Search Results

Search found 13807 results on 553 pages for 'undefined reference'.

Page 477/553 | < Previous Page | 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484  | Next Page >

  • How to know the type of an object in a list?

    - by nacho4d
    Hi, I want to know the type of object (or type) I have in my list so I wrote this: void **list; //list of references list = new void * [2]; Foo foo = Foo(); const char *not_table [] = {"tf", "ft", 0 }; list[0] = &foo; list[1] = not_table; if (dynamic_cast<LogicProcessor*>(list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("Foo was found\n"); } if (dynamic_cast<char*> (list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("char was found\n"); } but I get : error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'class Foo*' (source is not a pointer to class) error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'char*' (target is not pointer or reference to class) Why is this? what I am doing wrong here? Is dynamic_cast what I should use here? Thanks in advance EDIT: I know above code is much like plain C and surely sucks from the C++ point of view but is just I have the following situation and I was trying something before really implementing it: I have two arrays of length n but both arrays will never have an object at the same index. Hence, or I have array1[i]!=NULL or array2[i]!=NULL. This is obviously a waste of memory so I thought everything would be solved if I could have both kind of objects in a single array of length n. I am looking something like Cocoa's (Objective-C) NSArray where you don't care about the type of the object to be put in. Not knowing the type of the object is not a problem since you can use other method to get the class of a certain later. Is there something like it in c++ (preferably not third party C++ libraries) ? Thanks in advance ;)

    Read the article

  • Using unions to simplify casts

    - by Steven Lu
    I realize that what I am trying to do isn't safe. But I am just doing some testing and image processing so my focus here is on speed. Right now this code gives me the corresponding bytes for a 32-bit pixel value type. struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; I wanted to check if I have a pixel that is under a certain value (e.g. r, g, b <= 0x10). I figured I wanted to just conditional-test the bit-and of the bits of the pixel with 0x00E0E0E0 (I could have wrong endianness here) to get the dark pixels. Rather than using this ugly mess (*((uint32_t*)&pixel)) to get the 32-bit unsigned int value, i figured there should be a way for me to set it up so I can just use pixel.i, while keeping the ability to reference the green byte using pixel.g. Can I do this? This won't work: struct Pixel { unsigned char b,g,r,a; }; union Pixel_u { Pixel p; uint32_t bits; }; I would need to edit my existing code to say pixel.p.g to get the green color byte. Same happens if I do this: union Pixel { unsigned char c[4]; uint32_t bits; }; This would work too but I still need to change everything to index into c, which is a bit ugly but I can make it work with a macro if i really needed to.

    Read the article

  • Static selection and Ruby on Rails objects

    - by Dave
    Hi all- I have a simple problem, but am having trouble wrapping my head around it. I have an video object that should have one or more "genres". This list of genres should be prepopulated and then the user should just select one or more using autocomplete or some such. Here is the question: Is it worth creating a table with genres for the static selection? Or should it just be included in the presentation layer? If there is a static table, how do we name it correctly. I envision something like this class Video < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :genres ... end class Genre < ... belongs_to :video ... end But then we get a table called genre, that basically maps all the selected genres to their parent videos. There would need to be some static table to reference the static genres. Is this the best way to do it? Sorry if this was rambl-y a little stream of conciousness. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Multiple ID's in database

    - by eric
    I have a database that contains a few tables such as person, staff, member, and supporter. The person table contains information about every staff, member, and supporter. The information it contains is name,address,email, and telephone. I also created an id that is the primary key. My issue is that I also have an primary key ID for staff, member, and supporter. For instance, in the person table is John with id 1. He is a supporter so in the supporter table is pID(for person id)to reference back to John with all his information and ID(for supporter ID). pID references to the person table and every person has an ID incremented by 1 starting at 1. supporter ID is for every supporter and also starts at 1 and is incremented by 1. Is it possible to have in the supporter table pID = 1 and supporter ID = 1? Another person may have a pID = 26 and supporter ID = 5. Or will supporter ID have to be different than the pID and be something like "sup"? So you would have pID = 1 and supporter ID = sup1 or pID = 26 and supporter ID = sup5

    Read the article

  • fluent nhibernate - storing and retrieving three classes in/from one table

    - by Will I Am
    Noob question. I have this situation where I have these objects: class Address { string Street; string City; ... } class User { string UserID; Address BillingAddress; Address MailingAddress; ... } What is the proper way of storing this data using (fluent) nHibernate? I could use a separate Address table and create a reference, but they are 1:1 relationships so I don't really want to incur the overhead of a join. Ideally I would store this as a single flat record. So, my question is, what is the proper way of storing an instance of class 'User' in such a way that it stores its contents and also the two addresses as a single record? My knowledge is failing me on how I can store this information in such a way that the two Address records get different column names (e.g. BillingAddress_Street and MailingAddress_Street, for example), and also how to read a record back into a User instance.

    Read the article

  • Java How to find a value in a linked list iteratively and recursively

    - by Roxy
    Hi I have a method that has a reference to a linked list and a int value. So, this method would count and return how often the value happens in the linked list. So, I decided to make a class, public class ListNode{ public ListNode (int v, ListNode n) {value = v; next = n;) public int value; public ListNode next; } Then, the method would start with a public static int findValue(ListNode x, int valueToCount){ // so would I do it like this?? I don't know how to find the value, // like do I check it? for (int i =0; i< x.length ;i++){ valueToCount += valueToCount; } So, I CHANGED this part, If I did this recursively, then I would have public static int findValue(ListNode x, int valueToCount) { if (x.next != null && x.value == valueToCount { return 1 + findValue(x, valueToCount);} else return new findvalue(x, valueToCount); SO, is the recursive part correct now?

    Read the article

  • Combining two exe files

    - by Sophia
    Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

    Read the article

  • What rules govern the copying of variables in Javascript closures?

    - by int3
    I'd just like to check my understanding of variable copying in Javascript. From what I gather, variables are passed/assigned by reference unless you explicitly tell them to create a copy with the new operator. But I'm a little uncertain when it comes to using closures. Say I have the following code: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; console.log(x); }); } fnlist[2](); // returns 20 I gather that this is because fnlist[2] only looks up the value of data at the point where it is invoked. So I tried an alternative tack: var myArray = [1, 5, 10, 15, 20]; var fnlist = []; for (var i in myArray) { var data = myArray[i]; fnlist.push(function() { var x = data; return function() { console.log(x); } }()); } fnlist[2](); // returns 10 So now it returns the 'correct' value. Am I right to say that it works because a function resolves all variable references to their 'constant' values when it is invoked? Or is there a better way to explain it? Any explanations / links to explanations regarding this referencing / copying business would be appreciated as well. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • AS3 colorTransform over multiple frames?

    - by user359519
    (Flash Professional, AS3) I'm working on a custom avatar system where you can select various festures and colors. For example, I have 10 hairstyles, and a colorPicker to change the color. mc_myAvatar has 10 frames. Each frame has a movieclip of a different hairstyle (HairStyle1, HairStyle2, etc.) Here's my code: var hairColor:ColorTransform; hairColor = mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform; hairColor.color = 0xCCCC00; mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform = hairColor; This correctly changes the initial color. I have a "nextHair" button to advance mc_myAvatar.hair to the next frame. When I click the button, I get an error message saying that I have a null object reference. I added a trace, and mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null on frame 2. Why??? I've clearly named HairStyle2 as "colorLayer" in frame 2. I think the problem is related to me using the same name for different classes/movieclips, but I don't know how to fix the problem... I added a square movieclip below my hairStyle movieclips, named the square "colorLevel", and deleted the name from my hairStyle clips. When I click the next button, the square correctly maintains the color from frame to frame. However, having a square doesn't do me much good. :( I tried converting the hairStyle layer to a mask. Doing this, however, results in yet another "null object" error - mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null after frame 1. I even tried "spanning" my colorLevel across all frames (no keyframes), thinking that this would give me just one movieclip to work with. No luck. Same error! What's going on, here? Why am I getting these null objects, when they are clearly defined in my movieclip? I'm also open to suggestions on a better way to do multiple frames and colors.

    Read the article

  • jQuery function unresponsive after changing html

    - by asdgfas sagas
    $(document).ready(function () { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all content $(".tab_content:first").show(); //Show first tab content $(".next").click(function() { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content $('#tab_change').html('<div class="back"></div>'); $("#tab2").show(); return false; }); $(".back").click(function() { $(".tab_content").hide(); //Hide all tab content $('#tab_change').html('<div class="next"></div>'); $("#tab1").show(); return false; }); THe problem is that when next is clicked, the 2nd tab opens. But after the html of #tab_change changed, the back button is responsive. The $(".back").click(function() { doesnt work. HTML is posted for reference. <div class="dialog_content" style="width:780px"> <div id="tab_change" class="left border_right"> <div class="next"></div> </div> <div id="tab1" class="tab_content"> </div> <div id="tab2" class="tab_content"> <div class="right"><?php include("C:/easyphp/www/zabjournal/lib/flexpaper/php/split_document.php"); ?> </div> </div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Is there a point to have multiple VS projects for an ASP.NET MVC application?

    - by mare
    I'm developing MVC application where I currently have 3 projects in solution. Core (it is supposed to be for Repositories, Business Classes, Models, HttpModules, HttpFilters, Settings, etc.) Data access (Data provider, for instance SqlDataProvider for working with SQL Server datastore - implements Repository interfaces, XmlDataProvider - also implements Repository interfaces but for local XML files as datastore) ASP.NET MVC project (all the typical stuff, UI, controllers, content, scripts, resources and helpers). I have no Models in my ASP.NET MVC project. I've just run into a problem because of that coz I want to use the new DataAnnotation feature in MVC 2 on my Bussiness class, which are, as said in Core, however I have I want to be able to localize the error messages. This where my problem starts. I cannot use my Resources from MVC project in Core. The MVC project references Core and it cannot be vice-versa. My options as I see them are: 1) Move Resources out but this would require correcting a whole bunch of Views and Controllers where I reference them, 2) Make a complete restructure of my app What are your thoughts on this? Also, Should I just move everything business related into Models folder in MVC project?? Does it even make any sense to have it structured like that, because we can just make subfolders for everything under MVC project? The whole Core library is not intended to ever be used for anything else, so there actually no point of compiling it to a separate DLL. Suggestions appreciated.

    Read the article

  • how to organize classes in ruby if they are literal subclasses

    - by RetroNoodle
    I know that title didn't make sense, Im sorry! Its hard to word what I am trying to ask. I had trouble googling it for the same reason. So this isn't even Ruby specific, but I am working in ruby and I am new to it, so bear with me. So you have a class that is a document. Inside each document, you have sentences, and each sentence has words. Words will have properties, like "noun" or a count of how many times they are used in the document, etc. I would like each of the elements, document, sentence, word be an object. Now, if you think literally - sentences are in documents, and words are in sentences. Should this be organized literally like this as well? Like inside the document class you will define and instantiate the sentence objects, and inside the sentence class you will define and instantiate the words? Or, should everything be separate and reference each other? Like the word class would sit outside the sentence class but the sentence class would be able to instantiate and work with words? This is a basic OOP question I guess, and I suppose you could argue to do it either way. What do you guys think? Each sentence in the document could be stored in a hash of sentence objects inside the document object, and each word in the sentence could be stored in a hash of word objects inside the sentence. I dont want to code myself into a corner here, thats why I am asking, plus I have wondered this before in other situations. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Icons in menu are smaller than they should be

    - by martinpelant
    Hello I have a little problem. All the icons in my apk are smaller than the same icons in other apps (Gmail etc.) This is how it looks like in my apk and this is the same icon in Gmail.apk. I have copied these icons directly from SDK to the specific folders for hdpi, mdpi and ldpi. Here is an example of a hdpi icon I use and my menu.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <menu xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:id="@+id/refresh" android:title="@string/refresh" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_refresh" /> <item android:id="@+id/add" android:title="@string/add" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_add" /> <item android:id="@+id/login" android:title="@string/account" android:icon="@drawable/ic_menu_login" /> </menu> Does anybody know how to make these icon have the same size as in other apk's? I have tried the asset studio with no effect. UPDATE: If I reference an icon directly from android (android:drawable) then it has normal size. However not all icons can be referenced.

    Read the article

  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute cleaner temporary value or create a

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • UPDATE Table SET Field

    - by davlyo
    This is my Very first Post! Bear with me. I have an Update Statement that I am trying to understand how SQL Server handles it. UPDATE a SET a.vField3 = b.vField3 FROM tableName a INNER JOIN tableName b ON a.vField1 = b.vField1 AND b.nField2 = a.nField2 – 1 This is my query in its simplest form. vField1 is a Varchar nField2 is an int (autonumber) vField3 is a Varchar I have left the WHERE clause out so understand there is logic that otherwise makes this a nessessity. Say vField1 is a Customer Number and that Customer has 3 records The value in nField2 is 1, 2, and 3 consecutively. vField3 is a Status When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 1 there is no a.nField2 -1 so it continues When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 2, b.nField2 = 1 When the Update comes to a.nField2 = 3, b.nField2 = 2 So when the Update is on a.nField2 = 2, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 1) And it SETs the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the Update is on a.nField2 = 3, alias b reflects what is on the line prior (b.nField2 = 2) And it (should) SET the Varchar Value of a.vField3 = b.vField3 When the process is complete –the Second of three records looks as expected –hence the value in vField3 of the second record reflects the value in vField3 from the First record However, vField3 of the Third record does not reflect the value in vField3 from the Second record. I think this demonstrates that SQL Server may be producing a transaction of some sort and then an update. Question: How can I get the DB to Update after each transaction so I can reference the values generated by each transaction?

    Read the article

  • Sharing class member data between sub components

    - by Tim Gradwell
    I have an aggregate 'main' class which contains some data which I wish to share. The main class also has other class members. I want to share the data with these other class members. What is the correct / neatest way to do this? The specific example I have is as follows. The main class is a .net Form. I have some controls (actually controls within controls) on the main form which need access to the shared data. Main Form - DataX - DataY - Control1 -- Subcontrol1 - Control2 -- SubControl2 SubControls 1 and 2 both wish to access DataX and DataY. The trouble is, I feel like better practice (to reduce coupling), would be that either subcontrols should not know about Main Form, or Main Form should not know about subcontrols - probably the former. For subcontrols not to know about Main Form, would probably mean Main Form passing references to both Controls 1 and 2, which in turn would pass the references on to SubControls 1 and 2. Lots of lines of code which just forward the references. If I later added DataZ and DataW, and Controls 3 and 4 and SubControls 3 and 4, I'd have to add lots more reference forwarding code. It seems simpler to me to give SubControls 1 and 2 member references to Main Form. That way, any sub control could just ask for MainForm.DataX or MainForm.DataY and if I ever added new data, I could just access it directly from the sub controls with no hassle. But it still involves setting the 'MainForm' member references every time I add a new Control or Subcontrol. And it gives me a gut feeling of 'wrong'. As you might be able to tell I'm not happy with either of my solutions. Is there a better way? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Error emailing outgoing sms

    - by BirthOfTragedy
    Is there anyway to listen for an outbound sms without having to import javax.wireless.messaging? I'm trying to write an app that listens for an sms sent from the device then emails the message of the sms, but I get the error: reference to Message is ambiguous, both class javax.wireless.messaging.Message in javax.wireless.messaging and class net.rim.blackberry.api.mail.Message in net.rim.blackberry.api.mail match I need to import net.rim.blackberry.api.mail.Message in order to sent an email. Is there a way to get around this as it seems that the two packages are clashing. My code: public void notifyIncomingMessage(MessageConnection messageconnection) {} public void notifyOutgoingMessage(javax.wireless.messaging.Message message) { try { String address = message.getAddress(); String msg = null; if ( message instanceof TextMessage ) { TextMessage tm = (TextMessage)message; msg = tm.getPayloadText(); } else if (message instanceof BinaryMessage) { StringBuffer buf = new StringBuffer(); byte[] data = ((BinaryMessage) message).getPayloadData(); msg = new String(data, "UTF-8"); Store store = Session.getDefaultInstance().getStore(); Folder[] folders = store.list(Folder.SENT); Folder sentfolder = folders[0]; Message in = new Message(sentfolder); Address recipients[] = new Address[1]; recipients[0]= new Address("[email protected]", "user"); in.addRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, recipients); in.setSubject("Outgoing sms"); in.setContent("You have just sent an sms to: " + address + "\n" + "Message: " + msg); in.setPriority(Message.Priority.HIGH); Transport.send(in); in.setFlag(Message.Flag.OPENED, true); Folder folder = in.getFolder(); folder.deleteMessage(in); } } catch (IOException me) { System.out.println(me); } } }

    Read the article

  • Database PK-FK design for future-effective-date entries?

    - by Scott Balmos
    Ultimately I'm going to convert this into a Hibernate/JPA design. But I wanted to start out from purely a database perspective. We have various tables containing data that is future-effective-dated. Take an employee table with the following pseudo-definition: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Very simplistic. But let's say Employee A has id = 1, effectiveFrom = 1/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099. That employee is going to be changing jobs in the future, which would in theory create a new row, id = 2 with effectiveFrom = 7/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099, and id = 1's effectiveTo updated to 6/30/2011. But now, my program would have to go through any table that has a FK relationship to employee every night, and update those FK to reference the newly-effective employee entry. I have seen various postings in both pure SQL and Hibernate forums that I should have a separate employee_versions table, which is where I would have all effective-dated data stored, resulting in the updated pseudo-definition below: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_versions id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Then to get any actual data, one would have to actually select from employee_versions with the proper employee_id and date range. This feels rather unnatural to have this secondary "versions" table for each versioned entity. Anyone have any opinions, suggestions from your own prior work, etc? Like I said, I'm taking this purely from a general SQL design standpoint first before layering in Hibernate on top. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Help with simple javascript loop

    - by Gabriel
    Hello, I have a simple javascript that I'd like to loop for multiple elements. Here's my code: <script type='text/javascript'> for(i = 1; i < 100; i++) { $('#link'+i).click(function() { $('#container').removeClass(); $('#container').addClass('templateid'+i); }); } </script> What I'd like to achieve is the same addClass function for multiple id's (e.g. link2, link3, link4), with the corresponding class (e.g. template2, template3, template4). Any help would be hugely appreciated! For reference, an individual call like this one, does work, so I don't see why the loop above doesn't function the same: <script type='text/javascript'> $('#link2').click(function() { $('#container').removeClass(); $('#container').addClass('templateid2'); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Vectors or Java arrays for Tetris?

    - by StackedCrooked
    I'm trying to create a Tetris-like game with Clojure and I'm having some trouble deciding the data structure for the playing field. I want to define the playing field as a mutable grid. The individual blocks are also grids, but don't need to be mutable. My first attempt was to define a grid as a vector of vectors. For example an S-block looks like this: :s-block { :grids [ [ [ 0 1 1 ] [ 1 1 0 ] ] [ [ 1 0 ] [ 1 1 ] [ 0 1 ] ] ] } But that turns out to be rather tricky for simple things like iterating and painting (see the code below). For making the grid mutable my initial idea was to make each row a reference. But then I couldn't really figure out how to change the value of a specific cell in a row. One option would have been to create each individual cell a ref instead of each row. But that feels like an unclean approach. I'm considering using Java arrays now. Clojure's aget and aset functions will probably turn out to be much simpler. However before digging myself in a deeper mess I want to ask ideas/insights. How would you recommend implementing a mutable 2d grid? Feel free to share alternative approaches as well. Source code current state: Tetris.clj (rev452)

    Read the article

  • C# language questions

    - by Water Cooler v2
    1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

    Read the article

  • C++: What is the size of an object of an empty class?

    - by Ashwin
    I was wondering what could be the size of an object of an empty class. It surely could not be 0 bytes since it should be possible to reference and point to it like any other object. But, how big is such an object? I used this small program: #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Empty {}; int main() { Empty e; cerr << sizeof(e) << endl; return 0; } The output I got on both Visual C++ and Cygwin-g++ compilers was 1 byte! This was a little surprising to me since I was expecting it to be of the size of the machine word (32 bits or 4 bytes). Can anyone explain why the size of 1 byte? Why not 4 bytes? Is this dependent on compiler or the machine too? Also, can someone give a more cogent reason for why an empty class object will not be of size 0 bytes?

    Read the article

  • How can I automate new system provisioning with scripts under Mac OS X 10.6?

    - by deeviate
    I've been working on this for days but simply cannot find the correct references to make it work. The idea is to have a script that will baseline newly purchased Macs that comes into the company with basic stuffs like set autologin to off, create a new admin user (for remote admins to access for support, set password to unlock screensaver and etc) . Sample list for baseline that admins have to do on each new machine: Click the Login Options button Set Automatic Login: OFF Check: Show the Restart, Sleep, and Shutdown buttons Uncheck: Show input menu in login window Uncheck: Show password hints Uncheck: Use voice over in the login window Check: Show fast user switching menu as Short Name (note: this is only part of a long list to do on each machine) I've managed to find some references to make some parts work. Like autologin can be unset with: defaults write /Library/Preferences/.GlobalPreferences com.apple.userspref.DisableAutoLogin -bool TRUE and I've kinda found ways to muscle in a new user creation (including prompts) with AppleScript and shell commands. But generally its tough finding ways to do somewhat simple things like turn on password to get out of screensaver or to allow fast user switching. References are either too limited or just no where to be seen (e.g. I can unset autologin via cli but the very next setting on the system preference "show restart, sleep and shutdown buttons" is somewhere else and I can't find any command line to make it set) Does anyone have any ideas on a list, document, reference or anything of where each setting on the system resides so that I can be pointed to make it work? or maybe sample scripts for the above example... My thanks for reading thus far—a huge thank you for whoever that has any info on the above.

    Read the article

  • Get element id on hover (or mouseover)

    - by Peter C
    Still getting to grips with jQuery and I am pleased to have got as far as I have, especially help from the posts in this forum. However, now got to a working function that does what I want, that is to create a radio group that looks like a button. It pulls data via json and loops through creating the radio buttons. I want to get the id of the radio buttons generated so that I can then parse through to the next step of the app but I can't get it to work. function FillDiv(groups, side) { var cnt = 1; var newClass = ''; var newType = ''; if (side == '#ck-button-left') { newClass = 'leftClass'; newType = 'radio' } else { newClass = 'rightClass'; newType = 'checkbox' } $.each(groups, function (index, groups) { $(side) .append( $(document.createElement('label')).attr({ id: cnt + 'lbl' }) ); $('#' + cnt + 'lbl') .append( $(document.createElement('input')).attr({ id: groups.GroupCode, type: newType, name: 'testGroup', class: newClass }) ); $('#' + groups.GroupCode).after ( $(document.createElement('span')).text(groups.GroupName).attr('class', 'leftSpan') ); $('#' + cnt + 'lbl').after($(document.createElement('br'))); cnt = cnt + 1; }); } Looking through various searched, it should work with something like... $('#leftSpan').mouseover(function () { $('#lblOutput').html(this.id); }); or, as I suspect, it is something to do with the nesting of the label/input that I need to reference the parent or child. Any pointers would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Win32_Product InstallLocation (error)

    - by andrew
    in C#, i'm trying to get some properties from the instances of Win32_Product, but i seem to have an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." here's the code: class Package { public string productName; public string installDate; public string installLocation; } class InstalledPackages { public static List<Package> get() { List<Package> packages = new List<Package>(); string query = "SELECT * FROM Win32_Product"; ManagementScope oMs = new ManagementScope(); ObjectQuery oQuery = new ObjectQuery(query); ManagementObjectSearcher oSearcher = new ManagementObjectSearcher(oMs, oQuery); ManagementObjectCollection installedPackages = oSearcher.Get(); foreach (ManagementObject package in installedPackages) { Package p = new Package(); p.productName = package["Name"].ToString(); p.installLocation = package["InstallLocation"].ToString(); p.installDate = package["InstallDate"].ToString(); packages.Add(p); } return packages; } } the exception appears when it gets to p.installLocation = package["InstallLocation"].ToString(); also, i get one if i try to do p.installLocation = package["InstallDate2"].ToString(); if i'm asking for InstallDate it works. (i'm using Windows 7 Ultimate x64)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 473 474 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484  | Next Page >