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  • Linux, GNU GCC, ld, version scripts and the ELF binary format -- How does it work??

    - by themoondothshine
    Hey all, I'm trying to learn more about library versioning in Linux and how to put it all to work. Here's the context: -- I have two versions of a dynamic library which expose the same set of interfaces, say libsome1.so and libsome2.so. -- An application is linked against libsome1.so. -- This application uses libdl.so to dynamically load another module, say libmagic.so. -- Now libmagic.so is linked against libsome2.so. Obviously, without using linker scripts to hide symbols in libmagic.so, at run-time all calls to interfaces in libsome2.so are resolved to libsome1.so. This can be confirmed by checking the value returned by libVersion() against the value of the macro LIB_VERSION. -- So I try next to compile and link libmagic.so with a linker script which hides all symbols except 3 which are defined in libmagic.so and are exported by it. This works... Or at least libVersion() and LIB_VERSION values match (and it reports version 2 not 1). -- However, when some data structures are serialized to disk, I noticed some corruption. In the application's directory if I delete libsome1.so and create a soft link in its place to point to libsome2.so, everything works as expected and the same corruption does not happen. I can't help but think that this may be caused due to some conflict in the run-time linker's resolution of symbols. I've tried many things, like trying to link libsome2.so so that all symbols are alised to symbol@@VER_2 (which I am still confused about because the command nm -CD libsome2.so still lists symbols as symbol and not symbol@@VER_2)... Nothing seems to work!!! Help!!!!!! Edit: I should have mentioned it earlier, but the app in question is Firefox, and libsome1.so is libsqlite3.so shipped with it. I don't quite have the option of recompiling them. Also, using version scripts to hide symbols seems to be the only solution right now. So what really happens when symbols are hidden? Do they become 'local' to the SO? Does rtld have no knowledge of their existence? What happens when an exported function refers to a hidden symbol?

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  • How to open a server port outside of an OpenVPN tunnel with a pf firewall on OSX (BSD)

    - by Timbo
    I have a Mac mini that I use as a media server running XBMC and serves media from my NAS to my stereo and TV (which has been color calibrated with a Spyder3Express, happy). The Mac runs OSX 10.8.2 and the internet connection is tunneled for general privacy over OpenVPN through Tunnelblick. I believe my anonymous VPN provider pushes "redirect_gateway" to OpenVPN/Tunnelblick because when on it effectively tunnels all non-LAN traffic in- and outbound. As an unwanted side effect that also opens the boxes server ports unprotected to the outside world and bypasses my firewall-router (Netgear SRX5308). I have run nmap from outside the LAN on the VPN IP and the server ports on the mini are clearly visible and connectable. The mini has the following ports open: ssh/22, ARD/5900 and 8080+9090 for the XBMC iOS client Constellation. I also have Synology NAS which apart from LAN file serving over AFP and WebDAV only serves up an OpenVPN/1194 and a PPTP/1732 server. When outside of the LAN I connect to this from my laptop over OpenVPN and over PPTP from my iPhone. I only want to connect through AFP/548 from the mini to the NAS. The border firewall (SRX5308) just works excellently, stable and with a very high throughput when streaming from various VOD services. My connection is a 100/10 with a close to theoretical max throughput. The ruleset is as follows Inbound: PPTP/1723 Allow always to 10.0.0.40 (NAS/VPN server) from a restricted IP range >corresponding to possible cell provider range OpenVPN/1194 Allow always to 10.0.0.40 (NAS/VPN server) from any Outbound: Default outbound policy: Allow Always OpenVPN/1194 TCP Allow always from 10.0.0.40 (NAS) to a.b.8.1-a.b.8.254 (VPN provider) OpenVPN/1194 UDP Allow always to 10.0.0.40 (NAS) to a.b.8.1-a.b.8.254 (VPN provider) Block always from NAS to any On the Mini I have disabled the OSX Application Level Firewall because it throws popups which don't remember my choices from one time to another and that's annoying on a media server. Instead I run Little Snitch which controls outgoing connections nicely on an application level. I have configured the excellent OSX builtin firewall pf (from BSD) as follows pf.conf (Apple App firewall tie-ins removed) (# replaced with % to avoid formatting errors) ### macro name for external interface. eth_if = "en0" vpn_if = "tap0" ### wifi_if = "en1" ### %usb_if = "en3" ext_if = $eth_if LAN="{10.0.0.0/24}" ### General housekeeping rules ### ### Drop all blocked packets silently set block-policy drop ### all incoming traffic on external interface is normalized and fragmented ### packets are reassembled. scrub in on $ext_if all fragment reassemble scrub in on $vpn_if all fragment reassemble scrub out all ### exercise antispoofing on the external interface, but add the local ### loopback interface as an exception, to prevent services utilizing the ### local loop from being blocked accidentally. ### set skip on lo0 antispoof for $ext_if inet antispoof for $vpn_if inet ### spoofing protection for all interfaces block in quick from urpf-failed ############################# block all ### Access to the mini server over ssh/22 and remote desktop/5900 from LAN/en0 only pass in on $eth_if proto tcp from $LAN to any port {22, 5900, 8080, 9090} ### Allow all udp and icmp also, necessary for Constellation. Could be tightened. pass on $eth_if proto {udp, icmp} from $LAN to any ### Allow AFP to 10.0.0.40 (NAS) pass out on $eth_if proto tcp from any to 10.0.0.40 port 548 ### Allow OpenVPN tunnel setup over unprotected link (en0) only to VPN provider IPs ### and port ranges pass on $eth_if proto tcp from any to a.b.8.0/24 port 1194:1201 ### OpenVPN Tunnel rules. All traffic allowed out, only in to ports 4100-4110 ### Outgoing pings ok pass in on $vpn_if proto {tcp, udp} from any to any port 4100:4110 pass out on $vpn_if proto {tcp, udp, icmp} from any to any So what are my goals and what does the above setup achieve? (until you tell me otherwise :) 1) Full LAN access to the above ports on the mini/media server (including through my own VPN server) 2) All internet traffic from the mini/media server is anonymized and tunneled over VPN 3) If OpenVPN/Tunnelblick on the mini drops the connection, nothing is leaked both because of pf and the router outgoing ruleset. It can't even do a DNS lookup through the router. So what do I have to hide with all this? Nothing much really, I just got carried away trying to stop port scans through the VPN tunnel :) In any case this setup works perfectly and it is very stable. The Problem at last! I want to run a minecraft server and I installed that on a separate user account on the mini server (user=mc) to keep things partitioned. I don't want this server accessible through the anonymized VPN tunnel because there are lots more port scans and hacking attempts through that than over my regular IP and I don't trust java in general. So I added the following pf rule on the mini: ### Allow Minecraft public through user mc pass in on $eth_if proto {tcp,udp} from any to any port 24983 user mc pass out on $eth_if proto {tcp, udp} from any to any user mc And these additions on the border firewall: Inbound: Allow always TCP/UDP from any to 10.0.0.40 (NAS) Outbound: Allow always TCP port 80 from 10.0.0.40 to any (needed for online account checkups) This works fine but only when the OpenVPN/Tunnelblick tunnel is down. When up no connection is possbile to the minecraft server from outside of LAN. inside LAN is always OK. Everything else functions as intended. I believe the redirect_gateway push is close to the root of the problem, but I want to keep that specific VPN provider because of the fantastic throughput, price and service. The Solution? How can I open up the minecraft server port outside of the tunnel so it's only available over en0 not the VPN tunnel? Should I a static route? But I don't know which IPs will be connecting...stumbles How secure would to estimate this setup to be and do you have other improvements to share? I've searched extensively in the last few days to no avail...If you've read this far I bet you know the answer :)

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  • One registry key for many products not deleted on uninstall

    - by NC1
    My company has many products, we want to create a registry key Software\$(var.Manufacturer)that will have all of our products if our customers have installed more than one (which is likely) I then want to have a secondary key for each of our products which get removed on uninstall but the main one does not. I have tried to achieve this like below but my main key gets deleted so all of my other products also get deleted from the registry. I know this is trivial but I cannot find an answer. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" Permanent="yes"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" Action="createAndRemoveOnUninstall"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> EDIT: I have got my registry keys to stay using the following code. However they only all delete wen all products are deleted, not one by one as they need to. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="FF75CA48-27DE-430E-B78F-A1DC9468D699" Permanent="yes" Shared="yes" Win64="$(var.Win64)"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="D94FA576-970F-4503-B6C6-BA6FBEF8A60A" Win64="$(var.Win64)" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" ForceDeleteOnUninstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef>

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  • Remove never-run call to templated function, get allocation error on run-time

    - by Narfanator
    First off, I'm a bit at a loss as to how to ask this question. So I'm going to try throwing lots of information at the problem. Ok, so, I went to completely redesign my test project for my experimental core library thingy. I use a lot of template shenanigans in the library. When I removed the "user" code, the tests gave me a memory allocation error. After quite a bit of experimenting, I narrowed it down to this bit of code (out of a couple hundred lines): void VOODOO(components::switchBoard &board){ board.addComponent<using_allegro::keyInputs<'w'> >(); } Fundementally, what's weirding me out is that it appears that the act of compiling this function (and the template function it then uses, and the template functions those then use...), makes this bug not appear. This code is not being run. Similar code (the same, but for different key vals) occurs elsewhere, but is within Boost TDD code. I realize I certainly haven't given enough information for you to solve it for me; I tried, but it more-or-less spirals into most of the code base. I think I'm most looking for "here's what the problem could be", "here's where to look", etc. There's something that's happening during compile because of this line, but I don't know enough about that step to begin looking. Sooo, how can a (presumably) compilied, but never actually run, bit of templated code, when removed, cause another part of code to fail? Error: Unhandled exceptionat 0x6fe731ea (msvcr90d.dll) in Switchboard.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xcdcdcdc1. Callstack: operator delete(void * pUser Data) allocator< class name related to key inputs callbacks ::deallocate vector< same class ::_Insert_n(...) vector< " " ::insert(...) vector<" "::push_back(...) It looks like maybe the vector isn't valid, because _MyFirst and similar data members are showing values of 0xcdcdcdcd in the debugger. But the vector is a member variable...

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  • Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

    - by andySF
    I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

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  • inline and member initializers

    - by Alexander
    When should I inline a member function and when should I use member initializers? My code is below.. I would like to modify it so I could make use some inline when appropriate and member initializers: #include "Books.h" Book::Book(){ nm = (char*)""; thck = 0; wght = 0; } Book::Book(const char *name, int thickness, int weight){ nm = strdup(name); thck = thickness; wght = weight; } Book::~Book(){ } const char* Book::name(){ return nm; } int Book::thickness(){ return thck; } int Book::weight(){ return wght; } // // Prints information about the book using this format: // "%s (%d mm, %d dg)\n" // void Book::print(){ printf("%s (%d mm, %d dg)\n", nm, thck, wght); } Bookcase::Bookcase(int id){ my_id = id; no_shelf = 0; } int Bookcase::id(){ return my_id; } Bookcase::~Bookcase(){ for (int i = 0; i < no_shelf; i++) delete my_shelf[i]; } bool Bookcase::addShelf(int width, int capacity){ if(no_shelf == 10) return false; else{ my_shelf[no_shelf] = new Shelf(width, capacity); no_shelf++; return true; } } bool Bookcase::add(Book *bp){ int index = -1; int temp_space = -1; for (int i = 0; i < no_shelf; i++){ if (bp->weight() + my_shelf[i]->curCapacity() <= my_shelf[i]->capacity()){ if (bp->thickness() + my_shelf[i]->curWidth() <= my_shelf[i]->width() && temp_space < (my_shelf[i]->width() - my_shelf[i]->curWidth())){ temp_space = (my_shelf[i]->width()- my_shelf[i]->curWidth()); index = i; } } } if (index != -1){ my_shelf[index]->add(bp); return true; }else return false; } void Bookcase::print(){ printf("Bookcase #%d\n", my_id); for (int i = 0; i < no_shelf; i++){ printf("--- Shelf (%d mm, %d dg) ---\n", my_shelf[i]->width(), my_shelf[i]->capacity()); my_shelf[i]->print(); } }

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  • Spring MVC, REST, and HATEOAS

    - by SingleShot
    I'm struggling with the correct way to implement Spring MVC 3.x RESTful services with HATEOAS. Consider the following constraints: I don't want my domain entities polluted with web/rest constructs. I don't want my controllers polluted with view constructs. I want to support multiple views. Currently I have a nicely put together MVC app without HATEOAS. Domain entities are pure POJOs without any view or web/rest concepts embedded. For example: class User { public String getName() {...} public String setName(String name) {...} ... } My controllers are also simple. They provide routing and status, and delegate to Spring's view resolution framework. Note my application supports JSON, XML, and HTML, yet no domain entities or controllers have embedded view information: @Controller @RequestMapping("/users") class UserController { @RequestMapping public ModelAndView getAllUsers() { List<User> users = userRepository.findAll(); return new ModelAndView("users/index", "users", users); } @RequestMapping("/{id}") public ModelAndView getUser(@PathVariable Long id) { User user = userRepository.findById(id); return new ModelAndView("users/show", "user", user); } } So, now my issue - I'm not sure of a clean way to support HATEOAS. Here's an example. Let's say when the client asks for a User in JSON format, it comes out like this: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith" } Let's also say that when I support HATEOAS, I want the JSON to contain a simple "self" link that the client can then use to refresh the object, delete it, or something else. It might also have a "friends" link indicating how to get the user's list of friends: { firstName: "John", lastName: "Smith", links: [ { rel: "self", ref: "http://myserver/users/1" }, { rel: "friends", ref: "http://myserver/users/1/friends" } ] } Somehow I want to attach links to my object. I feel the right place to do this is in the controller layer as the controllers all know the correct URLs. Additionally, since I support multiple views, I feel like the right thing to do is somehow decorate my domain entities in the controller before they are converted to JSON/XML/whatever in Spring's view resolution framework. One way to do this might be to wrap the POJO in question with a generic Resource class that contains a list of links. Some view tweaking would be required to crunch it into the format I want, but its doable. Unfortunately nested resources could not be wrapped in this way. Other things that come to mind include adding links to the ModelAndView, and then customizing each of Spring's out-of-the-box view resolvers to stuff links into the generated JSON/XML/etc. What I don't want is to be constantly hand-crafting JSON/XML/etc. to accommodate various links as they come and go during the course of development. Thoughts?

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  • Saving JQuery Draggable Sitemap Values Correctly

    - by mdolon
    I am trying to implement Boagworld's Sitemap tutorial, however I am running into difficulty trying to correctly save the child/parent relationships. The HTML is as follows, however populated with other items as well: <input type="hidden" name="sitemap-order" id="sitemap-order" value="" /> <ul id=”sitemap”> <li id="1"> <dl> <dt><a href=”#”>expand/collapse</a> <a href=”#”>Page Title</a></dt> <dd>Text Page</dd> <dd>Published</dd> <dd><a href=”#”>delete</a></dd> </dl> <ul><!–child pages–></ul> </li> </ul> And here is the JQuery code: $('#sitemap li').prepend('<div class="dropzone"></div>'); $('#sitemap li').draggable({ handle: ' > dl', opacity: .8, addClasses: false, helper: 'clone', zIndex: 100 }); var order = ""; $('#sitemap dl, #sitemap .dropzone').droppable({ accept: '#sitemap li', tolerance: 'pointer', drop: function(e, ui) { var li = $(this).parent(); var child = !$(this).hasClass('dropzone'); //If this is our first child, we'll need a ul to drop into. if (child && li.children('ul').length == 0) { li.append('<ul/>'); } //ui.draggable is our reference to the item that's been dragged. if (child) { li.children('ul').append(ui.draggable); }else { li.before(ui.draggable); } //reset our background colours. li.find('dl,.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '', backgroundColor: '' }); li.find('.dropzone').css({ height: '8px', margin: '0' }); // THE PROBLEM: var parentid = $(this).parent().attr('id'); menuorder += ui.draggable.attr('id')+'=>'+parentid+','; $("#sitemap-order").val(order); }, over: function() { $(this).filter('dl').css({ backgroundColor: '#ccc' }); $(this).filter('.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '#aaa', height: '30px', margin: '5px 0'}); }, out: function() { $(this).filter('dl').css({ backgroundColor: '' }); $(this).filter('.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '', height: '8px', margin: '0' }); } }); When moving items into the top-level (without parents), the parentid value I get is of the first list item (the parent container), so I can never remove the parent value and have a top-level item. Is there a no-brainer answer that I'm just not seeing right now? Any help is appreciated.

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  • Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

    - by Emmel
    This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

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  • Deleting a node in a family tree

    - by user559142
    Hi, I'm trying to calclulate the best way to delete a node in a family tree. First, a little description of how the app works. My app makes the following assumption: Any node can only have one partner. That means that any child a single node has, it will also be the partner nodes child too. Therefore, step relations, divorces etc aren't compensated for. A node always has two parents - A mother and father cannot be added seperately. If the user doesn't know the details - the nodes attributes are set to a default value. Also any node can add parents, siblings, children to itself. Therefore in law relationships can be added. I have the following classes: FamilyMember String fName; String lName; String dob; String gender; FamilyMember mother, father, partner; ArrayListchildren; int index; int generation; void linkParents(); void linkPartner(); void addChild(); //gets & sets for fields Family ArrayListfamily; void addMember(); void removeMember(); FamilyMember getFamilyMember(index); ArrayListgetFamilyMembers(); FamilyTree Family family; void removeMember(); //need help void displayFamilyMembers(); void addFamilyMember(); void enterDetails(); void displayAncestors(); void displayDescendants(); void printDescendants(); FamilyMember findRootNode(); void sortGenerations(); void getRootGeneration(); I am having trouble with identifying the logic for removing a member. All other functions work fine. Has anyone developed a family tree app before who knows how to deal with removing various different nodes in the family "tree"? e.g. removing a leaf removing a leaf with partner (what if partner has parents etc) removing a parent It seems to be another recursive property but my head is swelling from over thought.

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  • Infinite Refresh Loop in Firefox 3.0

    - by Martin Gordon
    I'm having a strange issue with my Javascript in Firefox 3.0.x. In Firefox 3.0.12, the page constantly reloads as soon as the list body is loaded. Neither Firefox 3.5, Safari 4 nor Chrome 5 (all on Mac) experience this issue. EDIT: I've created an isolated example rather than pulling this from my existing code. test.js function welcomeIndexOnLoad() { $("#options a").live('click', function () { optionClicked($(this), "get_list_body.html"); return false; }); $(document).ready(function() { optionClicked(null, "get_list_body.html"); }); } function optionClicked(sender, URL) { queryString = ""; if (sender != null) { queryString = $(sender).attr("rel"); } $("#list_body").load(URL + "?" + queryString, function(resp, status, AJAXReq) { console.log(resp); console.log("" + status); location.hash = queryString; }); }? test.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="test.js"></script> <script> welcomeIndexOnLoad(); </script> </head> <body> <div id="container"> Outside of list body. <div id="list_body"> </div> </div> </body> </html> get_list_body.html <h3> <div id="options"> <a href="#" rel="change_list">Change List</a> </div> <ul> <li>li</li> </ul> jQuery line 5252 (an xhr.send() call) shows up in the console as soon as the page reloads: xhr.send( type === "POST" || type === "PUT" || type === "DELETE" ? s.data : null );

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  • When transactionManager is not named "transactionManager" ...

    - by smallufo
    I am trying Spring 3(.0.2.RELEASE) and JPA2 and Hibernate 3.5.1-Final... One thing upsets me is that spring seems only accept a transaction Manager named "transactionManager" If I don't name it "transactionManager" , Spring will throws NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No bean named 'transactionManager' is defined. Here is my config : <context:component-scan base-package="destiny.data.mining"/> <context:annotation-config/> <bean id="miningEntityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="mining"/> </bean> <bean id="miningTransactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager" > <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="miningEntityManagerFactory"/> </bean> <tx:advice id="txAdviceMining" transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"> <tx:attributes> <tx:method name="get*" read-only="true"/> <tx:method name="save*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="update*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="delete*" propagation="REQUIRED"/> <tx:method name="*" propagation="SUPPORTS" read-only="true"/> </tx:attributes> </tx:advice> <aop:config> <aop:pointcut id="methods" expression="execution(* destiny.utils.AbstractDao+.*(..))"/> <aop:advisor advice-ref="txAdviceMining" pointcut-ref="methods"/> </aop:config> <tx:annotation-driven transaction-manager="miningTransactionManager"/> In this config , an Entity Manager Factory is not necessarily named "entityManagerFactory" , and "txAdvice" is not necessarily named "txAdvice" , either. But I don't know why on earth Spring requires a transaction manager named "transactionManager" ? Is there any way not to name a transaction manager "transactionManager" ? (I'm running multiple spring config files , so I try my best to avoid name-conflicting) test code : @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations={"classpath:mining.xml"}) public class MiningPersonDaoTest { @Inject private EntityManagerFactory miningEntityManagerFactory; @Inject private MiningPersonDao miningPersonDao; @Transactional @Test public void testUpdate() { MiningPerson p = miningPersonDao.get(42L); p.setLocationName("OOXX"); miningPersonDao.update(p); System.out.println(p); } } ii

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  • Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

    - by baron
    Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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  • Strange behavior of std::cout &operator<<...

    - by themoondothshine
    Hey ppl, I came across something weird today, and I was wondering if any of you here could explain what's happening... Here's a sample: #include <iostream> #include <cassert> using namespace std; #define REQUIRE_STRING(s) assert(s != 0) #define REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(s, n) assert(s != 0 || n == 0) class String { public: String(const char *str, size_t len) : __data(__construct(str, len)), __len(len) {} ~String() { __destroy(__data); } const char *toString() const { return const_cast<const char *>(__data); } String &toUpper() { REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(__data, __len); char *it = __data; while(it < __data + __len) { if(*it >= 'a' && *it <= 'z') *it -= 32; ++it; } return *this; } String &toLower() { REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(__data, __len); char *it = __data; while(it < __data + __len) { if(*it >= 'A' && *it <= 'Z') *it += 32; ++it; } return *this; } private: char *__data; size_t __len; protected: static char *__construct(const char *str, size_t len) { REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(str, len); char *data = new char[len]; std::copy(str, str + len, data); return data; } static void __destroy(char *data) { REQUIRE_STRING(data); delete[] data; } }; int main() { String s("Hello world!", __builtin_strlen("Hello world!")); cout << s.toLower().toString() << endl; cout << s.toUpper().toString() << endl; cout << s.toLower().toString() << endl << s.toUpper().toString() << endl; return 0; } Now, I had expected the output to be: hello world! HELLO WORLD! hello world! HELLO WORLD! but instead I got this: hello world! HELLO WORLD! hello world! hello world! I can't really understand why the second toUpper didn't have any effect.

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • Copy constructor bug

    - by user168715
    I'm writing a simple nD-vector class, but am encountering a strange bug. I've stripped out the class to the bare minimum that still reproduces the bug: #include <iostream> using namespace std; template<unsigned int size> class nvector { public: nvector() {data_ = new double[size];} ~nvector() {delete[] data_;} template<unsigned int size2> nvector(const nvector<size2> &other) { data_ = new double[size]; int i=0; for(; i<size && i < size2; i++) data_[i] = other[i]; for(; i<size; i++) data_[i] = 0; } double &operator[](int i) {return data_[i];} const double&operator[](int i) const {return data_[i];} private: const nvector<size> &operator=(const nvector<size> &other); //Intentionally unimplemented for now double *data_; }; int main() { nvector<2> vector2d; vector2d[0] = 1; vector2d[1] = 2; nvector<3> vector3d(vector2d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << vector3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 nvector<3> other3d(vector3d); for(int i=0; i<3; i++) cout << other3d[i] << " "; cout << endl; //Prints 1 2 0 } //Segfault??? On the surface this seems to work fine, and both tests print out the correct values. However, at the end of main the program crashes with a segfault, which I've traced to nvector's destructor. At first I thought the (incorrect) default assignment operator was somehow being called, which is why I added the (currently) unimplemented explicit assignment operator to rule this possibility out. So my copy constructor must be buggy, but I'm having one of those days where I'm staring at extremely simple code and just can't see it. Do you guys have any ideas?

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  • Jscrollpane causese text to disappear on internet explorer

    - by Crippletoe
    Hello all, in my current site, i am using the new Jscrollpane in order to generate a scrollbar for a menu (not my descision but the designer's descision so i dont wanna get into how 90's that all looks like..). my menu is based on a <UL> the <li> elements inside it have the attribute "text-align: right;". my problem that on IE alone the menu text doesnt show when i apply the ScrollPane to the menu. when i delete the ScrollPane function from my code- the menu re-appears. i checked the page with "microsoft Expression" DOM inspector in order to examine how IE sees my code and i can see the <li> elements there, only the text inside them is missing. when i disable the "text-align: right;" for the <li> in my CSS, the text shows again. i suspect this has something to do with the jScrollPane's containing which is relatively aligned but i cannot be sure.. can anyone suggest some fix for this problem? a link to a page where you can see the problem is here: http://kaplanoland.com/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=2&Itemid=12 the problematic menu is on the right side of the page. on every browser but IE you can see the text. only on IE not. my CSS code for that menu (not including the jScrollPane CSS) is here: div#menu2{ position: absolute; top: 123px; right: 36px; width: 330px; height: 150px; } div#menu2_scroll{ /*the actual scroller*/ height: 150px; } div#menu2 div#menu2_contain{ } div#menu2 li{ text-align: right; } div#menu2 li span{ line-height: 18px; } div#menu2 a:link, div#menu2 a:visited{ color: #808285 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 a:hover, div#menu2 li#current a{ color: #000000 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 span.separator{ display: block; padding-top: 12px; padding-bottom: 40px; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; } div#menu2 span.separator span { padding-top: 12px; border-top-width: 1px; border-top-style: solid; border-top-color: #808285; } thank you all so much.

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  • php zencart mod - having problems with attributes array

    - by user80151
    I inherited a zencart mod and can't figure out what's wrong. The customer selects a product and an attribute (model#). This is then sent to another form that they complete. When they submit the form, the product and the attribute should be included in the email sent. At this time, only the product is coming through. The attribute just says "array." The interesting part is, when I delete the line that prints the attribute, the products_options_names will print out. So I know that both the product and the products_options_names are working. The attribute is the only thing that is not working right. Here's what I believe to be the significant code. This is the page that has the form, so the attribute should already be passed to the form. //Begin Adding of New features //$productsimage = $product['productsImage']; $productsname = $product['productsName']; $attributes = $product['attributes']; $products_options_name = $value['products_options_name']; $arr_product_list[] = "<strong>Product Name:</strong> $productsname <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "<strong>Attributes:</strong> $attributes <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "<strong>Products Options Name:</strong> $products_options_name <br />"; $arr_product_list[] .= "---------------------------------------------------------------"; //End Adding of New features } // end foreach ($productArray as $product) ?> Above this, there is another section that has attributes: <?php echo $product['attributeHiddenField']; if (isset($product['attributes']) && is_array($product['attributes'])) { echo '<div class="cartAttribsList">'; echo '<ul>'; reset($product['attributes']); foreach ($product['attributes'] as $option => $value) { ?> Can anyone help me figure out what is wrong? I'm not sure if the problem is on this page or if the attribute isn't being passed to this page. TIA

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  • close file with fclose() but file still in use

    - by Marco
    Hi all, I've got a problem with deleting/overwriting a file using my program which is also being used(read) by my program. The problem seems to be that because of the fact my program is reading data from the file (output.txt) it puts the file in a 'in use' state which makes it impossible to delete or overwrite the file. I don't understand why the file stays 'in use' because I close the file after use with fclose(); this is my code: bool bBool = true while(bBool){ //Run myprogram.exe tot generate (a new) output.txt //Create file pointer and open file FILE* pInputFile = NULL; pInputFile = fopen("output.txt", "r"); // //then I do some reading using fscanf() // //And when I'm done reading I close the file using fclose() fclose(pInputFile); //The next step is deleting the output.txt if( remove( "output.txt" ) == -1 ){ //ERROR }else{ //Succesfull } } I use fclose() to close the file but the file remains in use by my program until my program is totally shut down. What is the solution to free the file so it can be deleted/overwrited? In reality my code isn't a loop without an end ; ) Thanks in advance! Marco Update Like ask a part of my code which also generates the file 'in use'. This is not a loop and this function is being called from the main(); Here is a piece of code: int iShapeNr = 0; void firstRun() { //Run program that generates output.txt runProgram(); //Open Shape data file FILE* pInputFile = NULL; int iNumber = 0; pInputFile = fopen("output.txt", "r"); //Put all orientations of al detected shapes in an array int iShapeNr = 0; int iRotationBuffer[1024];//1024 is maximum detectable shapes, can be changed in RoboRealm int iXMinBuffer[1024]; int iXMaxBuffer[1024]; int iYMinBuffer[1024]; int iYMaxBuffer[1024]; while(feof(pInputFile) == 0){ for(int i=0;i<9;i++){ fscanf(pInputFile, "%d", &iNumber); fscanf(pInputFile, ","); if(i == 1) { iRotationBuffer[iShapeNr] = iNumber; } if(i == 3){//xmin iXMinBuffer[iShapeNr] = iNumber; } if(i == 4){//xmax iXMaxBuffer[iShapeNr] = iNumber; } if(i == 5){//ymin iYMinBuffer[iShapeNr] = iNumber; } if(i == 6){//ymax iYMaxBuffer[iShapeNr] = iNumber; } } iShapeNr++; } fflush(pInputFile); fclose(pInputFile); } The while loop parses the file. The output.txt contains sets of 9 variables, the number of sets is unknown but always in sets of 9. output.txt could contain for example: 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,8,7,6,5,4,1,2,3,0

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  • How can a button click method find out which item is selected in a ListView?

    - by Ian Bayley
    I have a single screen with a bank of buttons below a ListView. Entries on the ListView light up in orange when I scroll so I assume that are selected. When I then press the "Delete" button I want the onClickListener to remove the currently selected entry. But getSelectedItemPosition() always gives me -1. If I can't hope to use the GUI controls in this way, please give me another way of getting the same result. I have even tried setting the onClickListener of the List View to store the index before the button is pressed (in case pressing the button unselects the entry) but even that is always -1 it seems. Here's the code (without the modification which didn't work) package com.bayley; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ArrayAdapter; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.ListView; import java.util.ArrayList; /** * * @author p0074564 */ public class September extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main); final ListView myListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.myListView); Button addButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.AddButton); Button deleteButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.DeleteButton); final EditText editText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.myEditText); final ArrayList<String> todoItems = new ArrayList<String>(); todoItems.add("Monday"); todoItems.add("Tuesday"); todoItems.add("Wednesday"); final ArrayAdapter<String> aa = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, todoItems); myListView.setAdapter(aa); addButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { todoItems.add(editText.getText().toString()); aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); deleteButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // always returns -1 unfortunately ie nothing is ever selected int index = myListView.getSelectedItemPosition(); if (index >= 0) { todoItems.remove(index); } aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); } }

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  • How to write my own global lock / unlock functions for PostgreSQL

    - by rafalmag
    I have postgresql (in perlu) function getTravelTime(integer, timestamp), which tries to select data for specified ID and timestamp. If there are no data or if data is old, it downloads them from external server (downloading time ~300ms). Multiple process use this database and this function. There is an error when two process do not find data and download them and try to do an insert to travel_time table (id and timestamp pair have to be unique). I thought about locks. Locking whole table would block all processes and allow only one to proceed. I need to lock only on id and timestamp. pg_advisory_lock seems to lock only in "current session". But my processes uses their own sessions. I tried to write my own lock/unlock functions. Am I doing it right? I use active waiting, how can I omit this? Maybe there is a way to use pg_advisory_lock() as global lock? My code: CREATE TABLE travel_time_locks ( id_key integer NOT NULL, time_key timestamp without time zone NOT NULL, UNIQUE (id_key, time_key) ); ------------ -- Function: mylock(integer, timestamp) DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS mylock(integer, timestamp) CASCADE; -- Usage: SELECT mylock(1, '2010-03-28T19:45'); -- function tries to do a global lock similar to pg_advisory_lock(key, key) CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION mylock(id_input integer, time_input timestamp) RETURNS void AS $BODY$ DECLARE rows int; BEGIN LOOP BEGIN -- active waiting here !!!! :( INSERT INTO travel_time_locks (id_key, time_key) VALUES (id_input, time_input); EXCEPTION WHEN unique_violation THEN CONTINUE; END; EXIT; END LOOP; END; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 1; ------------ -- Function: myunlock(integer, timestamp) DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS myunlock(integer, timestamp) CASCADE; -- Usage: SELECT myunlock(1, '2010-03-28T19:45'); -- function tries to do a global unlock similar to pg_advisory_unlock(key, key) CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myunlock(id_input integer, time_input timestamp) RETURNS integer AS $BODY$ DECLARE BEGIN DELETE FROM ONLY travel_time_locks WHERE id_key=id_input AND time_key=time_input; RETURN 1; END; $BODY$ LANGUAGE 'plpgsql' VOLATILE COST 1;

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  • Two collections and a for loop. (Urgent help needed) Checking an object variable against an inputted

    - by Elliott
    Hi there, I'm relatively new to java, I'm certain the error is trivial. But can't for the life of me spot it. I have an end of term exam on monday and currently trying to get to grips with past papers! Anyway heregoes, in another method (ALGO_1) I search over elements of and check the value H_NAME equals a value entered in the main. When I attempt to run the code I get a null pointer exception, also upon trying to print (with System.out.println etc) the H_NAME value after each for loop in the snippet I also get a null statement returned to me. I am fairly certain that the collection is simply not storing the data gathered up by the Scanner. But then again when I check the collection size with size() it is about the right size. Either way I'm pretty lost and would appreciate the help. Main questions I guess to ask are: from the readBackground method is the data.add in the wrong place? is the snippet simply structured wrongly? oh and another point when I use System.out.println to check the Background object values name, starttime, increment etc they print out fine. Thanks in advance.(PS im guessing the formatting is terrible, apologies.) snippet of code: for(Hydro hd: hydros){ System.out.println(hd.H_NAME); for(Background back : backgs){ System.out.println(back.H_NAME); if(back.H_NAME.equals(hydroName)){ //get error here public static Collection<Background> readBackground(String url) throws IOException { URL u = new URL(url); InputStream is = u.openStream(); InputStreamReader isr = new InputStreamReader(is); BufferedReader b = new BufferedReader(isr); String line =""; Vector<Background> data = new Vector<Background>(); while((line = b.readLine())!= null){ Scanner s = new Scanner(line); String name = s.next(); double starttime = Double.parseDouble(s.next()); double increment = Double.parseDouble(s.next()); double sum = 0; double p = 0; double nterms = 0; while((s.hasNextDouble())){ p = Double.parseDouble(s.next()); nterms++; sum += p; } double pbmean = sum/nterms; Background SAMP = new Background(name, starttime, increment, pbmean); data.add(SAMP); } return data; } Edit/Delete Message

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  • Why isn't my File.Move() working?

    - by yeahumok
    I'm not sure what exactly i'm doing wrong here...but i noticed that my File.Move() isn't renaming any files. Also, does anybody know how in my 2nd loop, i'd be able to populate my .txt file with a list of the path AND sanitized file name? using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; namespace ConsoleApplication2 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { //recurse through files. Let user press 'ok' to move onto next step string[] files = Directory.GetFiles(@"C:\Documents and Settings\jane.doe\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing", "*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories); foreach (string file in files) { Console.Write(file + "\r\n"); } Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue..."); Console.ReadKey(true); //End section //Regex -- find invalid chars string pattern = " *[\\~#%&*{}/<>?|\"-]+ *"; string replacement = " "; Regex regEx = new Regex(pattern); string[] fileDrive = Directory.GetFiles(@"C:\Documents and Settings\jane.doe\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing", "*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories); List<string> filePath = new List<string>(); //clean out file -- remove the path name so file name only shows string result; foreach(string fileNames in fileDrive) { result = Path.GetFileName(fileNames); filePath.Add(result); } StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(@"C:\Documents and Settings\jane.doe\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing\File_Renames.txt"); //Sanitize and remove invalid chars foreach(string Files2 in filePath) { try { string sanitized = regEx.Replace(Files2, replacement); sw.Write(sanitized + "\r\n"); System.IO.File.Move(Files2, sanitized); System.IO.File.Delete(Files2); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.Write(ex); } } sw.Close(); } } } I'm VERY new to C# and trying to write an app that recurses through a specific drive, finds invalid characters (as specified in the RegEx pattern), removes them from the filename and then write a .txt file that has the path name and the corrected filename. Any ideas?

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  • How to setup Lucene/Solr for a B2B web app?

    - by Bill Paetzke
    Given: 1 database per client (business customer) 5000 clients Clients have between 2 to 2000 users (avg is ~100 users/client) 100k to 10 million records per database Users need to search those records often (it's the best way to navigate their data) Possibly relevant info: Several new clients each week (any time during business hours) Multiple web servers and database servers (users can login via any web server) Let's stay agnostic of language or sql brand, since Lucene (and Solr) have a breadth of support For Example: Joel Spolsky said in Podcast #11 that his hosted web app product, FogBugz On-Demand, uses Lucene. He has thousands of on-demand clients. And each client gets their own database. They use an index per client and store it in the client's database. I'm not sure on the details. And I'm not sure if this is a serious mod to Lucene. The Question: How would you setup Lucene search so that each client can only search within its database? How would you setup the index(es)? Where do you store the index(es)? Would you need to add a filter to all search queries? If a client cancelled, how would you delete their (part of the) index? (this may be trivial--not sure yet) Possible Solutions: Make an index for each client (database) Pro: Search is faster (than one-index-for-all method). Indices are relative to the size of the client's data. Con: I'm not sure what this entails, nor do I know if this is beyond Lucene's scope. Have a single, gigantic index with a database_name field. Always include database_name as a filter. Pro: Not sure. Maybe good for tech support or billing dept to search all databases for info. Con: Search is slower (than index-per-client method). Flawed security if query filter removed. One last thing: I would also accept an answer that uses Solr (the extension of Lucene). Perhaps it's better suited for this problem. Not sure.

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  • Infinite sharing system (PHP/MySQLi)

    - by Toine Lille
    I'm working on a discount system for whichever customer shares a product and brings in new customers. Each unique visit = $0.05 off, each new customer = $0.50 off (it's a cheap product so yeah, no big numbers). When a new customer shares the site, the customer initially responsible for the new customer (if any) will get half of the new customer's discount as well. The initial customer would get a fourth for the next level and the new customer half of that, etc, creating a tree or pyramid that way that could be infinite. Initial customer ($1.35 discount: 2 new+3 visits + half of 1 new+2 visits) Visitor ($0) Visitor ($0) New customer ($0.60) Visitor ($0) Visitor ($0) Newer customer ($0) New customer ($0) Visitor ($0) The customers are saved along with their IP addresses (bin2hex(inet_pton)) in a database table (customers) with info like a unique id, e-mail address and first date/time the purchased a product (= time of registration). The shares are saved in a separate table within the same database (sharing). Each unique IP addresses that visits the site creates a new row featuring the IP address (also saved as bin2hex(inet_pton)), the id of the customer who shared it and the date/time of the visit. Sharing goes via URL, featuring a GET element containing the customer's id. Visits and new customers overlap, as visits will always occur before the new customer does. That's fine. The date/times are used just to make it a little more secure (I also use the IP along with cookies to see if people cheat the system). If an IP is already in the sharing or customer tables, it does not count and will not create a new entry. Now the problem is, how to make the infinity happen and apply the different values to it? That's all I'd need to know. It needs to calculate the discount for each customer separately, but also allow for monitoring altogether (though that's just a matter of passing all ID's through it). I figured I'd start (after the database connection) with $stmt = $con->prepare('SELECT ip,datetime FROM sharing WHERE sender=?'); $stmt->bind_param('i',$customerid); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->store_result(); $discount = $discount + ($stmt->num_rows * 0.05); $stmt->bind_result($ip,$timeofsharing); to translate all the visits to $0.05 of discount each. To check for the new customers that came from these visits, I wrote the following: while ($sql->fetch()) { $stmt2 = $con->prepare("SELECT datetime FROM users WHERE ip=?"); $stmt2->bind_param('s',$ip); $stmt2->execute(); $stmt2->store_result(); $stmt2->bind_result($timeofpurchase); Followed by a little more security comparing the datetimes: while ($stmt2->fetch()) { if (strtotime($timeofpurchase) < strtotime($timeofsharing)) { $discount = $discount + $0.50; } But this is just for the initial customer's direct results. If I'd want to check for the next level, I'd basically have to put the exact same check and loop in itself, checking each new customer the initial customer they brought to the site, and then for the next level again to check all of the newer customers, etc, etc. What to do? / Where to go? / What would be the correct practice for this? Thanks!

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