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  • NSThread shared object issue

    - by Chris Beeson
    Hi, I'm getting an “EXC_BAD_ACCESS” but just can't work out why, any help would be massive - thank you in advance. The user takes a picture and I want to do some processing on it in another thread... - (void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { ... NSString *uid = [Asset stringWithUUID]; [_imageQueue setObject:img forKey:uid]; [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(createAssetAsyncWithImage:) toTarget:self withObject:uid]; } Then the new thread -(void) createAssetAsyncWithImage:(NSString *)uid { NSAutoreleasePool * pool =[[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; if ([_imageQueue objectForKey:uid]) { Asset *asset = [Asset createAssetWithImage:[_imageQueue objectForKey:uid]]; asset.uid = uid; [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(asyncAssetCreated:) withObject:asset waitUntilDone:YES]; } [pool release]; } Which calls +(Asset *)createAssetWithImage:(UIImage *)img { .... UIImage *masterImg = [GraphicSupport createThumbnailFromImage:img pixels:img.size.height/2]; .... return newAsset; } And then this is where I keep getting the BAD_ACCESS +(UIImage *)createThumbnailFromImage:(UIImage *)inImage pixels:(float)pixels{ CGSize size = image.size; CGFloat ratio = 0; if (size.width > size.height) { ratio = pixels / size.width; } else { ratio = pixels / size.height; } CGRect rect = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, ratio * size.width, ratio * size.height); UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(rect.size); //NSAssert(image,@"image NULL"); [image drawInRect:rect]; return UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); } It's image that is giving me all the complaints... What am I doing wrong?? Many thanks in advance

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  • Opening a View with a Table without a NavigationController

    - by Ken
    Hiya, I'm pretty new to developing with Cocoa Touch/XCode and I came across a problem. I'm making a sort of RSS reader for a newssite and I have 5 views of tables navigated with 5 tabs in a TabBarController. If someone selects a newsitem I want another view to open showing the complete newsitem. My problem is that it won't work. This is my code: - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection(NSInteger)section{ return [[[self rssParser]rssItems]count]; } - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath{ UITableViewCell * cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:@"rssItemCell"]; if(nil == cell){ cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleSubtitle reuseIdentifier:@"rssItemCell"]autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [[[[self rssParser]rssItems]objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]title]; cell.detailTextLabel.text = [[[[self rssParser]rssItems]objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]description]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { [[self appDelegate] setCurrentlySelectedBlogItem:[[[self rssParser]rssItems]objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.appDelegate loadNewsDetails]; } And it calls this method in my delegate: -(void)loadNewsDetails{ [[self rootController]pushViewController:detailController animated:YES]; } Please tell me what I'm doing wrong. BTW I do not want to use a NavigationController, just the tabbar I'm using. Thanks in advance, Ken

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  • Segmentation fault while matrix multiplication using openMp?

    - by harshit
    My matrix multiplication code is int matMul(int ld, double** matrix) { //local variables initialize omp_set_num_threads(nthreads); #pragma omp parallel private(tid,diag,ld) shared(i,j,k,matrix) { /* Obtain and print thread id */ tid = omp_get_thread_num(); for ( k=0; k<ld; k++) { if (matrix[k][k] == 0.0) { error = 1; return error; } diag = 1.0 / matrix[k][k]; #pragma omp for for ( i=k+1; i < ld; i++) { matrix[i][k] = diag * matrix[i][k]; } for ( j=k+1; j<ld; j++) { for ( i=k+1; i<ld; i++) { matrix[i][j] = matrix[i][j] - matrix[i][k] * matrix[k][j]; } } } } return error; } I assume that it is because of matrix object only but why will it be null even though it is passed as a parameter..

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  • Wpf Mvvm ComboBox

    - by 2Fast4YouBR
    Hi All, I am new in the Wpf world, so I created a couple of views and all of them have at least one ComboBox, as I am using the MvvM pattern, I get my self re-typing all the time the same line of codes to fill the Combo and to get the SelectedItem (creating properties, privates for fill and other to get). Is there some kind of framework that can improve this part ? or hack/trick ??? as I see too much repetitive code... maybe I am doing something wrong, take a look: XAML: <ComboBox name= "cbDepartments" DisplayMemberPath="DepartmentName" SelectedValuePath ="PrimaryKey" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Departments}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=DefaultBranch,Mode=TwoWay}" > ViewModel: private Department defaultBranch; public Department DefaultBranch { get { return this.defaultBranch; } set { if (this.defaultBranch != value) { this.defaultBranch = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("DefaultBranch"); this.saveChangeCommand.RaiseCanExecuteChanged(); this.UserMessage = string.Empty; } } } private ObservableCollection<Department> departments; public ObservableCollection<Department> Departments { get { return this.departments; } set { if (this. departments!= value) { this. departments = value; this.OnPropertyChanged("Departments"); } } }

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  • Redirect on Ajax Jquery Call

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi, I am newbie to ajax here and I know somebody would have encountered this problem already. I have a legacy app built on Spring MVC, it has a interceptor(filter) that redirects the user to the login page whenever there is no session. public class SessionCheckerInterceptor extends HandlerInterceptorAdapter { public boolean preHandle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object handler) throws Exception { HttpSession session = request.getSession(); // check if userInfo exist in session User user = (User) session.getAttribute("user"); if (user == null) { response.sendRedirect("login.htm"); return false; } return true; } } For non-xmlhttp request, this works fine.. but when I try to use ajax in my application, everything gets weird, it is not able to redirect to the login page correctly. As check the value of the xhr.status = 200 textStatus = parseError errorThrown = "Invalid JSON -Markup of my HTML Login Page- $(document).ready(function(){ jQuery.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "populateData.htm", dataType:"json", data:"userId=SampleUser", success:function(response){ //code here }, error: function(xhr, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error! Status = ' + xhr.status); } }); }); I checked on my firebug that there is a 302 HTTP response but I am not sure how to catch the response and redirect the user to the login page. Any idea here? Thanks.

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  • SWI-Prolog as an embedded application in VS2008 C++

    - by H.J. Miri
    I have a C++ application (prog.sln) which is my main program and I want to use Prolog as an embedded logic server (hanoi.pl) int main(int argc, char** argv) { putenv( "SWI_HOME_DIR=C:\\Program Files\\pl" ); argv[0] = "libpl.dll"; argv[1] = "-x"; argv[2] = "hanoi.pl"; argv[3] = NULL; PL_initialise(argc, argv); { fid_t fid = PL_open_foreign_frame(); predicate_t pred = PL_predicate( "hanoi", 1, "user" ); int rval = PL_call_predicate( NULL, PL_Q_NORMAL, pred, 3 ); qid_t qid = PL_open_query( NULL, PL_Q_NORMAL, pred, 3 ); while ( PL_next_solution(qid) ) return qid; PL_close_query(qid); PL_close_foreign_frame(fid); system("PAUSE"); } return 1; system("PAUSE"); } Here is my Prolog source code: :- use_module( library(shlib) ). hanoi( N ):- move( N, left, center, right ). move( 0, _, _, _ ):- !. move( N, A, B, C ):- M is N-1, move( M, A, C, B ), inform( A, B ), move( M, C, B, A ). inform( X, Y ):- write( 'move a disk from ' ), write( X ), write( ' to ' ), write( Y ), nl. I type at the command: plld -o hanoi prog.sln hanoi.pl But it doesn't compile. When I run my C++ app, it says: Undefined procedure: hanoi/1 What is missing/wrong in my code or at the prompt that prevents my C++ app from consulting Prolog? Appreciate any help/pointer.

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  • spring 3 AOP anotated advises

    - by Art79
    Trying to figure out how to Proxy my beans with AOP advices in annotated way. I have a simple class @Service public class RestSampleDao { @MonitorTimer public Collection<User> getUsers(){ .... return users; } } i have created custom annotation for monitoring execution time @Target({ ElementType.METHOD, ElementType.TYPE }) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MonitorTimer { } and advise to do some fake monitoring public class MonitorTimerAdvice implements MethodInterceptor { public Object invoke(MethodInvocation invocation) throws Throwable{ try { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); Object retVal = invocation.proceed(); long end = System.currentTimeMillis(); long differenceMs = end - start; System.out.println("\ncall took " + differenceMs + " ms "); return retVal; } catch(Throwable t){ System.out.println("\nerror occured"); throw t; } } } now i can use it if i manually proxy the instance of dao like this AnnotationMatchingPointcut pc = new AnnotationMatchingPointcut(null, MonitorTimer.class); Advisor advisor = new DefaultPointcutAdvisor(pc, new MonitorTimerAdvice()); ProxyFactory pf = new ProxyFactory(); pf.setTarget( sampleDao ); pf.addAdvisor(advisor); RestSampleDao proxy = (RestSampleDao) pf.getProxy(); mv.addObject( proxy.getUsers() ); but how do i set it up in Spring so that my custom annotated methods would get proxied by this interceptor automatically? i would like to inject proxied samepleDao instead of real one. Can that be done without xml configurations? i think should be possible to just annotate methods i want to intercept and spring DI would proxy what is necessary. or do i have to use aspectj for that? would prefere simplest solution :- ) thanks a lot for help!

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  • Static factory pattern with EJB3/JBoss

    - by purecharger
    I'm fairly new to EJBs and full blown application servers like JBoss, having written and worked with special purpose standalone Java applications for most of my career, with limited use of JEE. I'm wondering about the best way to adapt a commonly used design pattern to EJB3 and JBoss: the static factory pattern. In fact this is Item #1 in Joshua Bloch's Effective Java book (2nd edition) I'm currently working with the following factory: public class CredentialsProcessorFactory { private static final Log log = LogFactory.getLog(CredentialsProcessorFactory.class); private static Map<CredentialsType, CredentialsProcessor> PROCESSORS = new HashMap<CredentialsType, CredentialsProcessor>(); static { PROCESSORS.put(CredentialsType.CSV, new CSVCredentialsProcessor()); } private CredentialsProcessorFactory() {} public static CredentialsProcessor getProcessor(CredentialsType type) { CredentialsProcessor p = PROCESSORS.get(type); if(p == null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("No CredentialsProcessor registered for type " + type.toString()); return p; } However, in the implementation classes of CredentialsProcessor, I require injected resources such as a PersistenceContext, so I have made the CredentialsProcessor interface a @Local interface, and each of the impl's marked with @Stateless. Now I can look them up in JNDI and use the injected resources. But now I have a disconnect because I am not using the factory anymore. My first thought was to change the getProcessor(CredentialsType) method to do a JNDI lookup and return the SLSB instance that is required, but then I need to configure and pass the proper qualified JNDI name. Before I go down that path, I wanted to do more research on accepted practices. How is this design pattern treated in EJB3 / JEE?

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  • jQuery / jEditable and jQuery UI Dialog. Re-populating table cell.

    - by solefald
    Hello, this is my first time using JS, so i really have no idea what i am doing. I have a table with data, and using jEditable to allow a user to edit the data and POST it to my php script. When user hits "Save", it opens jQuery UI with the data from php script and it seems to work fine, however, if the user hits Cancel or Esc to close the jQuery UI dialog, they and up back on the page, but the cell they tried to edit is now completely empty. How do i get the cell re-populated? Thank you! $(".editable_textarea").editable("/path/to/my/scrip.php", { indicator : "<img src='/images/indicator.gif'>", type : 'textarea', submitdata: { _method: "post", uri: "<?php echo $this->uri->segment(3); ?>" }, select : false, submit : 'Save', cancel : 'Cancel', tooltip : "Click to edit...", cssclass : "editable", onblur: "cancel", cssclass: "edit_destination", callback: function(value, settings) { $(this).dialog({ autoOpen: true, width: 400, modal: true, position: "center", resizable: false, draggable: false, title: "Pending Changes", buttons: { "Cancel": function() { $(this).dialog("close"); }, "Confirm Changes": function() { document.findSameDestination.submit(); } } }); $('form#findSameDestination').submit(function(){ $(this).dialog('open'); return false; }); $(this).editable("disable"); }, data: function(value, settings) { var retval = value.replace(/<br[\s\/]?>/gi, '\n'); retval = retval.replace(/(<([^>]+)>)/gi, ''); return retval; } });

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  • Writing files in App_Data causes tempdata to be null

    - by RAMX
    I have a small asp.net MVC 1 web app that can store files and create directories in the App_Data directory. When the write operation succeeds, I add a message to the tempdata and do a redirectToRoute. The problem is that the tempdata is null when the action is executed. If i write the files in a directory outside of the web applications root directory, the tempdata is not null and everything works correctly. Any ideas why writing in the app_data seems to clear the tempdata ? edit: if DRS.Logic.Repository.Manager.CreateFile(path, hpf, comment) writes in the App_Data, TempData will be null in the action being redirected to. if it is a directory out of the web app root it is fine. No exceptions are being thrown. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(int id, string path, FormCollection form) { ViewData["path"] = path; ViewData["id"] = id; HttpPostedFileBase hpf; string comment = form["FileComment"]; hpf = Request.Files["File"] as HttpPostedFileBase; if (hpf.ContentLength != 0) { DRS.Logic.Repository.Manager.CreateFile(path, hpf, comment); TempData["notification"] = "file was created"; return RedirectToRoute(new { controller = "File", action ="ViewDetails", id = id, path = path + Path.GetFileName(hpf.FileName) }); } else { TempData["notification"] = "No file were selected."; return View(); } }

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  • How to refactor this Javascript anonymous function?

    - by HeavyWave
    We have this anonymous function in our code, which is part of the jQuery's Ajax object parameters and which uses some variables from the function it is called from. this.invoke = function(method, data, callback, error, bare) { $.ajax({ success: function(res) { if (!callback) return; var result = ""; if (res != null && res.length != 0) var result = JSON2.parse(res); if (bare) { callback(result); return; } for (var property in result) { callback(result[property]); break; } } }); } I have omitted the extra code, but you get the idea. The code works perfectly fine, but it leaks 4 Kbs on each call in IE, so I want to refactor it to turn the anonymous function into a named one, like this.onSuccess = function(res) { .. }. The problem is that this function uses variables from this.invoke(..), so I cannot just take it outside of its body. How do I correctly refactor this code, so that it does not use anonymous functions and parent function variables?

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  • wp_get_archives(cat=id) <-- Any way to specifiy cat id in archives?

    - by Matrym
    Does anyone know how to specify an INCLUDE ONLY category using wp_get_archives? I would like to specify a category but then list results by month. I've tried kwebble's plugin to no avail. I've also found the following on WP forums, but it appears to only exclude categories. Perhaps it can be modified to do include? Even given that, I'm not sure how I would call it... Thanks in advance! add_filter( 'getarchives_where', 'customarchives_where' ); add_filter( 'getarchives_join', 'customarchives_join' ); function customarchives_join( $x ) { global $wpdb; return $x . " INNER JOIN $wpdb->term_relationships ON ($wpdb->posts.ID = $wpdb->term_relationships.object_id) INNER JOIN $wpdb->term_taxonomy ON ($wpdb->term_relationships.term_taxonomy_id = $wpdb->term_taxonomy.term_taxonomy_id)"; } function customarchives_where( $x ) { global $wpdb; $exclude = '1'; // category id to exclude return $x . " AND $wpdb->term_taxonomy.taxonomy = 'category' AND $wpdb->term_taxonomy.term_id NOT IN ($exclude)";

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  • String assembly by StringBuilder vs StringWriter and PrintWriter

    - by CPerkins
    I recently encountered an idiom I haven't seen before: string assembly by StringWriter and PrintWriter. I mean, I know how to use them, but I've always used StringBuilder. Is there a concrete reason for preferring one over the other? The StringBuilder method seems much more natural to me, but is it just style? I've looked at several questions here (including this one which comes closest: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/602279/stringwriter-or-stringbuilder ), but none in which the answers actually address the question of whether there's a reason to prefer one over the other for simple string assembly. This is the idiom I've seen and used many many times: string assembly by StringBuilder: public static String newline = System.getProperty("line.separator"); public String viaStringBuilder () { StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); builder.append("first thing" + newline); builder.append("second thing" + newline); // ... several things builder.append("last thing" + newline); return builder.toString(); } And this is the new idiom: string assembly by StringWriter and PrintWriter: public String viaWriters() { StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); PrintWriter printWriter = new PrintWriter(stringWriter); printWriter.println("first thing"); printWriter.println("second thing"); // ... several things printWriter.println("last thing"); printWriter.flush(); printWriter.close(); return stringWriter.toString(); }

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  • -[CFString length]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3881940 when i scroll to near the bottom

    - by James
    Hey guys, i've got a problem debugging an iphone app that i'm attempting to write and it's got me stumped, bear with me, i'm a n00b to programming and might get some of the terminology wrong but i'll try to explain it as best as i can. The app gets an XML doc from the a web site, parses it into an array, and then displays it in a table view, i have the parser in a separate file. The ViewDidLoad in RootViewController sends it a url, the parser goes to work and then returns an NSMutableArray. When i run the app it works fine with small XML files (5 entries or so, and 1-3 sections), but when i use a larger one(20+ rows, over 12 sections) i get the error "-[CFString length]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3881940" when i scroll near the bottom of the tableview, just as the last section title is about to come onto the viewable area on the screen to be precise. if i return a static string instead of the object in my array in this method it doesn't crash, but i can use NSLog to call the array and it returns the title no problems. - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)indexPath { return [[returnedEvents objectAtIndex:indexPath ] objectAtIndex:0]; } The returnedEvents array isn't released until -(void) dealloc {} I have read a few other posts on here, and a few guides on debugging and as of yet am unable to find anything that was able to help me, i'd be more than happy to post some code up here and any more information, i'm just not sure where to start... Thanks in advance for anyone willing to have a go at helping me out.

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  • Are endless loops in bad form?

    - by rlbond
    So I have some C++ code for back-tracking nodes in a BFS algorithm. It looks a little like this: typedef std::map<int> MapType; bool IsValuePresent(const MapType& myMap, int beginVal, int searchVal) { int current_val = beginVal; while (true) { if (current_val == searchVal) return true; MapType::iterator it = myMap.find(current_val); assert(current_val != myMap.end()); if (current_val == it->second) // end of the line return false; current_val = it->second; } } However, the while (true) seems... suspicious to me. I know this code works, and logically I know it should work. However, I can't shake the feeling that there should be some condition in the while, but really the only possible one is to use a bool variable just to say if it's done. Should I stop worrying? Or is this really bad form. EDIT: Thanks to all for noticing that there is a way to get around this. However, I would still like to know if there are other valid cases.

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  • Enumerating all strings in resx

    - by Erik Hesselink
    We would like to enumerate all strings in a resource file in .NET (resx file). We want this to generate a javascript object containing all these key-value pairs. We do this now for satellite assemblies with code like this (this is VB.NET, but any example code is fine): Dim rm As ResourceManager rm = New ResourceManager([resource name], [your assembly]) Dim Rs As ResourceSet Rs = rm.GetResourceSet(Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture, True, True) For Each Kvp As DictionaryEntry In Rs [Write out Kvp.Key and Kvp.Value] Next However, we haven't found a way to do this for .resx files yet, sadly. How can we enumerate all localization strings in a resx file? UPDATE: Following Dennis Myren's comment and the ideas from here, I built a ResXResourceManager. Now I can do the same with .resx files as I did with the embedded resources. Here is the code. Note that Microsoft made a needed constructor private, so I use reflection to access it. You need full trust when using this. Imports System.Globalization Imports System.Reflection Imports System.Resources Imports System.Windows.Forms Public Class ResXResourceManager Inherits ResourceManager Public Sub New(ByVal BaseName As String, ByVal ResourceDir As String) Me.New(BaseName, ResourceDir, GetType(ResXResourceSet)) End Sub Protected Sub New(ByVal BaseName As String, ByVal ResourceDir As String, ByVal UsingResourceSet As Type) Dim BaseType As Type = Me.GetType().BaseType Dim Flags As BindingFlags = BindingFlags.NonPublic Or BindingFlags.Instance Dim Constructor As ConstructorInfo = BaseType.GetConstructor(Flags, Nothing, New Type() { GetType(String), GetType(String), GetType(Type) }, Nothing) Constructor.Invoke(Me, Flags, Nothing, New Object() { BaseName, ResourceDir, UsingResourceSet }, Nothing) End Sub Protected Overrides Function GetResourceFileName(ByVal culture As CultureInfo) As String Dim FileName As String FileName = MyBase.GetResourceFileName(culture) If FileName IsNot Nothing AndAlso FileName.Length > 10 Then Return FileName.Substring(0, FileName.Length - 10) & ".resx" End If Return Nothing End Function End Class

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  • Worksheet.Unprotect - Office Interop - Difference between 2003 and 2007

    - by sdmcnitt
    I have a .NET winforms app that automates Excel and checks for a worksheet password. The requirements are to be able to detect 1) that the protection is turned off 2) that the password is removed (protected but there is no password) 3) that the password matches the correct password from a database To meet the second requirement the program calls the Worksheet.Unprotect command with a null string, capturing the error. If error as expected, the 3rd check is made. If no error, then the Unprotect worked without a password == password was removed. The code sample below has these checks. The application can do this fine with Office 2003. I have since had my dev machine updated to Office 2007 and it no longer works as it did. When I call the Worksheet.Unprotect, Excel prompts for the password! I need to know how this should be accomplished in the new version of Excel or if there is a way to reference the old PIA. No matter what if I set a reference to Excel 11 it is replaced with the PIA for 12 in the GAC. 'return true if unprotect of worksheet does not generate an error 'all other errors will bubble up 'return false if specific error is "Password is invalid..." Try 'detect unprotected or no password If oWorksheet.ProtectContents Then 'try with no passsword and expect an error 'if no error then raise exception Dim blnRaiseException As Boolean = True Try 'oWorksheet.Unprotect(vbNullString) oWorksheet.Unprotect() Catch ex As Exception blnRaiseException = False End Try If blnRaiseException Then Throw New ExcelSheetNoPasswordException End If oWorksheet.Unprotect(strPwd) 'no error so if we get here -- success fnCheckWorksheetPwd = True 'leave as it was -- this may still cause workbook to think it is changed oWorksheet.Protect(strPwd) Else Throw New ExcelSheetNotProtectedException End If Catch COMex As System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException 'handle error code -2146827284 If COMex.ErrorCode = -2146827284 Then 'this is the error we're looking for Else Throw End If Catch ex As Exception Throw End Try

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  • Only first UIView added view addSubview shows correct orientation

    - by Brian Underwood
    I've got three ViewControllers set up to handle three views. The problem that I'm having is that in the simulator the orientation is LandscapeRight (which is what I want), and the first view shows up correctly in that landscape view, but when I move onto the second and third views, they show up rotated 90 degrees counter-clockwise with the upper-left corner of the view in the lower left corner of the phone's screen. I've been trying to debug this for a few days and the closest that I've gotten to a clue is tracing it the following way: The following is in my app delegate's applicationDidFinishLaunching: NSLog(@"1"); [window addSubview:welcomeController.view]; NSLog(@"2"); [window addSubview:goalController.view]; NSLog(@"3"); [window addSubview:planningController.view]; NSLog(@"4"); [window bringSubviewToFront:welcomeController.view]; NSLog(@"5"); Each of my ViewControllers implement something similar to the following (the only change being the controller's name switched out in the string passed to NSLog): - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { // Return YES for supported orientations NSLog(@"called for WelcomeController"); return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight); } With that, I get the following output on the Console: a called for WelcomeController called for WelcomeController called for WelcomeController called for WelcomeController 2 called for GoalController 3 called for PlanningController 4 5 I find it interesting that shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation is called 4 times for the first view that's added, while the other two only get called once. I expect that this is probably because it's got to do some setup at first (and I believe that the simulator starts off in portrait mode, so it's might be calling it while doing the rotation), but I find the correlation a bit suspicious. I've switched the order around so that the addSubview is called for the goalController first and the welcomeController second. In this case, it's the goalController which displays in the correct landscape orientation (it's normally the welcome controller). This would seem to eliminate my XIB files and the ViewControllers themselves. I'm not sure why the first view where addSubview is called is special. I also tried using insertSubview at index 0 with the same results.

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  • Syntax Error with John Resig's Micro Templating after changing template tags <# {% {{ etc..

    - by optician
    I'm having a bit of trouble with John Resig's Micro templating. Can anyone help me with why it isn't working? This is the template <script type="text/html" id="row_tmpl"> test content {%=id%} {%=name%} </script> And the modified section of the engine str .replace(/[\r\t\n]/g, " ") .split("{%").join("\t") .replace(/((^|%>)[^\t]*)'/g, "$1\r") .replace(/\t=(.*?)%>/g, "',$1,'") .split("\t").join("');") .split("%}").join("p.push('") .split("\r").join("\\'") + "');}return p.join('');"); and the javascript var dataObject = { "id": "27", "name": "some more content" }; var html = tmpl("row_tmpl", dataObject); and the result, as you can see =id and =name seem to be in the wrong place? Apart from changing the template syntax blocks from <% % to {% %} I haven't changed anything. This is from Firefox. Error: syntax error Line: 30, Column: 89 Source Code: var p=[],print=function(){p.push.apply(p,arguments);};with(obj){p.push(' test content ');=idp.push(' ');=namep.push(' ');}return p.join('');

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  • Sql Query - Selecting rows where user can be both friend and user

    - by Gublooo
    Hey Sorry the title is not very clear. This is a follow up to my earlier question where one of the members helped me with a query. I have a following friends Table Friend friend_id - primary key user_id user_id_friend status The way the table is populated is - when I send a friend request to John - my userID appears in user_id and Johns userID appears in user_id_friend. Now another scenario is say Mike sends me a friend request - in this case mike's userID will appear in user_id and my userID will appear in user_id_friend So to find all my friends - I need to run a query to find where my userID appears in both user_id column as well as user_id_friend column What I am trying to do now is - when I search for user say John - I want all users Johns listed on my site to show up along with the status of whether they are my friend or not and if they are not - then show a "Add Friend" button. Based on the previous post - I got this query which does part of the job - My example user_id is 1: SELECT u.user_id, f.status FROM user u LEFT OUTER JOIN friend f ON f.user_id = u.user_id and f.user_id_friend = 1 where u.name like '%' So this only shows users with whom I am friends where they have sent me request ie my userID appears in user_id_friend. Although I am friends with others (where my userID appears in user_id column) - this query will return that as null To get those I need another query like this SELECT u.user_id, f.status FROM user u LEFT OUTER JOIN friend f ON f.user_id_friend = u.user_id and f.user_id = 1 where u.name like '%' So how do I combine these queries to return 1 set of users and what my friendship status with them is. I hope my question is clear Thanks

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  • Ninject 2 + ASP.NET MVC 2 Binding Types from External Assemblies

    - by Malkier
    Hi, I'M just trying to get started with Ninject 2 and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have followed this tutorial http://www.craftyfella.com/2010/02/creating-aspnet-mvc-2-controller.html to create a Controller Factory with Ninject and to bind a first abstract to a concrete implementation. Now I want to load a repository type from another assembly (where my concrete SQL Repositories are located) and I just cant get it to work. Here's my code: Global.asax.cs protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MyControllerFactory()); } Controller Factory: public class Kernelhelper { public static IKernel GetTheKernel() { IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load(System.Reflection.Assembly.Load("MyAssembly")); return kernel; } } public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private IKernel kernel = Kernelhelper.GetTheKernel(); protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { return controllerType == null ? null : (IController)kernel.Get(controllerType); } } In "MyAssembly" there is a Module: public class ExampleConfigModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<Domain.CommunityUserRepository>().To<SQLCommunityUserRepository>(); } } Now when I just slap in a MockRepository object in my entry point it works just fine, the controller, which needs the repository, works fine. The kernel.Load(System.Reflection.Assembly.Load("MyAssembly")); also does its job and registers the module but as soon as I call on the controller which needs the repository I get an ActivationException from Ninject: No matching bindings are available, and the type is not self-bindable. Activation path: 2) Injection of dependency CommunityUserRepository into parameter _rep of constructor of type AccountController 1) Request for AccountController Can anyone give me a best practice example for binding types from external assemblies (which really is an important aspect of Dependency Injection)? Thank you!

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  • COM Object Clean Up

    - by Reggie McCray
    What is the difference between the two lines of code below: CComPtr< IInterface > m_interface; IInterface* m_interface; I know that CComPtr help eliminate memory leaks, but I am getting inconsistent results. When declaring the pointer with CComPtr< IInterface > m_interface; and using the interface in my C# code there are no errors, however using the Interface in VC++ I get an unhandled exception error, even if I comment out the instance creation of IInterface. I am pretty sure the problem is in here somewhere: STDMETHODIMP CSomeClass::get_IClass(IClass** var) { return m_class_var->QueryInterface(var); } STDMETHODIMP CSomeClass::putref_IClass(IClass* var) { m_class_var = var; return S_OK; } When I declare the interface pointer with: IInterface* m_interface; I get a RPC_E_SERVERFAULT error when testing the Interface in C# and have to explicitly call GC.Collect() to avoid the error being thrown after instantiation of a few objects. When testing the Interface in VC++ the error is consistent however when it occurs is different. If I comment out the instance creation of IInterface the code runs fine, however when I try to create an instance I get same error as before, just a vague unhandled exception error. What am I doing wrong here?

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  • OJB Reference Descriptor 1:0 relationship? Should I set auto-retrieve to false?

    - by godzillasdm
    Hi, I am having an issue while using Apache OJB with Spring 2 inside my web app. I'm using OJB reference-descriptor with 2 foreign key properties. I have an object A (parent) and object B (referenced object). The thing is, for an object A, there may or may not be an object B. In the case where there is no object B to go with Object A, the object B seems to be instantiated (through Spring?) anyways. However, I am unable to access object B's members. Whenever I test if Object B == null, it always returns false even though there is no matching value in the database. Since this Object is never null, I figured I can test the object's member like so: if( objectb.getDocumentNumber == null) { return false; } However, I get an exception in the jsp: javax.servlet.jsp.el.ELException: An error occurred while getting property "documentNumber" from an instance class org.sample.pojo.Objectb$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$78022a2 and this exception in the debugger when it's creating the objectB: com.sun.jdi.InvocationException occurred invoking method. I am guessing that the reference-descriptor must be a 1:1+ relationship, instead of a 1:0+ relationship. I was wondering if I should set the property 'auto-retrieve' to false, and then use the PersistenceBroker.retrieveAllReferences(Object obj); method as directed. However, this method's return value is 'void', so I am guessing that Spring somehow creates, and sets the reference class for me. (Returning me back to the same issue I'm having.) I will need a way to test whether the reference object exists first. If not, don't call this retrieveAllReferences method, but I don't see how. Am I going about this all wrong? Does reference-descriptor not allow 1:0 relations? Any work around to my problem? Your suggestions are greatly appreciated!

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  • Constant NSDictionary/NSArray for class methods.

    - by Jeff B
    I am trying to code a global lookup table of sorts. I have game data that is stored in character/string format in a plist, but which needs to be in integer/id format when it is loaded. For instance, in the level data file, a "p" means player. In the game code a player is represented as the integer 1. This let's me do some bitwise operations, etc. I am simplifying greatly here, but trying to get the point across. Also, there is a conversion to coordinates for the sprite on a sprite sheet. Right now this string-integer, integer-string, integer-coordinate, etc. conversion is taking place in several places in code using a case statement. This stinks, of course, and I would rather do it with a dictionary lookup. I created a class called levelInfo, and want to define the dictionary for this conversion, and then class methods to call when I need to do a conversion, or otherwise deal with level data. NSString *levelObjects = @"empty,player,object,thing,doohickey"; int levelIDs[] = [0,1,2,4,8]; // etc etc @implementation LevelInfo +(int) crateIDfromChar: (char) crateChar { int idx = [[crateTypes componentsSeparatedByString:@","] indexOfObject: crateChar]; return levelIDs[idx]; } +(NSString *) crateStringFromID: (int) crateID { return [[crateTypes componentsSeparatedByString:@","] objectAtIndex: crateID]; } @end Is there a better way to do this? It feels wrong to basically build these temporary arrays, or dictionaries, or whatever for each call to do this translation. And I don't know of a way to declare a constant NSArray or NSDictionary. Please, tell me a better way....

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  • How to befriend a templated class's constructor?

    - by Kyle
    Why does class A; template<typename T> class B { private: A* a; public: B(); }; class A : public B<int> { private: friend B<int>::B<int>(); int x; }; template<typename T> B<T>::B() { a = new A; a->x = 5; } int main() { return 0; } result in ../src/main.cpp:15: error: invalid use of constructor as a template ../src/main.cpp:15: note: use ‘B::B’ instead of ‘B::class B’ to name the constructor in a qualified name yet changing friend B<int>::B<int>() to friend B<int>::B() results in ../src/main.cpp:15: error: no ‘void B::B()’ member function declared in class ‘B’ while removing the template completely class A; class B { private: A* a; public: B(); }; class A : public B { private: friend B::B(); int x; }; B::B() { a = new A; a->x = 5; } int main() { return 0; } compiles and executes just fine -- despite my IDE saying friend B::B() is invalid syntax?

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