Search Results

Search found 15621 results on 625 pages for 'creating'.

Page 479/625 | < Previous Page | 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486  | Next Page >

  • Benchmarking a UDP server

    - by Nicolas
    I am refactoring a UDP listener from Java to C. It needs to handle between 1000 and 10000 UDP messages per second, with an average data length of around 60 bytes. There is no reply necessary. Data cannot be lost (Don't ask why UDP was decided). I fork off a process to deal with the incoming data so that I can recvfrom as quickly as possible - without filling up my kernel buffers. The child then handles the data received. In short, my algo is: Listen for data. When data is received, check for errors. Fork off a child. If I'm a child, do what I with the data and exit. If I'm a parent, reap any zombie children waitpid(-1, NULL, WNOHANG). Repeat. Firstly, any comments about the above? I'm creating the socket with socket(AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, IPPROTO_UDP), binding with AF_INET and INADDR_ANY and recvfrom with no flags. Secondly, can anyone suggest something that I can use to test that this application (or at least the listener) can handle more messages than what I am expecting? Or, would I need to hack something together to do this. I'd guess the latter would be better, so that I can compare data that is generated versus data that is received. But, comments would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • rails search nested set (categories and sub categories)

    - by bob
    Hello, I am using the http://github.com/collectiveidea/awesome_nested_set awesome nested set plugin and currently, if I choose a sub category as my category_id for an item, I can not search by its parent. Category.parent Category.Child I choose Category.child as the category that my item is in. So now my item has category_id of 4 stored in it. If I go to a page in my rails application, lets say teh Category page and I am on the Category.parent's page, I want to show products that have category_id's of all the descendants as well. So ideally i want to have a find method that can take into account the descendants. You can get the descendants of a root by calling root.descendants (a built in plugin method). How would I go about making it so I can query a find that gets the descendants of a root instead of what its doing now which is binging up nothing unless the product had a specific category_id of the Category.parent. I hope I am being clear here. I either need to figure out a way to create a find method or named_scope that can query and return an array of objects that have id's corresponding tot he descendants of a root OR if I have any other options, what are they? I thought about creating a field in my products table like parent_id which can keep track of the parent so i can then create two named scopes one finding the parent stuff and one finding the child stuff and chaining them. I know I can create a named scope for each child and chain them together for multiple children but this seems a very tedious process and also, if you add more children, you would need to specify more named scopes.

    Read the article

  • o3d javascript uncaught reference error

    - by David Menard
    hey, im new to javascript and am intersted in creating a small o3d script: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Test Game Website</title> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="o3djs/base.js"></script> <script type = "text/javascript" id="myscript"> o3djs.require('o3djs.camera'); window.onload = init; function init(){ document.write("jkjewfjnwle"); } </script> <div align="background"> <div id="game_container" style="margin: 0px auto; clear: both; background-image: url('./tmp.png'); width: 800px; height:600px; padding: 0px; background-repeat: no-repeat; padding-top: 1px;"></div> </div> </body> </html> the browser cant seem to find o3djs/base.js in this line <script type="text/javascript" src="o3djs/base.js"></script> and gives me an uncaught referenceerror at this line o3djs.require('o3djs.camera'); Obviously, because it can't find the o3djs/base.js... I have installed the o3d pluggin from google and they say that should be IT ive tried on firefox, ie and chrome thanks

    Read the article

  • Javascript redeclared global variable overrides old value

    - by Yousuf Haider
    I ran into an interesting issue the other day and was wondering if someone could shed light on why this is happening. Here is what I am doing (for the purposes of this example I have dumbed down the example somewhat): I am creating a globally scoped variable using the square bracket notation and assigning it a value. Later I declare a var with the same name as the one I just created above. Note I am not assigning a value. Since this is a redeclaration of the same variable the old value should not be overriden as described here: http://www.w3schools.com/js/js_variables.asp //create global variable with square bracket notation window['y'] = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows New instead of Old The problem is that the old value actually does get overriden and in the above eg. the alert shows 'new' instead of 'old'. Why ? I guess another way to state my question is how is the above code different in terms of semantics from the code below: //create global variable var y = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows Old

    Read the article

  • xsd.exe - schema to class - for use with WCF

    - by NealWalters
    I have created a schema as an agreed upon interface between our company and an external company. I am now creating a WCF C# web service to handle the interface. I ran the XSD utility and it created a C# class. The schema was built in BizTalk, and references other schemas, so all-in-all there are over 15 classes being generated. I put [DataContract} attribute in front of each of the classes. Do I have to put the [DataMember] attribute on every single property? When I generate a test client program, the proxy does not have any code for any of these 15 classes. We used to use this technique when using .asmx services, but not sure if it will work the same with WCF. If we change the schema, we would want to regenerate the WCF class, and then we would haev to each time redecorate it with all the [DataMember] attributes? Is there an newer tool similar to XSD.exe that will work better with WCF? Thanks, Neal Walters SOLUTION (buried in one of Saunders answer/comments): Add the XmlSerializerFormat to the Interface definition: [OperationContract] [XmlSerializerFormat] // ADD THIS LINE Transaction SubmitTransaction(Transaction transactionIn); Two notes: 1) After I did this, I saw a lot more .xsds in the my proxy (Service Reference) test client program, but I didn't see the new classes in my intellisense. 2) For some reason, until I did a build on the project, I didn't get all the classes in the intellisense (not sure why).

    Read the article

  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS when executing ABAddressBookSave !

    - by Horatiu Paraschiv
    Hi everybody, I'm trying to create a new contact and add it to the AddressBook but when I get to the ABAddressSave line of code I get EXC_BAD_ACCESS. I cannot see what am I doing wrong, I enabled NSZombie to check if this is a memory related error but it didn't spot any. Can anybody tell me what is wrong with this code? Thank you in advance! CFErrorRef error = NULL; ABAddressBookRef iPhoneAddressBook = ABAddressBookCreate(); ABRecordRef newRecord = ABPersonCreate(); ABRecordSetValue(newRecord, kABPersonFirstNameProperty, @"Xxxxxx", &error); ABRecordSetValue(newRecord, kABPersonURLProperty, @"Yyyyyy", &error); //Add phone numbers to record ABMutableMultiValueRef phones = ABMultiValueCreateMutable(kABMultiStringPropertyType); ABMultiValueAddValueAndLabel(phones, @"1-555-555-5555", kABWorkLabel, NULL); ABRecordSetValue(newRecord, kABPersonPhoneProperty, phones, &error); CFRelease(phones); //Add email address to record ABMutableMultiValueRef emails = ABMultiValueCreateMutable(kABMultiStringPropertyType); ABMultiValueAddValueAndLabel(emails, @"[email protected]", kABWorkLabel, NULL); ABRecordSetValue(newRecord, kABPersonEmailProperty, emails, &error); CFRelease(emails); ABMutableMultiValueRef multiAddress = ABMultiValueCreateMutable(kABMultiDictionaryPropertyType); NSMutableDictionary *addressDict = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [addressDict setObject:@"xxx1" forKey:(NSString *)kABPersonAddressStreetKey]; [addressDict setObject:@"xxx2" forKey:(NSString *)kABPersonAddressCityKey]; [addressDict setObject:@"xxx3" forKey:(NSString *)kABPersonAddressStateKey]; [addressDict setObject:@"xxx4" forKey:(NSString *)kABPersonAddressZIPKey]; ABMultiValueAddValueAndLabel(multiAddress, addressDict, kABWorkLabel, NULL); ABRecordSetValue(newRecord, kABPersonAddressProperty, multiAddress, &error); CFRelease(multiAddress); [addressDict release]; ABAddressBookAddRecord(iPhoneAddressBook, newRecord, &error); ABAddressBookSave(iPhoneAddressBook, NULL); if(error != nil){ NSLog(@"Error creating contact:%@", error); }

    Read the article

  • Deriving an HTMLElement Object from jQuery Object

    - by Jasconius
    I'm doing a fairly exhaustive series of DOM manipulations where a few elements (specifically form elements) have some events. I am dynamically creating (actually cloning from a source element) several boxes and assigning a change() event to them. The change event executes, and within the context of the event, "this" is the HTML Element Object. What I need to do at this point however is determine a contact for this HTML Element Object. I have these objects stored already as jQuery entities in assorted arrays, but obviously [HTMLElement Object] != [Object Object] And the trick is that I cannot cast $(this) and make a valid comparison since that would create a new object and the pointer would be different. So... I've been banging my head against this for a while. In the past I've been able to circumvent this problem by doing an innerHTML comparison, but in this case the objects I am comparing are 100% identical, just there's lots of them. Therefore I need a solid comparison. This would be easy if I could somehow derive the HTMLElement object from my originating jQuery object. Thoughts, other ideas? Help. :(

    Read the article

  • How to Create Deterministic Guids

    - by desigeek
    In our application we are creating Xml files with an attribute that has a Guid value. This value needed to be consistent between file upgrades. So even if everything else in the file changes, the guid value for the attribute should remain the same. One obvious solution was to create a static dictionary with the filename and the Guids to be used for them. Then whenever we generate the file, we look up the dictionary for the filename and use the corresponding guid. But this is not feasible coz we might scale to 100's of files and didnt want to maintain big list of guids. So another approach was to make the Guid the same based on the path of the file. Since our file paths and application directory structure are unique, the Guid should be unique for that path. So each time we run an upgrade, the file gets the same guid based on its path. I found one cool way to generate such 'Deterministic Guids' (Thanks Elton Stoneman). It basically does this: private Guid GetDeterministicGuid(string input) { //use MD5 hash to get a 16-byte hash of the string: MD5CryptoServiceProvider provider = new MD5CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] inputBytes = Encoding.Default.GetBytes(input); byte[] hashBytes = provider.ComputeHash(inputBytes); //generate a guid from the hash: Guid hashGuid = new Guid(hashBytes); return hashGuid; } So given a string, the Guid will always be the same. Are there any other approaches or recommended ways to doing this? What are the pros or cons of that method?

    Read the article

  • Graceful termination of NSApplication with Core Data and Grand Central Dispatch (GCD)

    - by Vincent Mac
    I have an Cocoa Application (Mac OS X SDK 10.7) that is performing some processes via Grand Central Dispatch (GCD). These processes are manipulating some Core Data NSManagedObjects (non-document-based) in a manner that I believe is thread safe (creating a new managedObjectContext for use in this thread). The problem I have is when the user tries to quit the application while the dispatch queue is still running. The NSApplication delegate is being called before actually quitting. - (NSApplicationTerminateReply)applicationShouldTerminate:(NSApplication *)sender I get an error "Could not merge changes." Which is somewhat expected since there are still operations being performed through the different managedObjectContext. I am then presented with the NSAlert from the template that is generated with a core data application. In the Threading Programming Guide there is a section called "Be Aware of Thread Behaviors at Quit Time" which alludes to using replyToApplicationShouldTerminate: method. I'm having a little trouble implementing this. What I would like is for my application to complete processing the queued items and then terminate without presenting an error message to the user. It would also be helpful to update the view or use a sheet to let the user know that the app is performing some action and will terminate when the action is complete. Where and how would I implement this behavior?

    Read the article

  • Java & Maven generating -and using- my own archetype

    - by Random
    Hello again! I have been busy in my project creating a webapp (in struts) that manages maven, using maven-2.2.1-uber.jar link text. The problem comes when the boss says it has to use some archetypes the company has created (so no predefined archetypes for you naughty boy!). So ok, I use the -DarchetypeRepository option (with ServletWrapper I get my complete web direction, becouse the repository will be inside the app), and the log seems to find it, but then the build fails -miserably- with this little text 'Build Failure - The defined artifact is not an archetype' as simple as that. Of course I have a lot of INFO lines that say abslutily nothig related. I have read the maven definitive guide searching for some kind of help, but it has been disapointing at best. My thoughts are thatmaybe I am missing in somewhere of all the folders tree some xml that actually sais maven that my pom.xml is an archetype not a project. But I really, really, can't find anything on the net or in the manuals that explains easy-handed how the archetype:generate (with special parameters) works and where I have to put every folder and/or file. So just to say my thoughts aloud (and hopefully you understand what I am trying to ask): I have a template where I do some xml changes (variables, etc...), then I have to call maen and do an archetype:generate with a variable project. The problem seems to be that my actual confuguration doesn't like what I am doing. After the generation of the archetype, witch luckly will create some directory trees and leave me a POM.xml somewhere I still have to do some variable changes and more xml manage stuff, so it whould be very kind from maven to don't destroy anything in this process. Any ideas why this maven-thing is not happly-ever-after asuming that my archetype is defintly an archetype? Allthought I think the code is ok, it could be wrong, as I am using maven-ubber and I call the actual CSMavenCli.main(String[, ClassWorld), I don't think it is the case this time. Thanks and all! :) Random.

    Read the article

  • Adapting existing HTML/Javascript model to Titanium's latest release (v 0.9)

    - by Alan Neal
    In pre-0.9 versions of Titanium, one could simply specify an .html file (local or remote) in the tiapp.xml file and interact with it in the same manner as one would on a website. As of version 0.9, that is no the longer case. One creates their entire app dynamically. Unfortunately, this broke my previous implementation and, other than an updated Kitchen Sink, much of the new model and API calls are not covered in the documentation (e.g., createLabel). So, my question is this... What are the simplest steps for re-creating the previous effect (knowingly forgoing some of the advantages of the Titanium's latest approach if necessary)? My previous implementation was exactly as it functions on the website. The website has a single index.html file with no content other than links to JavaScript and style files. The document body's onload event called the first JavaScript function (located in the main script) and, from that point forth, the entire content was dynamically created. How can I set up the latest version of Titanium so that I am poised to do the exact same thing? BTW: Whereas I previously had the choice to keep the files local or remote, I don't believe that remote access (e.g., simply using the webView widget to point to the website) is viable. That's because pages displayed via the webView do not have access to most of the API. Since the iPhone and Safari browsers do not support the file input type, the only means for uploading files (something my app requires) is calling Titanium's function. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Call long running operation in WSS feature OnActivated Event

    - by dirq
    More specifically - How do I reference SPContext in Web Service with [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)]? We are creating a feature that needs to run a job when a site is created. The job takes about 4 minutes to complete. So, we made a web service that we can call when the feature is activated. This works but we want it to run asynchronously now. We've found the SoapDocumentMethod's OneWay property and that would work awesomely but the SPContext is now NULL. We have our web services in the _vti_bin virtual directory so it's available in each Windows Sharepoint Services site. I was using the SPContext.Current.Web to get the site and perform the long running operation. I wanted to just fire and forget about it by returning a soap response right away and letting the process run. How can I get the current SPContext? I used to be able to do this in my web service: SPWeb mySite = SPContext.Current.Web; Can I get the same context when I have the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] attribute applied to my web service? Or must I recreate the SPWeb from the url? This is similar to this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340192/webservice-oneway-and-new-spsitemyurl Update: I've tried these two ways but they didn't work: SPWeb targetSite = SPControl.GetContextWeb(this.Context); SPWeb targetSite2 = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context).Web;

    Read the article

  • Cannot find CFML template for custom tag

    - by jerrygarciuh
    Hi folks, I am not a ColdFusion coder. Doing a favor for a friend who ported his CF site from a Windows server to Unix on GoDaddy. Site is displaying error: Cannot find CFML template for custom tag jstk. ColdFusion attempted looking in the tree of installed custom tags but did not find a custom tag with this name. The site as I found it has at document root /CustomTags with the jstk.cfm file and a set of files in cf_jstk My Googling located this You must store custom tag pages in any one of the following: The same directory as the calling page; The cfusion\CustomTags directory; A subdirectory of the cfusion\CustomTags directory; A directory that you specify in the ColdFusion Administrator So I have Tried creating placing /CustomTags in /cfusion/CustomTags Tried copying /cfusion/CustomTags to above document root Tried copying jstk.cfm and subfolders into same directory as calling file(index.cfm). Update: Per GoDaddy support I have also tried adding the following to no effect: Can any one give me some tips on this or should I just tell my guy to look for a CF coder? Thanks! JG

    Read the article

  • Zend: How to populate data to checkboxes?

    - by NAVEED
    I am working on zend. I have a form with some checkboxes. I want to get data from database and populate this data to this form. If '1' is stored in table field then tick the check box otherwise leave it alone. In textboxes and dropdowns, data is easily populated but how to check a checkbox in action. I am creating checkboxes and textboxes elements like this in form.php: // Person name $person = $this->CreateElement('text', 'name'); $person->setLabel('Name'); $elements[] = $person; // Organization name $person = $this->CreateElement('text', 'organization'); $person->setLabel('Organization'); $elements[] = $person; // isAdmin Checkbox $isAdmin = $this->CreateElement('checkbox', 'isAdmin'); $isAdmin->setLabel('Admin'); $elements[] = $isAdmin; $this->addElements($elements); $this->setElementDecorators(array('ViewHelper')); // set form decorator (what script will render the form) $this->setDecorators(array(array('ViewScript' , array('viewScript' => 'organization/accessroles-form.phtml')))); And populating data like this (for example): // Prepare data to populate $data['name'] = 'Naveed'; $data['organization'] = 'ABC'; $data['isAdmin'] = '1'; // Populate editable data $this->view->form->populate( $data ); It is populating data in textboxes but not checking the checkbox? Any idea that how to check a checkbox from action? Thanks

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL - Tracking New / Dirty Objects

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    Is there a way to determine if a LINQ object has not yet been inserted in the database (new) or has been changed since the last update (dirty)? I plan on binding my UI to LINQ objects (using WPF) and need it to behave differently depending whether or not the object is already in the database. MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext(); MyObject obj; if (new Random().NextDouble() > .5) obj = new MyObject(); else obj = context.MyObjects.First(); // How can I distinguish these two cases? The only simple solution I can think of is to set the primary key of new records to a negative value (my PKs are an identity field and will therefore be set to a positive integer on INSERT). This will only work for detecting new records. It also requires identity PKs, and requires control of the code creating the new object. Is there a better way to do this? It seems like LINQ must be internally tracking the status of these objects so that it can know what to do on context.SubmitChanges(). Is there some way to access that "object status"? Clarification Apparently my initial question was confusing. I'm not looking for a way to insert or update records. I'm looking for a way, given any LINQ object, to determine if that object has not been inserted (new) or has been changed since its last update (dirty).

    Read the article

  • Error CS0117: Namespace.A does not contain definition for Interface..

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm getting the error: 'Namespace.A' does not contain a definition for 'MyObjectInterface' and no extension method 'MyObjectInterface' accepting a first argument of type ... I've looked at this and this and neither seems to apply. The code looks like: public abstract class Base { public IObject MyObjectInterface { get; set; } } public class A : Base { /**/ } public class Implementation { public void Method() { Base obj = new A(); obj.MyObjectInterface = /* something */; // Error here } } IObject is defined in a separate assembly, but: IObject is in a separate assembly/namespace Base and A are in the same assembly/namespace each with correct using directives Implementation is in a third separate assembly namespace, also with correct using directives. Casting to A before trying to set MyObjectInterface doesn't work Specifically, I'm trying to set the value of MyObjectInterface to a mock object (though, I created a fake instead to no avail) I've tried everything I can think of. Please help before I lose more hair. edit I can't reproduce the error by creating a test app either, which is why I'm here and why I'm frustrated. @Reed Copsey: /* something */ is either an NUnit.DynamicMock(IMailer).MockInstance or a Fake object I created that inherits from IObject and just returns canned values. @Preet Sangha: I checked and no other assembly that is referenced has a definition for an IObject (specifically, it's called an IMailer). Thing is that intellisense picks up the Property, but when I compile, I get CS0117. I can even 'Go To Definition' in the implementation, and it takes me to where I defined it.

    Read the article

  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

    Read the article

  • How should I define a composite foreign key for domain constraints in the presence of surrogate keys

    - by Samuel Danielson
    I am writing a new app with Rails so I have an id column on every table. What is the best practice for enforcing domain constraints using foreign keys? I'll outline my thoughts and frustration. Here's what I would imagine as "The Rails Way". It's what I started with. Companies: id: integer, serial company_code: char, unique, not null Invoices: id: integer, serial company_id: integer, not null Products: id: integer, serial sku: char, unique, not null company_id: integer, not null LineItems: id: integer, serial invoice_id: integer, not null, references Invoices (id) product_id: integer, not null, references Products (id) The problem with this is that a product from one company might appear on an invoice for a different company. I added a (company_id: integer, not null) to LineItems, sort of like I'd do if only using natural keys and serials, then added a composite foreign key. LineItems (product_id, company_id) references Products (id, company_id) LineItems (invoice_id, company_id) references Invoices (id, company_id) This properly constrains LineItems to a single company but it seems over-engineered and wrong. company_id in LineItems is extraneous because the surrogate foreign keys are already unique in the foreign table. Postgres requires that I add a unique index for the referenced attributes so I am creating a unique index on (id, company_id) in Products and Invoices, even though id is simply unique. The following table with natural keys and a serial invoice number would not have these issues. LineItems: company_code: char, not null sku: char, not null invoice_id: integer, not null I can ignore the surrogate keys in the LineItems table but this also seems wrong. Why make the database join on char when it has an integer already there to use? Also, doing it exactly like the above would require me to add company_code, a natural foreign key, to Products and Invoices. The compromise... LineItems: company_id: integer, not null sku: integer, not null invoice_id: integer, not null does not require natural foreign keys in other tables but it is still joining on char when there is a integer available. Is there a clean way to enforce domain constraints with foreign keys like God intended, but in the presence of surrogates, without turning the schema and indexes into a complicated mess?

    Read the article

  • Unittesting Url.Action (using Rhino Mocks?)

    - by Kristoffer Ahl
    I'm trying to write a test for an UrlHelper extensionmethod that is used like this: Url.Action<TestController>(x => x.TestAction()); However, I can't seem set it up correctly so that I can create a new UrlHelper and then assert that the returned url was the expected one. This is what I've got but I'm open to anything that does not involve mocking as well. ;O) [Test] public void Should_return_Test_slash_TestAction() { // Arrange RouteTable.Routes.Add("TestRoute", new Route("{controller}/{action}", new MvcRouteHandler())); var mocks = new MockRepository(); var context = mocks.FakeHttpContext(); // the extension from hanselman var helper = new UrlHelper(new RequestContext(context, new RouteData()), RouteTable.Routes); // Act var result = helper.Action<TestController>(x => x.TestAction()); // Assert Assert.That(result, Is.EqualTo("Test/TestAction")); } I tried changing it to urlHelper.Action("Test", "TestAction") but it will fail anyway so I know it is not my extensionmethod that is not working. NUnit returns: NUnit.Framework.AssertionException: Expected string length 15 but was 0. Strings differ at index 0. Expected: "Test/TestAction" But was: <string.Empty> I have verified that the route is registered and working and I am using Hanselmans extension for creating a fake HttpContext. Here's what my UrlHelper extentionmethod look like: public static string Action<TController>(this UrlHelper urlHelper, Expression<Func<TController, object>> actionExpression) where TController : Controller { var controllerName = typeof(TController).GetControllerName(); var actionName = actionExpression.GetActionName(); return urlHelper.Action(actionName, controllerName); } public static string GetControllerName(this Type controllerType) { return controllerType.Name.Replace("Controller", string.Empty); } public static string GetActionName(this LambdaExpression actionExpression) { return ((MethodCallExpression)actionExpression.Body).Method.Name; } Any ideas on what I am missing to get it working??? / Kristoffer

    Read the article

  • Help with editing data in entity framework.

    - by Levelbit
    Title of this question is simple because there is no an easy explanation for what I'm trying to ask you. I hope you'll understand in the end :). I have to tables in my database: Company and Location (relationship:one to many) and corresponding entity sets. In my wpf application I have some datagrid which I want to fill with locations and to be able to edit every row in separate window as some form of details view (so I don't want to edit my data in datagrid). I did this by accessing Location entity from selected row and creating a new Location entity and then I copy properties from original entity to newly created. Something like cloning the object. After editing if I press OK changed data is copied to original object back, and if I press Cancel nothing happens. Of course, you probably thinking I could use NoTracking option and AttachAsModified method as was mentioned as solution in some earlier questions(see:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/803022/changing-entities-in-the-entityframework) by Alex James, but lets say I had some problems about that and I have my own reasons for doing this. Finally, because navigation property(Company) of my location entity is assigned to newly created location object(during cloning) from some reason in object context additional object as copy of object I want to edit from datagrid is created without my will(similar problem :http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2009/12/02/tip-47-how-fix-up-can-make-it-hard-to-change-relationships.aspx). So, when I do ObjectContext.SaveChanges it inserts additional row of data into my database table Location, the same as the one i wanted to edit. I read about sth like this, but I don't quite understand why is that and how to block or override this. I hope I was clear as I could. Please, solutions or some other ideas.

    Read the article

  • Enormous data and PHP errors

    - by salamis
    I am currently using the following HighCharts:HighStock:Charts: http://www.highcharts.com/stock/demo/data-grouping in order to display the data returned from the server. We retrieve the data from a MySQL database and is really big. We are storing sensor metrics every 1 second. After a while we got the following error: [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 134217728 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 4756882 bytes) in C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php on line 156, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Stack trace:, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 1. {main}() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:0, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 2. getTrendsDataAI() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:33, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 3. printResults() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:102, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 4. createData() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:230, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 5. implode() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:156, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php What is the best solution to return this data as JSON object to HighStocks for viewing? And how can we overcome the PHP limitation? Shall we return chunk of data each time? How do they usually present enormous amount of data to the users and creating charts and reports from this data? Another big problem that we need to overcome is that the returned JSON object is enormous. At this point is around 20-30 mbs and it will be much larger in the future. Is it ok to return this data to the user and perform everything client side? Any suggestions or thoughts welcome.

    Read the article

  • httprequest handle time delays till having response

    - by bourax webmaster
    I have an application that calls a function to send JSON object to a REST API, my problem is how can I handle time delays and repeat this function till i have a response from the server in case of interrupted network connexion ?? I try to use the Handler but i don't know how to stop it when i get a response !!! here's my function that is called when button clicked : protected void sendJson(final String name, final String email, final String homepage,final Long unixTime,final String bundleId) { Thread t = new Thread() { public void run() { Looper.prepare(); //For Preparing Message Pool for the child Thread HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpConnectionParams.setConnectionTimeout(client.getParams(), 10000); //Timeout Limit HttpResponse response; JSONObject json = new JSONObject(); //creating meta object JSONObject metaJson = new JSONObject(); try { HttpPost post = new HttpPost("http://util.trademob.com:5000/cards"); metaJson.put("time", unixTime); metaJson.put("bundleId", bundleId); json.put("name", name); json.put("email", email); json.put("homepage", homepage); //add the meta in the root object json.put("meta", metaJson); StringEntity se = new StringEntity( json.toString()); se.setContentType(new BasicHeader(HTTP.CONTENT_TYPE, "application/json")); post.setEntity(se); String authorizationString = "Basic " + Base64.encodeToString( ("tester" + ":" + "tm-sdktest").getBytes(), Base64.NO_WRAP); //Base64.NO_WRAP flag post.setHeader("Authorization", authorizationString); response = client.execute(post); String temp = EntityUtils.toString(response.getEntity()); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), temp, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Looper.loop(); //Loop in the message queue } }; t.start(); }

    Read the article

  • iPhone UI addSubview causing concurrency exception

    - by Eli
    This is really odd... I run my app, and while it is opening and the views are constructing I get: Collection <CALayerArray: 0x124650> was mutated while being enumerated. The code trace goes through the following: main UIApplicationMain -[UIApplication _run] CFRunLoopRunInMode CFRunLoopRunSpecific _UIApplicationHandleEvent -[UIApplication sendEvent:] -[UIApplication handleEvent:withNewEvent:] -[UIApplication _runWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[UIApplication _performInitilizationWithURL:sourceBundleID:] -[AppDelegate applicationDidFinishLaunching:] +[Controller initializeController] //This is my own function [window addSubview: pauseMenuController.view] //This is the last point of my code it goes through -[UIView(Hierarchy) addSubview:] -[UIView(Internal) _addSubview:positioned:relativeTo:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] -[UIView(Hierarchy) _makeSubtreePerformSelector:withObject:withObject:copySublayers:] _NSFastEnumerationMutationHandler objc_exception_throw I've run the game lots and lots and lots of times and I've never seen this, then suddenly it popped up. The weird thing is that I'm not creating any other threads (that I know of) until after this code all gets called. It'll be easier for me to debug this if someone can give me some explanation of what might be getting modified while it's being accessed in a UIView. Does it have something to do with adding something to the view while it's already adding something, maybe? Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Get "term is undefined” error when trying to assign arrayList to List component dataSource

    - by user1814467
    I'm creating an online game where people log in and then have the list of current players displayed. When the user enters a "room" it dispatches an SFSEvent which includes a Room object with the list of users as User objects in that room. As that event's callback function, I get the list of current users which is an Array, switch the View Stack child index, and then I wrap the user list array in an ArrayList before I assign it to the MXML Spark List component's dataSource. Here's my code: My Actionscript Code Section (PreGame.as): private function onRoomJoin(event:SFSEvent):void { const room:Room = this._sfs.getRoomByName(PREGAME_ROOM); this.selectedChild = waitingRoom; /** I know I should be using event listeners * but this is a temporary fix, otherwise * I keep getting null object errors * do to the li_users list not being * created in time for the dataProvider assignment **/ setTimeout(function ():void { const userList:ArrayList = new ArrayList(room.userList); this.li_users.dataProvider = userList; // This is where the error gets thrown },1000); } My MXML Code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:ViewStack xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" initialize="preGame_initializeHandler(event)" > <fx:Script source="PreGame.as"/> <s:NavigatorContent id="nc_loginScreen"> /** Login Screen Code **/ </s:NavigatorContent> /** Start of Waiting Room code **/ <s:NavigatorContent id="waitingRoom"> <s:Panel id="pn_users" width="400" height="400" title="Users"> /** This is the List in question **/ <s:List id="li_users" width="100%" height="100%"/> </s:Panel> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:ViewStack> However, I keep getting this error: TypeError: Error #1010: A term is undefined and has no properties Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? The arrayList has data, so I know it's not empty/null.

    Read the article

  • Validating Application Settings Key Values in Isolated Storage for Windows Phone Applications

    - by Martin Anderson
    Hello everyone. I am very new at all this c# Windows Phone programming, so this is most probably a dumb question, but I need to know anywho... IsolatedStorageSettings appSettings = IsolatedStorageSettings.ApplicationSettings; if (!appSettings.Contains("isFirstRun")) { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; MessageBox.Show("isFirstRun not found - creating as true"); appSettings.Add("isFirstRun", "true"); appSettings.Save(); firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else { if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "true") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "false") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = false; } else { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; } } I am trying to firstly check if there is a specific key in my Application Settings Isolated Storage, and then wish to make a CheckBox appear checked or unchecked depending on if the value for that key is "true" or "false". Also I am defaulting the opacity of the checkbox to 0.5 opacity when no action is taken upon it. With the code I have, I get the warnings Possible unintended reference comparison; to get a value comparison, cast the left hand side to type 'string' Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong. I have explored storing data in an Isolated Storage txt file, and that worked, I am now trying Application Settings, and will finally try to download and store an xml file, as well as create and store user settings into an xml file. I want to try understand all the options open to me, and use which ever runs better and quicker

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 475 476 477 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486  | Next Page >