntelliJ IDEA for deployment of JBoss Seam project?

    - by Piotr Kochanski
    I would like to use IntelliJ IDEA for development of JBoss Seam project. seam-gen is creating the project stub, however the stub is not complete. In particular it is not clear how to deploy such project. First of all I had to define manually web project facelet and add libraries to its deployment definition. The other problem was persistence.xml file. In the Seam generated project it does not exists, since Ant is using one of the persistence-dev.xml, persistence-prod.xml, persistence-test.xml files, changing its name, depending on deployment type (which is ok). Obviously I can create persistence.xml by hand, but it goes againts Seam way of development. Finally I decided to use directly ant, which is not partucularly comfortable. All these tweaks made me think that I am doing something wrong from the IntelliJ IDEA point of view. What is the efficient way of configuring IntelliJ for usage with JBoss Seam (deployment, in particular)? I am using JBoss Seam 2.1.1, Intellij 8.1.4, JBoss 4.3.3

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  • WCF timeout exception on calling service on 11th time

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    I'm creating a WCF service and stumbled with request timeout problem. When I load test the service the 11th call always fails with "System.Net.WebException: The operation has timed out". I have read that would happen if serviceThrotling is set to defaults so I added following lines to my service configuration file <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- ... --> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="100" maxConcurrentSessions="100" maxConcurrentInstances="100" /> </behavior> But this doesn't help. I thought that closing the proxy might be a problem, but I do close all proxies. try { response = service.GetCustomerHdQuotes(request); } finally { try { if (service.State != CommunicationState.Faulted) service.Close(); else service.Abort(); // Abort if the State is Faulted. } catch (Exception) { service.Abort(); } } I also have an idea that inside service some resources pile up preventing service to accept new connections, but the fact that this is always 11th request points that this is more likely due to some configuration problems. Can anybody help me with that?

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  • In Reporting Services how to filter drop down parameter list in based on other selected parameter?

    - by Lee Englestone
    Question In a Reporting Services Report, How do I filter a second drop down list of cars to only show cars whose ManufacturerId is equal the selected Manufacturer (from the first drop down list)? Report Datasets I have 2 datasets. Dataset 1. A list of Manufacturers. From a stored procedure Report_Manufacturers_P Dataset 2. A list of Cars, including a column called Manufacturers id. From a stored procedure Report_Cars_P Report Parameters On the Report I have 2 Parameters. Parameter 1. ManufacturerId. Set from A drop down list of Manufacturers (DataSet 1). Parameter 2. CarId. Set from A drop down list of Cars (DataSet 2). I've tried.. Creating another sproc called Report_Manufacturer_Cars_P that takes the ManufacturerId as an integer and returns a list of cars made by that manufacturer. Any Ideas. As selecting a Manufacturer doesn't seem to want to kick off anything that filters the Car list? Thanks in advance, -- Lee

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  • iPhone UnitTesting UITextField value and otest error 133

    - by Justin Galzic
    Are UITextFields not meant to be part of the LogicTests and instead part of the ApplicationTest target? I have a factory class that is responsible for creating and returning an (iPhone) UITextField and I'm trying to unit test it. It is part of my Logic Test target and when I try to build and run the tests, I get a build error about: /Developer/Tools/RunPlatformUnitTests.include:451:0 Test rig '/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator3.1.2.sdk/ 'Developer/usr/bin/otest' exited abnormally with code 133 (it may have crashed). In the build window, this points to the following line in: "RunPlatformUnitTests.include" RPUTIFail ${LINENO} "Test rig '${TEST_RIG}' exited abnormally with code ${TEST_RIG_RESULT} (it may have crashed)." My unit test looks like this: #import <SenTestingKit/SenTestingKit.h> #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> // Test-subject headers. #import "TextFieldFactory.h" @interface TextFieldFactoryTests : SenTestCase { } @end @implementation TextFieldFactoryTests #pragma mark Test Setup/teardown - (void) setUp { NSLog(@"%@ setUp", self.name); } - (void) tearDown { NSLog(@"%@ tearDown", self.name); } #pragma mark Tests - (void) testUITextField_NotASecureField { NSLog(@"%@ start", self.name); UITextField *textField = [TextFieldFactory createTextField:YES]; NSLog(@"%@ end", self.name); } The class I'm trying to test: // Header file #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface TextFieldFactory : NSObject { } +(UITextField *)createTextField:(BOOL)isSecureField; @end // Implementation file #import "TextFieldFactory.h" @implementation TextFieldFactory +(UITextField *)createTextField:(BOOL)isSecureField { // x,y,z,w are constants declared else where UITextField *textField = [[[UITextField alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(x, y, z, w)] autorelease]; // some initialization code return textField; } @end

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  • How to reproduce System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1Managed result in Python

    - by joetyson
    Here's the deal: I'm moving a .NET website to Python. I have a database with passwords hashed using the System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1Managed utility. I'm creating the hash in .NET with the following code: string hashedPassword = Cryptographer.CreateHash("MYHasher", userInfo.Password); The MYHasher block looks like this: <add algorithmType="System.Security.Cryptography.SHA1Managed, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=blahblahblah" saltEnabled="true" type="Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Security.Cryptography.HashAlgorithmProvider, Microsoft.Practices.EnterpriseLibrary.Security.Cryptography, Version=3.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=daahblahdahdah" name="MYHasher" /> So for a given password, I get back and store in the database a 48 byte salted sha1. I assume the last 8 bytes are the salt. I have tried to reproduce the hashing process in python by doing a sha1(salt + password) and sha1(password + salt) but I'm having no luck. My question to you: How are the public keys being used? How is the password rehashed using the salt. How is the salt created? (e.g., When I say saltEnabled="true", what extra magic happens?) I need specific details that don't just reference other .NET libraries, I'm looking for the actual operational logic that happens in the blackbox. Thanks!

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  • Asynchronous pages in the ASP.NET framework - where are the other threads and how is it reattached?

    - by rkrauter
    Sorry for this dumb question on Asynchronous operations. This is how I understand it. IIS has a limited set of worker threads waiting for requests. If one request is a long running operation, it will block that thread. This leads to fewer threads to serve requests. Way to fix this - use asynchronous pages. When a request comes in, the main worker thread is freed and this other thread is created in some other place. The main thread is thus able to serve other requests. When the request completes on this other thread, another thread is picked from the main thread pool and the response is sent back to the client. 1) Where are these other threads located? 2) IF ASP.NET likes creating new threads, why not increase the number of threads in the main worker pool - they are all running on the same machine anyway? 3) If the main thread hands off a request to this other thread, why does the request not get disconnected? It magically hands off the request to another worker thread somewhere else and when the long running process completes, it picks a thread from the main worker pool and sends response to the client. I am amazed...but how does that work?

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  • ASP MVC C#: LINQ Foreign Key Constraint conflicts

    - by wh0emPah
    I'm having a problem with LINQ. I have 2 tables (Parent-child relation) Table1: Events (EventID, Description) Table2: Groups (GroupID, EventID(FK), Description) Now i want to create an Event an and a child. Event e = new Event(); e.Description = "test"; Datacontext.Events.InsertOnSubmit(event) Group g = new Group(); g.Description = "test2"; g.EventID = e.EventID; Datacontext.Groups.InsertOnSubmit(g); Datacontext.SubmitChanges(); When i debug, i can see that after inserting the event. the EventID has gotten a new value (auto increment). But when Datacontext.SubmitChanges(); gets called. I get the following exception "The INSERT statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY constraint ... I know this can be solved by creating a relation in the LINQ diagram between Events and groups. And then setting the entity itself. But i don't want to load the events everytime i ask a list of groups. All i need is some way that when inserting the group fails, the event insert won't be comitted in the database. Sorry if this is a bit unclear, My english isn't really good. Thanks in advance!

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  • Repository pattern with lazying loading using POCO

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm in the process of starting a new project and creating the business objects and data access etc. I'm just using plain old clr objects rather than any orms. I've created two class libraries: 1) Business Objects - holds all my business objects, all this objects are light weight with only properties and business rules. 2) Repository - this is for all my data access. The majority of my objects will have child list in and my question is what is the best way to lazy load these values as I don't want to bring back unnecessary information if I dont need to. I've thought about when using the "get" on the child property to check if its "null" and if it is call my repository to get the child information. This has two problems from what I can see: 1) The object "knows" how to get itself I would rather no data access logic be held in the object. 2) This required both classes to reference each other which in visual studio throws a circular dependency error. Does anyone have any suggestions on how to overcome this issue or any recommendations on my projects layout and where it can be improved? Thanks

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  • Ubuntu 10.04 (Lucid) OpenLDAP invalid credentials issue

    - by gmuller
    This won't be a question, but a solution to an infuriating problem on Ubuntu 10.04. If you tried to deploy an LDAP server using this distro following the tutorials below, you'll be on serious trouble. Tutorials: https://help.ubuntu.com/9.10/serverguide/C/openldap-server.html https://help.ubuntu.com/9.10/serverguide/C/samba-ldap.html The error first appear, on the line: "ldapsearch -xLLL -b cn=config -D cn=admin,cn=config -W olcDatabase=hdb olcAccess" It simply won't allow admin to access the "cn=config", thus you won't be able to deploy the LDAP server correctly. After almost a week searching for a solution, I've found this page: https://bugs.launchpad.net/ubuntu-docs/+bug/333733 On comment #5, the solution is presented. Quoting the author: when you get to the setting up ACL part you all of a sudden need to use a cn=admin,cn=config, that doesn't exist creating a config.ldif with dn: olcDatabase={0}config,cn=config changetype: modify add: olcRootDN olcRootDN: cn=admin,cn=config dn: olcDatabase={0}config,cn=config changetype: modify add: olcRootPW olcRootPW: secret dn: olcDatabase={0}config,cn=config changetype: modify delete: olcAccess and adding it with ldapadd -Y EXTERNAL -H ldapi:/// -f config.ldif It's unacceptable that a Linux distribution, popular like Ubuntu, have such ridiculous bug. Hope it helps everyone!

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  • Sqlite3 query in objective c

    - by user271753
    -(IBAction)ButtonPressed:(id)sender { const char *sql = "SELECT AccessCode FROM UserAccess"; NSString *sqlns; sqlns = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:sql]; if([Password.text isEqual:sqlns]) { NSLog(@"Correct"); } else { NSLog(@"Wrong"); } NSLog(@"%@",sqlns); } Noob here , At NSLog I am able to print "SELECT AccessCode FROM UserAccess" where as let say the access code is 1234 , which I want . In the appdelegate I Have : /// - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // Override point for customization after app launch [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } /// - (void)createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded { NSLog(@"Creating editable copy of database"); // First, test for existence. BOOL success; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSError *error; NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *writableDBPath = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:writableDBPath]; if (success) return; // The writable database does not exist, so copy the default to the appropriate location. NSString *defaultDBPath = [[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; success = [fileManager copyItemAtPath:defaultDBPath toPath:writableDBPath error:&error]; if (!success) { NSAssert1(0, @"Failed to create writable database file with message '%@'.", [error localizedDescription]); } } /// +(sqlite3 *) getNewDBConnection{ sqlite3 *newDBconnection; NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *path = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"UserAccess.sqlite"]; // Open the database. The database was prepared outside the application. if (sqlite3_open([path UTF8String], &newDBconnection) == SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"Database Successfully Opened :) "); } else { NSLog(@"Error in opening database :( "); } return newDBconnection; } Please help :(

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  • Seperating Javascript and Html, when dynamically adding html via javascript

    - by optician
    I am currently building a very dynamic table for a list application, which will basically perform basic CRUD functions via AJAX. What I would like to do is separate the visual design and javascript to the point where I can change the design side without touching the JS side. This would only work where the design stays roughly the same(i would like to use it for rapid protyping) Here is an example. <table> <tr><td>record-123</td><td>I am line 123</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-124</td><td>I am line 124</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>record-125</td><td>I am line 125</td><td>delete row</td></tr> <tr><td>add new record</td></tr> </table> Now, when I add a new record, I would like to insert a new row of html, but I would rather not put this html into the javascript file. What I am considering is creating a row like this on the page, near the table. <tr style='visble:none;' id='template-row'><td>record-id</td><td>content-area</td><td>delete row</td></tr> And when I come to add the new row, I search the page for the tags with the id=template-row , and then grab it, do a string replace on it, and then put it in the right place in the page. As long as the design doesn't shift radically, and I keep the placeholder strings the same, it means designs can be quickly modified without touching the js. Can any give any advice on a methodology like this?

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  • Friend Assemblies in C#

    - by Tim Long
    I'm trying to create some 'friend assemblies' using the [InternalsVisibleTo()] attribute, but I can't seem to get it working. I've followed Microsoft's instructions for creating signed friend assemblies and I can't see where I'm going wrong. So I'll detail my steps here and hopefully someone can spot my deliberate mistake...? Create a strong name key and extract the public key, thus: sn -k StrongNameKey sn -p public.pk sn -tp public.pk Add the strong name key to each project and enable signing. Create a project called Internals and a class with an internal property: namespace Internals { internal class ClassWithInternals { internal string Message { get; set; } public ClassWithInternals(string m) { Message = m; } } } Create another project called TestInternalsVisibleTo: namespace TestInternalsVisibleTo { static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [STAThread] static void Main() { var c = new Internals.ClassWithInternals("Test"); Console.WriteLine(c.Message); } } } Edit the AssemblyInfo.cs file for the Internals project, and add teh necessary attribute: [assembly: AssemblyTitle("AssemblyWithInternals")] [assembly: AssemblyDescription("")] [assembly: AssemblyConfiguration("")] [assembly: AssemblyCompany("Microsoft")] [assembly: AssemblyProduct("Internals")] [assembly: AssemblyCopyright("Copyright © Microsoft 2010")] [assembly: AssemblyTrademark("")] [assembly: AssemblyCulture("")] [assembly: ComVisible(false)] [assembly: Guid("41c590dc-f555-48bc-8a94-10c0e7adfd9b")] [assembly: AssemblyVersion("1.0.0.0")] [assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("1.0.0.0")] [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("TestInternalsVisibleTo PublicKey=002400000480000094000000060200000024000052534131000400000100010087953126637ab27cb375fa917c35b23502c2994bb860cc2582d39912b73740d6b56912c169e4a702bedb471a859a33acbc8b79e1f103667e5075ad17dffda58988ceaf764613bd56fc8f909f43a1b177172bc4143c96cf987274873626abb650550977dcad1bb9bfa255056bb8d0a2ec5d35d6f8cb0a6065ec0639550c2334b9")] And finally... build! I get the following errors: error CS0122: 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' is inaccessible due to its protection level error CS1729: 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' does not contain a constructor that takes 1 arguments error CS1061: 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' does not contain a definition for 'Message' and no extension method 'Message' accepting a first argument of type 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Basically, it's as if I had not used the InternalsVisibleTo attrbute. Now, I'm not going to fall into the trap of blaming the tools, so what's up here? Anyone?

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  • Does Google Maps API v3 allow larger zoom values ?

    - by Dr1Ku
    If you use the satellite GMapType using this Google-provided example in v3 of the API, the maximum zoom level has a scale of 2m / 10ft , whereas using the v2 version of another Google-provided example (had to use another one since the control-simple doesn't have the scale control) yields the maximum scale of 20m / 50ft. Is this a new "feature" of v3 ? I have to mention that I've tested the examples in the same GLatLng regions - so my guess is that tile detail level doesn't influence it, am I mistaken ? As mentioned in another question, v3 is to be considered of very Labs-y/beta quality, so use in production should be discouraged for the time being. I've been drawn to the subject since I have to "increase the zoom level of a GMap", the answers here seem to suggest using GTileLayer, and I'm considering GMapCreator, although this will involve some effort. What I'm trying to achieve is to have a larger zoom level, a scale of 2m / 10ft would be perfect, I have a map where the tiles aren't that hi-res and quite a few markers. Seeing that the area doesn't have hi-res tiles, the distance between the markers is really tiny, creating some problematic overlapping. Or better yet, how can you create a custom Map which allows higher zoom levels, as by the Google Campus, where the 2m / 10ft scale is achieved, and not use your own tileserver ? I've seen an example on a fellow Stackoverflower's GMaps sandbox , where the tiles are manually created based on the zoom level. I don't think I'm making any more sense, so I'm just going to end this big question here, I've been wondering around trying to find a solution for hours now. Hope that someone comes to my aid though ! Thank you in advance !

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  • When to use custom exceptions vs. existing exceptions vs. generic exceptions

    - by Ryan Elkins
    I'm trying to figure out what the correct form of exceptions to throw would be for a library I am writing. One example of what I need to handle is logging a user in to a station. They do this by scanning a badge. Possible things that could go wrong include: Their badge is deactivated They don't have permission to work at this station The badge scanned does not exist in the system They are already logged in to another station elsewhere The database is down Internal DB error (happens sometimes if the badge didn't get set up correctly) An application using this library will have to handle these exceptions one way or another. It's possible they may decide to just say "Error" or they may want to give the user more useful information. What's the best practice in this situation? Create a custom exception for each possibility? Use existing exceptions? Use Exception and pass in the reason (throw new Exception("Badge is deactivated.");)? I'm thinking it's some sort of mix of the first two, using existing exceptions where applicable, and creating new ones where needed (and grouping exceptions where it makes sense).

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  • Map NHibernate entity to multiple tables based on parent

    - by Programming Hero
    I'm creating a domain model where entities often (but not always) have a member of type ActionLog. ActionLog is a simple class which allows for an audit trail of actions being performed on an instance. Each action is recorded as an ActionLogEntry instance. ActionLog is implemented (approximately) as follows: public class ActionLog { public IEnumerable<ActionLogEntry> Entries { get { return EntriesCollection; } } protected ICollection<ActionLogEntry> EntriesCollection { get; set; } public void AddAction(string action) { // Append to entries collection. } } What I would like is to re-use this class amongst my entities and have the entries map to different tables based on which class they are logged against. For example: public class Customer { public ActionLog Actions { get; protected set; } } public class Order { public ActionLog Actions { get; protected set; } } This design is suitable for me in the application, however I can't see a clear way to map this scenario to a database with NHibernate. I typically use Fluent NHibernate for my configuration, but I'm happy to accept answers in more general HBM xml.

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  • iPhone: In landscape-only, after first addSubview, UITableViewController doesn't rotate properly

    - by Clay Bridges
    A minimal illustrative Xcode project for this is available on github. On my UIWindow, when I add second (and subsequent) UITableView's as subviews, they do not rotate properly, and thus appear sideways. This is only tested in the Simulator. Here's a little code for you: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { ShellTVC* viewA = [[ShellTVC alloc] initWithTitle:@"View A"]; ShellTVC* viewB = [[ShellTVC alloc] initWithTitle:@"View B"]; // The first subview added will rotate to landscape correctly. // Any subsequent subview added will not. // You may try this by various commentings and rearranging of these two statements. [window addSubview:[viewA tableView]]; [window addSubview:[viewB tableView]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } viewB appears sideways. Comment out the addSubview for viewB, and viewA appears correctly. Do that for viewA only, and viewB appears correctly. I am not creating these UITableViewControllers via NIBs, though the UIWindow is. In case you are wondering, ShellTVC is-a UITableViewController, and implements this method: - (BOOL) shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft); } Also, I have set the UIInterfaceOrientation in the plist file to UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft. Probably related -- and unanswered -- SO questions here and here.

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  • Multiple CodeSnippet in an XML .snippet file

    - by Frinavale
    I'm attempting to supplement the help features for my code by providing other developers with code snippets. These produce skeletons of code which demonstrate how to use/call my classes or methods. I've created a .snippet file and have placed it in the "%Visual Studio Folder%\Code Snippets\Visual Basic\My Snippets" folder. I've used the Code Snippets Manager and ensured that it included this folder so that I can access the snippets. Everything works well when I have 1 CodeSnippet tag within the root CodeSnippets tag.... When I add more than one CodeSnippet tag to the file (each with their own title, and their own code example) I'm experiencing something strange. The first CodeSnippet I've added contains code for adding something to my system, the second contains code for editing something in my system, and the third deleting something from the system. When I use the code snippet by right clicking and selecting "Insert Code Snippet", only the first code snippet in the file shows up as an option. When I select it, the code in the first CodeSnippet is inserted....but so is the code within the other CodeSnippet tags. Do you have to have a separate XML .snippet file for each code snippet you want to make available? After reading through MSDN about creating Code Snippets I was under the impression that this could all be done within one file. It seems that I'm not understanding something very basic here and would love to find the answer but apparently Code Snippets are under used so finding the answer has proven to be a little trickier than I first thought it would be. Thanks, -Frinny

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