Search Results

Search found 13794 results on 552 pages for 'variable scope'.

Page 472/552 | < Previous Page | 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479  | Next Page >

  • Does Perl auto-vivify variables used as references in subroutine calls?

    - by FM
    I've declared 2010 to be the year of higher-order programming, so I'm learning Haskell. The introduction has a slick quick-sort demo, and I thought, "Hey, that's easy to do in Perl". It turned to be easier than I expected. Note that I don't have to worry about whether my partitions ($less and $more) are defined. Normally you can't use an undefined value as an array reference. use strict; use warnings; use List::MoreUtils qw(part); my @data = (5,6,7,4,2,9,10,9,5,1); my @sorted = qsort(@data); print "@sorted\n"; sub qsort { return unless @_; my $pivot = shift @_; my ($less, $more) = part { $_ < $pivot ? 0 : 1 } @_; # Works, even though $less and $more are sometimes undefined. return qsort(@$less), $pivot, qsort(@$more); } As best I can tell, Perl will auto-vivify a variable that you try to use as a reference -- but only if you are passing it to a subroutine. For example, my call to foo() works, but not the attempted print. use Data::Dumper qw(Dumper); sub foo { print "Running foo(@_)\n" } my ($x); print Dumper($x); # Fatal: Can't use an undefined value as an ARRAY reference. # print @$x, "\n"; # But this works. foo(@$x); # Auto-vivification: $x is now []. print Dumper($x); My questions: Am I understanding this behavior correctly? What is the explanation or reasoning behind why Perl does this? Is this behavior explained anywhere in the docs?

    Read the article

  • How can I create a new Person object correctly in Javascript?

    - by TimDog
    I'm still struggling with this concept. I have two different Person objects, very simply: ;Person1 = (function() { function P (fname, lname) { P.FirstName = fname; P.LastName = lname; return P; } P.FirstName = ''; P.LastName = ''; var prName = 'private'; P.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return P; })(); ;Person2 = (function() { var prName = 'private'; this.FirstName = ''; this.LastName = ''; this.showPrivate = function() { alert(prName); }; return function(fname, lname) { this.FirstName = fname; this.LastName = lname; } })(); And let's say I invoke them like this: var s = new Array(); //Person1 s.push(new Person1("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person1("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[0].FirstName); alert(s[1].FirstName); s[1].showPrivate(); //Person2 s.push(new Person2("sal", "smith")); s.push(new Person2("bill", "wonk")); alert(s[2].FirstName); alert(s[3].FirstName); s[3].showPrivate(); The Person1 set alerts "bill" twice, then alerts "private" once -- so it recognizes the showPrivate function, but the local FirstName variable gets overwritten. The second Person2 set alerts "sal", then "bill", but it fails when the showPrivate function is called. The new keyword here works as I'd expect, but showPrivate (which I thought was a publicly exposed function within the closure) is apparently not public. I want to get my object to have distinct copies of all local variables and also expose public methods -- I've been studying closures quite a bit, but I'm still confused on this one. Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Use of 'this keyword' javascript in IE ?

    - by Ron
    Is there a workaround for Internet Explorer to implement the functionality offered by 'this' javascript keyword to get the dom element that triggered the event? My problem scenario is : I have a variable number of text fields in the html form, like input type="text" id="11" input type="text" id="12" .. I need to handle the "onchange" event for each text field, and the handling is dependent on the 'id' of the field that triggered the event. So far I understand that my options are: 1) attach a dedicated event handler for each text field. so if I have n fields, i have n different functions, something like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="function11();" input type="text" id="12" onchange="function12();" but the text fields are added and removed dynamically, so a better way would be to have one generic function instead. 2) use the 'this' keyword like: input type="text" id="11" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" input type="text" id="12" onchange="functionGeneric(this);" But this option does not work with Internet Explorer. Can anyone suggest a work around for getting it work in IE or some other solution that can be applied here? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't 'Q' unify in this PROLOG program

    - by inspectorG4dget
    Hello SO, I am writing a PROLOG program in which the variable of interest (Q) refuses to unify. I have gotten around this with a hacky solution (include a write statement). But there has to be a way to make this unify, but for the love of me, I am not able to figure it out. I'd really appreciate any help. Thanks in advance. Here is my code (I have annotated wherever I have excluded code for brevity) :- use_module(library(bounds)). :- use_module(library(lists)). solve([17],Q,_,_,_):- write(Q). %this is the hacky workaround solve(L,Q,1,3,2) :- jump(L,Q,N,1,3,2,R), solve(N,R,S,D,M), member([S|[D|[M|[]]]],[[1, 3, 2], [1, 9, 4], [2, 10, 5] this list contains 76 items - all of which are lists of length 3. I have omitted them here for the sake of brevity]). % there are about 75 other definitions for solve, all of which are structured exactly the same. The only difference is that the numbers in the input parameters will be different in each definition jump(L,Q,N,S,D,M,R):- member(S,L), not(member(D,L)), member(M,L), delete(L,S,X), delete(X,M,Y), append(Y,[D],N), append(Q,[[S,D]],R). cross_sol(Q) :- solve([5,9,10,11,17,24],[],S,D,M), member([S,D,M], [ I have edited out this list here for the sake of brevity. It is the same list found in the definition of solve ]). For some reason, Q does not unify. Please help!

    Read the article

  • Drawing Quadratic Bezier circles with a given radius: how to determine control points

    - by Casey
    Just to clarify; the code below works, but I don't understand where the formula for the variable "controlRadius" comes from. I wrote this function by dissecting an example I found elsewhere, but I can't find any explanation and the original code comments were not able to be translated. Thanks in advance //returns an array of quadratic Bezier segments public static function generateCircularQuadraticBezierSegments(radius:Number, numControlPoints:uint, centerX:Number, centerY:Number):Array { var segments:Array = []; var arcLength:Number = 2 * Math.PI / numControlPoints; var controlRadius:Number; var segment:QuadraticBezierSegment; for (var i:int = 0; i < numControlPoints; i++) { var startX:Number = centerX + radius * Math.cos(arcLength * i); var startY:Number = centerY + radius * Math.sin(arcLength * i); //control radius formula //where does it come from, why does it work? controlRadius = radius / Math.cos(arcLength * .5); //the control point is plotted halfway between the arcLength and uses the control radius var controlX:Number = centerX + controlRadius * Math.cos(arcLength * (i + 1) - arcLength * .5); var controlY:Number = centerY + controlRadius * Math.sin(arcLength * (i + 1) - arcLength * .5); var endX:Number = centerX + radius * Math.cos(arcLength * (i + 1)); var endY:Number = centerY + radius * Math.sin(arcLength * (i + 1)); segment = new QuadraticBezierSegment(new Point(startX, startY), new Point(controlX, controlY), new Point(endX, endY)); segments.push(segment); } return segments; }

    Read the article

  • property names are different from original Object in the silverlight

    - by kwon
    Following is part of service layer which is provided by WCF service : [Serializable] public class WaitInfo { private string roomName; private string pName; private string tagNo; public string RoomName { get { return roomName; } set { this.roomName = value; } } public string PName { get { return pName; } set { this.pName = value; } } public string TagNo { get { return tagNo; } set { this.tagNo = value; } } } public class Service1 : IService1 { public List<WaitInfo> GetWaitingList() { MyDBDataContext db = new MyDBDataContext(); var query = from w in db.WAIT_INFOs select new WaitInfo { TagNo = w.PATIENT_INFO.TAG_NO, RoomName= w.ROOM_INFO.ROOM_NAME, PName= w.PATIENT_INFO.P_NAME }; List<WaitInfo> result = query.ToList(); return result; } And following is codebehind part of UI layer which is provided by Silverlight public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Service1Client s = new Service1Client(); s.GetWaitingListCompleted += new EventHandler<GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs>( s_GetWaitingListCompleted); s.GetWaitingListAsync(); } void s_GetWaitingListCompleted(object sender, RadControlsSilverlightApplication1.ServiceReference2.GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs e) { GridDataGrid.ItemsSource = e.Result; } And following is xaml code in Silverlight page <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <data:DataGrid x:Name="GridDataGrid"></data:DataGrid> </Grid> Is is very simple code, however what I am thinking weird is property name of object at "e.Result" in the code behind page. In the service layer, although properties' names are surely "RoomName, PName, TagNo", in the silverlight properties' names are "roomName, pName, tagNo" which are private variable name of the WaitingList Object. Did I something wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Javascript Object.Watch for all browsers?

    - by SeanW
    Hey all, I was looking for an easy way to monitor an object or variable for changes, and I found Object.Watch that's supported in Mozilla browsers, but not IE. So I started searching around to see if anyone had written some sort of equivalent. About the only thing I've found has been a jQuery plugin (http://plugins.jquery.com/files/jquery-watch.js.txt), but I'm not sure if that's the best way to go. I certainly use jQuery in most of my projects, so I'm not worried about the jQuery aspect... Anyway, the question: can someone show me a working example of that jQuery plugin? I'm having problems making it work... Or, does anyone know of any better alternatives that would work cross browser? Thanks! Update after answers: Thanks everyone for the responses! I tried out the code posted here: http://webreflection.blogspot.com/2009/01/internet-explorer-object-watch.html But I couldn't seem to make it work with IE. The code below works fine in FireFox, but does nothing in IE. In Firefox, each time watcher.status is changed, the document.write in watcher.watch is called and you can see the output on the page. In IE, that doesn't happen, but I can see that watcher.status is updating the value, because the last document.write shows the correct value (in both IE and FF). But, if the callback function isn't called, then that's kind of pointless... :) Am I missing something? var options = {'status': 'no status'}, watcher = createWatcher(options); watcher.watch("status", function(prop, oldValue, newValue) { document.write("old: " + oldValue + ", new: " + newValue + "<br>"); return newValue; }); watcher.status = 'asdf'; watcher.status = '1234'; document.write(watcher.status + "<br>");

    Read the article

  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

    Read the article

  • Is there any Java Decompiler that can correctly decompile calls to overloaded methods?

    - by mihi
    Consider this (IMHO simple) example: public class DecompilerTest { public static void main(String[] args) { Object s1 = "The", s2 = "answer"; doPrint((Object) "You should know:"); for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++) { doPrint(s1); doPrint(s2); s1 = "is"; s2 = new Integer(42); } System.out.println(); } private static void doPrint(String s1) { System.out.print("Wrong!"); } private static void doPrint(Object s1) { System.out.print(s1 + " "); } } Compile it with source/target level 1.1 without debug information (i.e. no local variable information should be present) and try to decompile it. I tried Jad, JD-GUI and Fernflower, and all of them got at least one of the call wrong (i. e. the program printed "Wrong!" at least once) Is there really no java decompiler that can infer the right casts so that it will not call the wrong overload?

    Read the article

  • Linq is returning too many results when joined

    - by KallDrexx
    In my schema I have two database tables. relationships and relationship_memberships. I am attempting to retrieve all the entries from the relationship table that have a specific member in it, thus having to join it with the relationship_memberships table. I have the following method in my business object: public IList<DBMappings.relationships> GetRelationshipsByObjectId(int objId) { var results = from r in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() join m in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() on r.rel_id equals m.rel_id where m.obj_id == objId select r; return results.ToList<DBMappings.relationships>(); } _Context is my generic repository using code based on the code outlined here. The problem is I have 3 records in the relationships table, and 3 records in the memberships table, each membership tied to a different relationship. 2 membership records have an obj_id value of 2 and the other is 3. I am trying to retrieve a list of all relationships related to object #2. When this linq runs, _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() returns the correct 3 records and _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() returns 3 records. However, when the results.ToList() executes, the resulting list has 2 issues: 1) The resulting list contains 6 records, all of type DBMappings.relationships(). Upon further inspection there are 2 for each real relationship record, both are an exact copy of each other. 2) All relationships are returned, even if m.obj_id == 3, even though objId variable is correctly passed in as 2. Can anyone see what's going on because I've spent 2 days looking at this code and I am unable to understand what is wrong. I have joins in other linq queries that seem to be working great, and my unit tests show that they are still working, so I must be doing something wrong with this. It seems like I need an extra pair of eyes on this one :)

    Read the article

  • How to find/extract data from xml with jQuery

    - by darryl
    I'm trying to extract the StateLongName and StateShortName values from the xml below. I know there has to be a simple elegant way to do this with jQuery. <NewDataSet> <Table> <StateLongName>Alabama</StateLongName> <StateShortName>AL</StateShortName> </Table> <Table> <StateLongName>Alaska</StateLongName> <StateShortName>AK</StateShortName> </Table> ...elments removed for brevity </NewDataSet> Here's what I've tried. Load the xml from above into a Javascript variable name xml. Try #1 $(xml).find("TABLE").each(function() { var stateName = $(this).find("StateLongName").innerText; var stateCode = $(this).find("StateShortName").innerText; }); Try #1 doesn't find anything and never goes inside to load the stateName and stateCode variables. Try #2 $(xml).find("StateLongName").each(function() { var stateName = $(this).find("StateLongName").innerText; var stateCode = $(this).find("StateShortName").innerText; }); Try #2 does find matches, however the stateName and stateCode are left undefined. Try #3 $(xml).find("StateLongName").each(function() { var stateName = $($(xml).find('StateLongName').parent()[0].innerHTML)[1].data; var stateCode = $($(xml).find('StateLongName').parent()[0].innerHTML)[5].data; }); Try #3 works but there has to be a better way. Please enlighten me. Thanks for you time!

    Read the article

  • ActionScript Tweening Matrix Transform (big problem)

    - by TheDarkIn1978
    i'm attempting to tween the position and angle of a sprite. if i call the functions without tweening, to appear in one step, it's properly set at the correct coordinates and angle. however, tweening it makes it all go crazy. i'm using an rotateAroundInternalPoint matrix, and assume tweening this along with coordinate positions is messing up the results. works fine (without tweening): public function curl():void { imageWidth = 400; imageHeight = 600; parameters.distance = 0.5; parameters.angle = 45; backCanvas.x = imageWidth - imageHeight * parameters.distance; backCanvas.y = imageHeight - imageHeight * parameters.distance; var internalPointMatrix:Matrix = backCanvas.transform.matrix; MatrixTransformer.rotateAroundInternalPoint(internalPointMatrix, backCanvas.width * parameters.distance, 0, parameters.angle); backCanvas.transform.matrix = internalPointMatrix; } doesn't work properly (with tweening): public function curlUp():void { imageWidth = 400; imageHeight = 600; parameters.distance = 0.5; parameters.angle = 45; distanceTween = new Tween(parameters, "distance", None.easeNone, 0, distance, 1, true); angleTween = new Tween(parameters, "angle", None.easeNone, 0, angle, 1, true); angleTween.addEventListener(TweenEvent.MOTION_CHANGE, animateCurl); } private function animateCurl(evt:TweenEvent):void { backCanvas.x = imageWidth - imageHeight * parameters.distance; backCanvas.y = imageHeight - imageHeight * parameters.distance; var internalPointMatrix:Matrix = backCanvas.transform.matrix; MatrixTransformer.rotateAroundInternalPoint(internalPointMatrix, backCanvas.width * parameters.distance, 0, parameters.angle - previousAngle); backCanvas.transform.matrix = internalPointMatrix; previousAngle = parameters.angle; } in order for the angle to tween properly, i had to add a variable that would track it's last angle setting and subtract it from the new one. however, i still can not get this tween to return the same end position and angle as is without tweening. i've been stuck on this problem for a day now, so any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't is operator take in consideration if the explicit operator is overriden when checking ty

    - by Galilyou
    Hey Guys, Consider this code sample: public class Human { public string Value { get; set;} } public class Car { public static explicit operator Human (Car c) { Human h = new Human(); h.Value = "Value from Car"; return h; } } public class Program { public static void Mani() { Car c = new Car(); Human h = (Human)c; Console.WriteLine("h.Value = {0}", h.Value); Console.WriteLine(c is Human); } } Up I provide a possibility of an explicit cast from Car to Human, though Car and Human hierarchically are not related! The above code simply means that "Car is convertible to human" However, if you run the snippet you will find the expression c is Human evaluates to false! I used to believe that the is operator is kinda expensive cause it attempts to do an actual cast that might result in an InvalidCastException. If the operator is trying to cast, then the cast should succeed as there's an operator logic that should perform the cast! What does "is" test? Does test a hierarchical "is-a" relationship? Does test whether a variable type is convertible to a type?

    Read the article

  • Predefined column names in SQL Server pivot table

    - by Marcos Buarque
    Hi, the other day I opened a topic here in StackOverflow (stackoverflow.com/questions/4663698/how-can-i-display-a-consolidated-version-of-my-sql-server-table). At that time I needed help on how to show data on a pivot table. From the help I got here in the forum, my research led me to this page about dynamic SQL: www.sommarskog.se/dynamic_sql.html. And then it led me to this awesome SQL script by Itzik Ben-Gan that will create a stored procedure that outputs a pivot table exactly the way I want: sommarskog.se/pivot_sp.sp. Well, almost. I need one change in this stored procedure. Instead of having dynamic column names pulled from the @on_cols variable in the SPROC, I need the output table to hold generic column names in simple ASC order. Could be, for example, col1, col2, col3, col4 ... The dynamic column names are a problem for me. So I need them named by their index in the order they appear. I have tried all sorts of things changing this great SQL script, but it won't work. I did not paste the code from the author because it is too long, but the link above will get us there. Any help appreciated. Thank you very much

    Read the article

  • Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

    Read the article

  • Adding a decal using multitexturing on an iPhone

    - by Axis
    I'm trying to overlay one image on top of another onto a simple quad. I set my bottom image as texture unit 0, and then my top image (which has a variable alpha) as texture unit 1. Unit 2 has mode GL_DECAL, which means the bottom texture should show up when the alpha is 0, and the top texture should show when the alpha is 1. But, only the top texture shows up and the bottom one doesn't appear at all. It's just white where the bottom texture should show through. glGetError() doesn't report any problems. Any help is appreciated. Thanks! glVertexPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, boxVertices); glEnableClientState(GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); glClientActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, boxTextureCoords); glClientActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE1); glEnableClientState(GL_TEXTURE_COORD_ARRAY); glTexCoordPointer(2, GL_FLOAT, 0, boxTextureCoords); glClientActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glClientActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE1); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glClientActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, one.texture); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_MODULATE); glClientActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE1); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, two.texture); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_DECAL); glDrawArrays(GL_TRIANGLE_FAN, 0, 4);

    Read the article

  • Error when compiling a WinForms project that uses SubSonic library

    - by Mike Devenney
    The code generation is working but I get the following errors when I try to build the project: Error 4 Source file '...Project Path...\Structs.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 5 Source file '...Project Path...\Context.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 6 Source file '...Project Path...\ActiveRecord.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator Error 7 Source file '...Project Path...\StoredProcedures.cs' could not be opened ('Unspecified error ') PPSGenerator I'm using VS2010 on a Windows 7 64 bit machine. Project is targeting Framework 3.5... any ideas? Also noticed the following warnings, but not sure that these are as important: Warning 1 The C# 2.0 and C# 3.5 compilers are no longer supported. Templates will always be compiled with the version 4 compiler instead of 'v3.5' as specified. ...ProjectPath...\Structs.tt 1 4 Warning 2 Multiple template directives were found in the template. All but the first one will be ignored. Multiple parameters to the template directive should be specified within one template directive. ...ProjectPath...\Settings.ttinclude 1 4 Warning 3 Compiling transformation: The variable 'parameters' is assigned but its value is never used ...ProjectPath...\SQLServer.ttinclude 92 15 Thanks! Mike D

    Read the article

  • Bind button visibility to the expresion (C#)

    - by drasto
    I have a delete button in each row of GridView (component ASP.NET). I want some of the delete buttons to be invisible. The visibility of the delete button should depend on the data that are back the row. GridView is backed by EntityDataSource. GridView displays entities called Category, one instance in each row. Entity Category has (besides others) also a field of type EntityCollection. Name of that field is Items. Basically I want to allow user to delete a row only if the Items field of backing Category entity is an empty collection. I cannot make up the binding of Visible property. I have no experience with bindings and Google does not really help. This is how the button looks right now: <asp:Button ID="DeleteButton" runat="server" CommandName="Delete" Text="Delete" Visible=??? ></asp:Button> I don't know what should replace ???. The button schold be visible only when this expression evaluates to true: ((SimpleEShop.Model.Category) dataItem).Items.LongCount() <= 0 where dataItem variable contains data of current row in the table. What is the binding that I need ?

    Read the article

  • Why is there no autorelease pool when I do performSelectorInBackground: ?

    - by Thanks
    I am calling a method that goes in a background thread: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadViewControllerWithIndex:) withObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:viewControllerIndex]]; then, I have this method implementation that gets called by the selector: - (void) loadViewControllerWithIndex:(NSNumber *)indexNumberObj { NSAutoreleasePool *arPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSInteger vcIndex = [indexNumberObj intValue]; Class c; UIViewController *controller = [viewControllers objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; switch (vcIndex) { case 0: c = [MyFirstViewController class]; break; case 1: c = [MySecondViewController class]; break; default: NSLog(@"unknown index for loading view controller: %d", vcIndex); // error break; } if ((NSNull *)controller == [NSNull null]) { controller = [[c alloc] initWithNib]; [viewControllers replaceObjectAtIndex:vcIndex withObject:controller]; [controller release]; } if (controller.view.superview == nil) { UIView *placeholderView = [viewControllerPlaceholderViews objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; [placeholderView addSubview:controller.view]; } [arPool release]; } Althoug I do create an autorelease pool there for that thread, I always get this error: 2009-05-30 12:03:09.910 Demo[1827:3f03] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x523e50 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Stack: (0x95c83f0f 0x95b90442 0x28d3 0x2d42 0x95b96e0d 0x95b969b4 0x93a00155 0x93a00012) If I take away the autorelease pool, I get a whole bunch of messages like these. I also tried to create an autorelease pool around the call of the performSelectorInBackground:, but that doesn't help. I suspect the parameter, but I don't know why the compiler complains about an NSCFNumber. Am I missing something? My Instance variables are all "nonatomic". Can that be a problem? UPDATE: I may also suspect that some variable has been added to an autorelease pool of the main thread (maybe an ivar), and now it trys to release that one inside the wrong autorelease pool? If so, how could I fix that? (damn, this threading stuff is complex ;) )

    Read the article

  • Is it safe to use random Unicode for complex delimiter sequences in strings?

    - by ccomet
    Question: In terms of program stability and ensuring that the system will actually operate, how safe is it to use chars like ¦, § or ‡ for complex delimiter sequences in strings? Can I reliable believe that I won't run into any issues in a program reading these incorrectly? I am working in a system, using C# code, in which I have to store a fairly complex set of information within a single string. The readability of this string is only necessary on the computer side, end-users should only ever see the information after it has been parsed by the appropriate methods. Because some of the data in these strings will be collections of variable size, I use different delimiters to identify what parts of the string correspond to a certain tier of organization. There are enough cases that the standard sets of ;, |, and similar ilk have been exhausted. I considered two-char delimiters, like ;# or ;|, but I felt that it would be very inefficient. There probably isn't that large of a performance difference in storing with one char versus two chars, but when I have the option of picking the smaller option, it just feels wrong to pick the larger one. So finally, I considered using the set of characters like the double dagger and section. They only take up one char, and they are definitely not going to show up in the actual text that I'll be storing, so they won't be confused for anything. But character encoding is finicky. While the visibility to the end user is meaningless (since they, in fact, won't see it), I became recently concerned about how the programs in the system will read it. The string is stored in one database, while a separate program is responsible for both encoding and decoding the string into different object types for the rest of the application to work with. And if something is expected to be written one way, is possibly written another, then maybe the whole system will fail and I can't really let that happen. So is it safe to use these kind of chars for background delimiters?

    Read the article

  • Google Maps inside custom PODS page

    - by Sharath
    I have a custom pods page called addstory.php which uses a public form to display some input fields. For one of the fields, i have a input helper that displays a google map location which I can use to pick out a location which is stored in comma separated variable. Here is the input helper code... <div class="form pick <?php echo $location; ?>"> <div id="map" style="width:500; height:500"> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { map=new GMap(document.getElementById("map")); map.centerAndZoom(new GPoint(77.595062,13.043359),6); map.setUIToDefault(); GEvent.addListener(map,"click",function(overlay,latlng) { map.clearOverlays(); var marker = new GMarker(latlng); map.addOverlay(marker); //Extra stuff here.. } ); }); </script> </div> And this is the code inside my addstory.php <?php get_header(); $rw = new Pod('rainwater'); $fields=array( 'name', 'email', 'location'=>array('input_helper'=>'gmap_location'), ); echo $rw->publicForm($fields); ?> I get the following error...and the google map doesn't load. a is null error source line: [Break on this error] function Qd(a){for(var b;b=a.firstChild;){Rg(b);a.removeChild(b)}}

    Read the article

  • SQL Distinct keyword in assignment statement

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that works: DECLARE @ProductID int SET @ProductID = '1234' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 a.ProductID FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE b.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID It returns a list of 12 product numbers, all unique. I need to store these results in a variable, comma separated, because that's what 3rd party stored procedure needs. So I have this: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Now, none of these are distinct, but it is returning 12 rows. Now I add the 'distinct' back in, like in the first query: DECLARE @ProductID int DECLARE @relatedprods varchar(8000) SET @ProductID = '1234' SET @relatedprods = '' SELECT DISTINCT TOP 12 @relatedprods = @relatedprods + CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), a.ProductID) + ', ' FROM A a WHERE a.CategoryID IN (SELECT b.CategoryID FROM B b WHERE B.ProductID = @ProductID) AND a.ProductID != @ProductID SELECT @relatedprods Only one product is returned in the comma separated list! Does 'distinct' not work in assignment statements? What did I do wrong? Or is there a way to get around this? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to set up django-admin.py on windos vista?

    - by shin
    I manage to install Django after some struggles by using setup.py install on Windows Vista Now I tried to use django-admin.py but it is not working. According to this document, http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/ref/django-admin/ The django-admin.py script should be on your system path if you installed Django via its setup.py utility. If it’s not on your path, ... For Windows users, who do not have symlinking functionality available, you can copy django-admin.py to a location on your existing path or edit the PATH settings (under Settings - Control Panel - System - Advanced - Environment...) to point to its installed location. I checked ComputerpropertiesEnvironment Variables, but path to django-admin.py is not in anywhere. So I added C:\Python25\Lib\site-packages\django\bin which is the folder of django-admin.py in User variables for shin Variable PATH, Value C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\;C:\Python25\Lib\site-packages\django\bin\ Am I supposed to add to System variables?? But it still does not work. Could anyone tell me how to add the Path in Environment Variables please? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

    - by anomareh
    I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

    Read the article

  • Protecting an Application's Memory From Tampering

    - by Changeling
    We are adding AES 256 bit encryption to our server and client applications for encrypting the TCP/IP traffic containing sensitive information. We will be rotating the keys daily. Because of that, the keys will be stored in memory with the applications. Key distribution process: Each server and client will have a list of initial Key Encryption Key's (KEK) by day If the client has just started up or the server has just started up, the client will request the daily key from the server using the initial key. The server will respond with the daily key, encrypted with the initial key. The daily key is a randomly generated set of alphanumeric characters. We are using AES 256 bit encryption. All subsequent communications will be encrypted using that daily key. Nightly, the client will request the new daily key from the server using the current daily key as the current KEK. After the client gets the new key, the new daily key will replace the old daily key. Is it possible for another bad application to gain access to this memory illegally or is this protected in Windows? The key will not be written to a file, only stored in a variable in memory. If an application can access the memory illegally, how can you protect the memory from tampering? We are using C++ and XP (Vista/7 may be an option in the future so I don't know if that changes the answer).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 468 469 470 471 472 473 474 475 476 477 478 479  | Next Page >