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  • BroadcastReceiver not receiving an alarm's broadcast

    - by juanjux
    I have a code that sets a new repeating alarm (on production I'll use a inexactRepeating), but the BroadCastReceiver I've registered for handling it is not being called. Here is the code where I set the alarm: newAlarmPeriod = 5000; // For debugging Intent alarmIntent = new Intent(this, GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver.class); PendingIntent sender = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, Constants.CHECK_ALARM_CODE, alarmIntent, 0); AlarmManager am = (AlarmManager) getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); am.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, System.currentTimeMillis() + newAlarmPeriod, newAlarmPeriod, sender); It seems to work and it triggers and alarm every five seconds, as seen in the output of "adb shell dumpsys alarm": DUMP OF SERVICE alarm: Current Alarm Manager state: Realtime wakeup (now=1269941046923): RTC_WAKEUP #1: Alarm{43cbac58 type 0 android} type=0 when=1269997200000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43bb1738: PendingIntentRecord{43bb1248 android broadcastIntent}} RTC_WAKEUP #0: Alarm{43ce30e0 type 0 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader} type=0 when=1269941049555 repeatInterval=5000 count=1 operation=PendingIntent{43d990c8: PendingIntentRecord{43d49108 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader broadcastIntent}} RTC #1: Alarm{43bfc250 type 1 android} type=1 when=1269993600000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43c5a618: PendingIntentRecord{43c4f048 android broadcastIntent}} RTC #0: Alarm{43d67dd8 type 1 android} type=1 when=1269941100000 repeatInterval=0 count=0 operation=PendingIntent{43c4e0f0: PendingIntentRecord{43c4f6c8 android broadcastIntent}} Broadcast ref count: 0 Alarm Stats: android 24390ms running, 0 wakeups 80 alarms: act=android.intent.action.TIME_TICK flg=0x40000004 com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader 26ms running, 2 wakeups 2 alarms: flg=0x4 cmp=com.almarsoft.GroundhogReader/.GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver But for some reason my BroadCastReceiver is not being called when the alarm is triggered. I've declared it on the Manifest: <receiver android:name=".GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver" /> And this is the abbreviated code: public class GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver{ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Toast.makeText(context, "XXX Alarm worked.", Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); Log.d("XXX", "GroupsCheckAlarmReceiver.onReceive"); }

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  • FileSystem.GetFiles() + UnauthorizedAccessException error?

    - by OverTheRainbow
    Hello, It seems like FileSystem.GetFiles() is unable to recover from the UnauthorizedAccessException exception that .Net triggers when trying to access an off-limit directory. In this case, does it mean this class/method isn't useful when scanning a whole drive and I should use some other solution (in which case: Which one?)? Here's some code to show the issue: Private Sub bgrLongProcess_DoWork(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles bgrLongProcess.DoWork Dim drive As DriveInfo Dim filelist As Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyCollection(Of String) Dim filepath As String 'Scan all fixed-drives for MyFiles.* For Each drive In DriveInfo.GetDrives() If drive.DriveType = DriveType.Fixed Then Try 'How to handle "Access to the path 'C:\System Volume Information' is denied." error? filelist = My.Computer.FileSystem.GetFiles(drive.ToString, FileIO.SearchOption.SearchAllSubDirectories, "MyFiles.*") For Each filepath In filelist DataGridView1.Rows.Add(filepath.ToString, "temp") 'Trigger ProgressChanged() event bgrLongProcess.ReportProgress(0, filepath) Next filepath Catch Ex As UnauthorizedAccessException 'How to ignore this directory and move on? End Try End If Next drive End Sub Thank you. Edit: What about using a Try/Catch just to have GetFiles() fill the array, ignore the exception and just resume? Private Sub bgrLongProcess_DoWork(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles bgrLongProcess.DoWork 'Do lengthy stuff here Dim filelist As Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyCollection(Of String) Dim filepath As String filelist = Nothing Try filelist = My.Computer.FileSystem.GetFiles("C:\", FileIO.SearchOption.SearchAllSubDirectories, "MyFiles.*") Catch ex As UnauthorizedAccessException 'How to just ignore this off-limit directory and resume searching? End Try 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object For Each filepath In filelist bgrLongProcess.ReportProgress(0, filepath) Next filepath End Sub

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  • iOS iPad UIActionSheet Issue

    - by hart1994
    I am currently developing an application which needs an option to 'share' using multiple services; such as email, twitter. To to this, I have a UIBarButtonItem coded in and when touched, it triggers this: UIActionSheet *sheet = [[UIActionSheet alloc] initWithTitle:@"" delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:nil destructiveButtonTitle:nil otherButtonTitles:nil]; [sheet addButtonWithTitle:@"Email"]; [sheet addButtonWithTitle:@"Tweet"]; [sheet addButtonWithTitle:@"Cancel"]; sheet.cancelButtonIndex = sheet.numberOfButtons-1; [sheet showFromRect:self.view.bounds inView:self.view animated:YES]; [sheet release]; In conjunction with this to detect which button is selected: clickedButtonAtIndex:(NSInteger)buttonIndex { if (buttonIndex == actionSheet.cancelButtonIndex) { return; } switch (buttonIndex) { case 0: { [self emailThis]; break; } case 1: { [self tweetThis]; break; } } This works a treat on the iPhone. But unfortunately it displays incorrectly on the iPad. It looks like it is trying to display the UIPopoverController, but it is positioned center of the navbar with practically no height. I have looked into using the UIPopoverController, but I cannot seem to find out how to use it with buttons. Is there anyway I can adapt the code above to properly display the buttons, as it's trying to already. Many thanks, Ryan PS: I'm new to objective-c/iOS coding, so please be specific. Thank you :)

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  • XMLhttpRequest > PHP > XMLhttpRequest

    - by usurper
    Hi guys, I have another question. XMLhttpRequests haunt me. Everything is now in the database but I need this data to update my page on firt page load or reload. The XHR is triggered in JavaScript file which triggers PHP-Script. PHP-Script access MySQL database. But how do I get the fetched records back into my JavaScript for page update. I can not figure it out. First my synchronous XMLhttpRequest: function retrieveRowsDB() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","retrieveRowData.php", false); xmlhttp.send(null); return xmlhttp.responseText; } Then my PHP-Script: <?php $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root","*************"); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("sadb", $con); $data="SELECT * FROM users ORDER BY rowdata ASC"; if (!mysql_query($data,$con)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } else { $dbrecords = mysql_query($data,$con); } $rowdata = mysql_fetch_array($dbrecords); return $rowdata; mysql_close($con); ?> What am I missing here? Anyone got a clue?

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  • WinForms Load Event / Static Initialization Strangeness

    - by Eric J.
    Background I'm troubleshooting an WinForms 2.0 program that's already been burned to CD for distribution to an internet-challenged target audience. Some users are experiencing a fatal error that I can reproduce locally. Reproducing the Error I get the fatal error when I log into my Vista box using a standard user that I just created, even if I run the program as administrator. I do not get the fatal error when I log in as local administrator. I'm not sure that being administrator is necessarily the trigger (since runas did not help). I have reproduced this half a dozen times under each account with consistent results. The faulty code Base.cs (base class for several user controls, only one of which is shown on first screen) private void BaseWindow_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { // This message shown once in both cases MessageBox.Show("BaseWindow_Load for " + this.GetType().FullName); SkinManager.ApplySkin(this); } SkinManager.cs private static Skin skin = null; public static void ApplySkin(UserControl applyTo) { if (skin == null) { skin = new Skin(SkinsDirectory, "Default"); } } Skin.cs internal Skin(string skinPath, string skinName) { config = SkinConfig.Load(path); } SkinConfig.cs public static SkinConfig Load(string path) { // This message shown only once running as Admin but twice running as standard user System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show("@1"); // !!! LOCK path HERE !!! } A user control loads on the first form, which triggers a call to SkinManager.ApplySkin, which checks if skin is null and, if so assigns it (without thread synchronization or recursion protection), which ultimately causes a file to be opened. When logged in as local admin, that sequence completes just fine. When logged in as my test standard user, ApplySkin is always called a second time while skin is still null, causing a second attempt to load, causing the file to be locked on the second attempt. The error handling is draconian at this point and the program terminates. The Question While this code can be easily fixed, I would like to understand why the error is happening only in some cases.

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  • Non-Relational Database Design

    - by Ian Varley
    I'm interested in hearing about design strategies you have used with non-relational "nosql" databases - that is, the (mostly new) class of data stores that don't use traditional relational design or SQL (such as Hypertable, CouchDB, SimpleDB, Google App Engine datastore, Voldemort, Cassandra, SQL Data Services, etc.). They're also often referred to as "key/value stores", and at base they act like giant distributed persistent hash tables. Specifically, I want to learn about the differences in conceptual data design with these new databases. What's easier, what's harder, what can't be done at all? Have you come up with alternate designs that work much better in the non-relational world? Have you hit your head against anything that seems impossible? Have you bridged the gap with any design patterns, e.g. to translate from one to the other? Do you even do explicit data models at all now (e.g. in UML) or have you chucked them entirely in favor of semi-structured / document-oriented data blobs? Do you miss any of the major extra services that RDBMSes provide, like relational integrity, arbitrarily complex transaction support, triggers, etc? I come from a SQL relational DB background, so normalization is in my blood. That said, I get the advantages of non-relational databases for simplicity and scaling, and my gut tells me that there has to be a richer overlap of design capabilities. What have you done? FYI, there have been StackOverflow discussions on similar topics here: the next generation of databases changing schemas to work with Google App Engine choosing a document-oriented database

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  • Create win task to run once and delete immediately using C#

    - by pencilslate
    Here is the use case: - Create a new win task, run immediately and once complete, delete the task. Here is basic code to create a task using C#. using (TaskService ts = new TaskService(null)) { string projectName = "runnowtest" + Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); //create new task TaskDefinition td = ts.NewTask(); Trigger mt = null; //setup task as Registration trigger mt = td.Triggers.AddNew(TaskTriggerType.Registration); mt.StartBoundary = DateTime.Now; //delete the task 1 minute after the program ends td.Settings.DeleteExpiredTaskAfter = new TimeSpan(0, 1, 0); //run the notepad++ in the task td.Actions.Add(new ExecAction("notepad.exe")); //register task Task output = ts.RootFolder.RegisterTaskDefinition(projectName, td); //check output Console.WriteLine(output != null ? "Task created" : "Task not created"); } The API doesn't seem to have a property/flag to mark task as run once. I am trying to ensure the above task runs only once and deletes immediately after that. Any thoughts are much appreciated!

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  • Problem Activating Sharepoint Timer Job

    - by Ben Robinson
    I have created a very simple sharepoint timer job. All i want it to do is iterate through a list and update each list item so that it triggers an existing workflow that works fine. In other words all i am trying to do is work around the limitation that workflows cannot be triggered on a scheduled basis. I have written a class that inherits from SPJobDefinition that does the work and i have a class that inherits from SPFeatureReceiver to install and activate it. I have created the feature using SPVisualdev that my coleagues have used in the past for other SP development. My Job class is below: public class DriverSafetyCheckTrigger : SPJobDefinition { private string pi_SiteUrl; public DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(string SiteURL, SPWebApplication WebApp):base("DriverSafetyCheckTrigger",WebApp,null, SPJobLockType.Job) { this.Title = "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger"; pi_SiteUrl = SiteURL; } public override void Execute(Guid targetInstanceId) { using (SPSite siteCollection = new SPSite(pi_SiteUrl)) { using (SPWeb site = siteCollection.RootWeb) { SPList taskList = site.Lists["Driver Safety Check"]; foreach(SPListItem item in taskList.Items) { item.Update(); } } } } } And the only thing in the feature reciever class is that i have overridden the FeatureActivated method below: public override void FeatureActivated(SPFeatureReceiverProperties Properties) { SPSite site = Properties.Feature.Parent as SPSite; // Make sure the job isn't already registered. foreach (SPJobDefinition job in site.WebApplication.JobDefinitions) { if (job.Name == "DriverSafetyCheckTrigger") job.Delete(); } // Install the job. DriverSafetyCheckTrigger oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger = new DriverSafetyCheckTrigger(site.Url, site.WebApplication); SPDailySchedule oSchedule = new SPDailySchedule(); oSchedule.BeginHour = 1; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Schedule = oSchedule; oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(); } The problem i have is that when i try to activate the feature it throws a NullReferenceException on the line oDriverSafetyCheckTrigger.Update(). I am not sure what is null in this case, the example i have followed for this is this tutorial. I am not sure what I am doing wrong.

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  • JQuery DatePicker - pop calendar dialog on 'OnSelect' of another datepicker

    - by sajanyamaha
    I have two JQuery datepickers to select 'StartDate' and 'EndDate'.My requirement is to automatically popup the end date calendar after startDate has been selected. I have tried all the steps in COMMENTED HERE. The code here succesfully triggers the focus of 'EndDate' calendar,but it displays for a second and hides off. $(document).ready(function() { //Runs when tab is loaded var dateFormat = "dd/mm/yy"; var today=new Date(); today.setMonth(today.getMonth()-1); $("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker1").datepicker({ minDate: 0, dateFormat:dateFormat, //maxDate: '+12M +31D', onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ var the_date = new Date($.datepicker.parseDate(dateFormat,dateText)); //var end=(the_date.getDate()+1) + '/' + (the_date.getMonth()+1) + '/' + the_date.getFullYear(); $("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker('option', 'minDate', the_date); // TRIED ALL THESE //document.getElementById('ui-datepicker-div').style.display = 'block'; //document.getElementById('ui-datepicker-div').style.left = '635.5px'; //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker("show"); //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker(); //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").focus(); //$('#foo').slideUp(300).delay(800).fadeIn(400); //$("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").trigger("focus"); $('#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2').focus(); } }); $("#ctl00_ContentPlaceHolder1_datepicker2").datepicker({ //maxDate: '+12M +31D', dateFormat:dateFormat, onSelect: function(dateText, inst){ } }); });

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  • How to set focus to a brand new TextBox which was created as a result of a databinding in WPF?

    - by Mike
    Hi everyone, I have a WPF ItemsControl that is bound to an ObservableCollection. The XAML: <ItemsControl Name="mItemsControl"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Mode=OneWay}"></TextBox> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> The codebehind: private ObservableCollection<string> mCollection = new ObservableCollection<string>(); public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); this.mCollection.Add("Test1"); this.mCollection.Add("Test2"); this.mItemsControl.ItemsSource = this.mCollection; } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); } When I click a button, it adds a new string to the databound ObservableCollection which triggers a new TextBox to appear. I want to give this new textbox focus. I've tried this technique from a related StackOverflow question but it always sets focus to the textbox before the newly created one. private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.mCollection.Add("new item!"); // MoveFocus takes a TraversalRequest as its argument. TraversalRequest request = new TraversalRequest(FocusNavigationDirection.Previous); // Gets the element with keyboard focus. UIElement elementWithFocus = Keyboard.FocusedElement as UIElement; // Change keyboard focus. if (elementWithFocus != null) { elementWithFocus.MoveFocus(request); } } My need seems simple enough, but it's almost like the new textbox doesn't really exist until a slight delay after something is added to the ObservableCollection. Any ideas of what would work? Thanks! -Mike

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  • Data in two databases, eager spool resulting in query

    - by Valkyrie
    I have two databases in SQL2k5: one that holds a large amount of static data (SQL Database 1) (never updated but frequently inserted into) and one that holds relational data (SQL Database 2) related to the static data. They're separated mainly because of corporate guidelines and business requirements: assume for the following problem that combining them is not practical. There are places in SQLDB2 that PKs in SQLDB1 are referenced; triggers control the referential integrity, since cross-database relationships are troublesome in SQL Server. BUT, because of the large amount of data in SQLDB1, I'm getting eager spools on queries that join from the Id in SQLDB2 that references the data in SQLDB1. (With me so far? Maybe an example will help:) SELECT t.Id, t.Name, t2.Company FROM SQLDB1.table t INNER JOIN SQLDB2.table t2 ON t.Id = t2.FKId This query results in a eager spool that's 84% of the load of the query; the table in SQLDB1 has 35M rows, so it's completely choking this query. I can't create a view on the table in SQLDB1 and use that as my FK/index; it doesn't want me to create a constraint based on a view. Anyone have any idea how I can fix this huge bottleneck? (Short of putting the static data in the first db: believe me, I've argued that one until I'm blue in the face to no avail.) Thanks! valkyrie Edit: also can't create an indexed view because you can't put schemabinding on a view that references a table outside the database where the view resides. Dang it.

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  • How to continuously scroll content within a DIV using jQuery?

    - by Camsoft
    Aim The aim is to a have a container DIV with a fixed height and width and have the HTML content within that DIV automatically scroll vertically continuously. Question Basically I've created the code below using jQuery to scroll (move) the child DIV vertically upwards until its outside the bounding parent box where the animation then completes which triggers an event handler which resets the position of the child DIV and starts the process again. This works fine, so the content scrolls up leaving a blank space and then starts from the bottom again and scrolls up. The problem I have is that the requirements for this is for the content to appear as if it was continuously repeating, see below diagram to better explain this, is there a way to do this? (I don't want to use 3rd party plug ins or libraries other than jQuery): What I have so far The HTML: <div id="scrollingContainer"> <div class="scroller"> <h1>This is a title</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Suspendisse at orci mi, id gravida tellus. Integer malesuada ante sit amet enim pulvinar congue. Donec pulvinar dolor et arcu posuere feugiat id et felis.</p> <p>More content....</p> </div> </div> The CSS: #scrollingContainer{ height: 300px; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; } #scrollingContainer DIV.scroller{ position: relative; } The JavaScript: /** * Scrolls the content DIV */ function scroll() { if($('DIV.scroller').height() > $('#scrollingContainer').height()) { var t = $('DIV.scroller').position().top + $('DIV.scroller').height(); /* Animate */ $('DIV.scroller').animate( { top: '-=' + t + 'px' } , 4000, 'linear', animationComplete); } } function animationComplete() { $(this).css('top', $('#scrollingContainer').height()); scroll(); }

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  • How to make a GRANT persist for a table that's being dropped and re-created?

    - by Eli Courtwright
    I'm on a fairly new project where we're still modifying the design of our Oracle 11g database tables. As such, we drop and re-create our tables fairly often to make sure that our table creation scripts work as expected whenever we make a change. Our database consists of 2 schemas. One schema has some tables with INSERT triggers which cause the data to sometimes be copied into tables in our second schema. This requires us to log into the database with an admin account such as sysdba and GRANT access to the first schema to the necessary tables on the second schema, e.g. GRANT ALL ON schema_two.SomeTable TO schema_one; Our problem is that every time we make a change to our database design and want to drop and re-create our database tables, the access we GRANT-ed to schema_one went away when the table was dropped. Thus, this creates another annoying step wherein we must log in with an admin account to re-GRANT the access every time one of these tables is dropped and re-created. This isn't a huge deal, but I'd love to eliminate as many steps as possible from our development and testing procedures. Is there any way to GRANT access to a table in such a way that the GRANT-ed permissions survive a table being dropped and then re-created? And if this isn't possible, then is there a better way to go about this?

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  • recursive delete trigger and ON DELETE CASCADE contraints are not deleting everything

    - by bitbonk
    I have a very simple datamodel that represents a tree structure: The RootEntity is the root of such a tree, it can contain children of type ContainerEntity and of type AtomEntity. The type ContainerEntity again can contain children of type ContainerEntity and of type AtomEntity but can not contain children of type RootEntity. Children are referenced in a well known order. The DB model for this is below. My problem now is that when I delete a RootEntity I want all children to be deleted recursively. I have create foreign key with CASCADE DELETE and two delete triggers for this. But it is not deleting everything, it always leaves some items in the ContainerEntity, AtomEntity, ContainerEntity_Children and AtomEntity_Children tables. Seemling beginning with the recursionlevel of 3. CREATE TABLE RootEntity ( Id UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NOT NULL, Name VARCHAR(500) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_RootEntity PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED (Id), ); CREATE TABLE ContainerEntity ( Id UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NOT NULL, Name VARCHAR(500) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_ContainerEntity PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED (Id), ); CREATE TABLE AtomEntity ( Id UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NOT NULL, Name VARCHAR(500) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_AtomEntity PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED (Id), ); CREATE TABLE RootEntity_Children ( ParentId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NOT NULL, OrderIndex INT NOT NULL, ChildContainerEntityId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NULL, ChildAtomEntityId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NULL, ChildIsContainerEntity BIT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_RootEntity_Children PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED (ParentId, OrderIndex), -- foreign key to parent RootEntity CONSTRAINT FK_RootEntiry_Children__RootEntity FOREIGN KEY (ParentId) REFERENCES RootEntity (Id) ON DELETE CASCADE, -- foreign key to referenced (child) ContainerEntity CONSTRAINT FK_RootEntiry_Children__ContainerEntity FOREIGN KEY (ChildContainerEntityId) REFERENCES ContainerEntity (Id) ON DELETE CASCADE, -- foreign key to referenced (child) AtomEntity CONSTRAINT FK_RootEntiry_Children__AtomEntity FOREIGN KEY (ChildAtomEntityId) REFERENCES AtomEntity (Id) ON DELETE CASCADE, ); CREATE TABLE ContainerEntity_Children ( ParentId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NOT NULL, OrderIndex INT NOT NULL, ChildContainerEntityId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NULL, ChildAtomEntityId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER NULL, ChildIsContainerEntity BIT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT PK_ContainerEntity_Children PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED (ParentId, OrderIndex), -- foreign key to parent ContainerEntity CONSTRAINT FK_ContainerEntity_Children__RootEntity FOREIGN KEY (ParentId) REFERENCES ContainerEntity (Id) ON DELETE CASCADE, -- foreign key to referenced (child) ContainerEntity CONSTRAINT FK_ContainerEntity_Children__ContainerEntity FOREIGN KEY (ChildContainerEntityId) REFERENCES ContainerEntity (Id) ON DELETE CASCADE, -- foreign key to referenced (child) AtomEntity CONSTRAINT FK_ContainerEntity_Children__AtomEntity FOREIGN KEY (ChildAtomEntityId) REFERENCES AtomEntity (Id) ON DELETE CASCADE, ); CREATE TRIGGER Delete_RootEntity_Children ON RootEntity_Children FOR DELETE AS DELETE FROM ContainerEntity WHERE Id IN (SELECT ChildContainerEntityId FROM deleted) DELETE FROM AtomEntity WHERE Id IN (SELECT ChildAtomEntityId FROM deleted) GO CREATE TRIGGER Delete_ContainerEntiy_Children ON ContainerEntity_Children FOR DELETE AS DELETE FROM ContainerEntity WHERE Id IN (SELECT ChildContainerEntityId FROM deleted) DELETE FROM AtomEntity WHERE Id IN (SELECT ChildAtomEntityId FROM deleted) GO

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  • Why does calling abort() on ajax request cause error in ASP.Net MVC (IE8)

    - by user169867
    I use jquery to post to an MVC controller action that returns a table of information. The user of the page triggers this by clicking on various links. In the event the user decides to click a bunch of these links in quick succession I wanted to cancel any previous ajax request that may not have finished. I've found that when I do this (although its fine from the client's POV) I will get errors on the web application saying that "The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter srtCol of non-nullable type 'System.Int32'" Now the ajax post deffinately passes in all the parameters, and if I don't try and cancel the ajax request it works just fine. But if I do cancel the request by calling abort() on the XMLHttpRequest object that ajax() returns before it finishes I get the error from ASP.Net MVC. Example: //Cancel any pevious request if (req) { req.abort(); req = null; } //Make new request req= $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/Myapp/GetTbl", data: {srtCol: srt, view: viewID}, success: OnSuccess, error: OnError, dataType: "html" }); I've noticed this only happen is IE8. In FF it seems to not cuase a problem. Does anyone know how to cancel an ajax request in IE8 without causing errors for MVC? Thanks for any help.

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • Button Click Event Getting Lost

    - by AlishahNovin
    I have a Menu and Submenu structure in Silverlight, and I want the submenu to disappear when the parent menu item loses focus - standard Menu behavior. I've noticed that the submenu's click events are lost when a submenu item is clicked, because the parent menu item loses focus and the submenu disappears. It's easier to explain with code: ParentMenuBtn.Click += delegate { SubMenu.Visibility = (SubMenu.Visibility == Visibility.Visible) ? SubMenu.Collapsed : SubMenu.Visible; }; ParentMenuBtn.LostFocus += delegate { SubMenu.Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; }; SubMenuBtn.Click += delegate { throw new Exception("This will never be thrown."); }; In my example, when SubMenuBtn is clicked, the first event that triggers is ParentMenuBtn.LostFocus(), which hides the container of SubMenuBtn. Once the container's visibility collapses, the Click event is never triggered. I'd rather avoid having to hide the sub-menu each time, but I'm a little surprised that the Click event is never triggered as a result... I can't put any checks inside the LostFocus() event to see if my SubMenuBtn has focus, because it does not gain focus until after the LostFocus() event is called. In other words, SubMenuBtn.IsFocused = false when LostFocus() is triggered. Anyone have any thoughts about this?

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  • Why wouldn't a flex remoteobject be able to work within a custom component?

    - by Gary
    Please enlighten this flex noob. I have a remoteobject within my main.mxml. I can call a function on the service from an init() function on my main.mxml, and my java debugger triggers a breakpoint. When I move the remoteobject declaration and function call into a custom component (that is declared within main.mxml), the remote function on java-side no longer gets called, no breakpoints triggered, no errors, silence. How could this be? No spelling errors, or anything like that. What can I do to figure it out? mxml code: < mx:RemoteObject id="myService" destination="remoteService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" > < /mx:RemoteObject > function call is just 'myService.getlist();' when I move it to a custom component, I import mx.core.Application; so the compiler doesn't yell my child component: child.mxml <mx:Panel xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.core.Application; public function init():void { helloWorld.sayHello(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:RemoteObject id="helloWorld" destination="helloService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" /> <mx:Label text="{helloWorld.sayHello.lastResult}" /> </mx:Panel> my main.mxml: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" xmlns:test="main.flex.*" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var home:String; [Bindable] public var uName:String; public function init():void { //passed in by wrapper html home = Application.application.parameters.appHome; uName = Application.application.parameters.uName; } ]]> </mx:Script> <test:child /> </mx:Application>

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  • Why does my Workflow Service (4.0) variable go null in a DoWhile Activity?

    - by jlafay
    I have a WF service that I'm trying to setup receive activities to "Subscribe" and "Unsubscribe". I'm using This WF Durable Duplex Tutorial as a basis because my service performs callbacks to clients. Basically, think of it as a chat service. I can make client calls to the two receive activities just fine. What happens is the callback address of the client is passed in to Subscribe() on the service. The address is stored as a variable in the WF service and everything looks like it would work as to be expected. When a client calls Unsubscribe(), my watch I have set on the address var during debugging shows it as null. So what gives? Here's the basic setup of my WF service layout... Everything is enveloped in a DoWhile activity. Inside of that is a Pick activity and two Pick branches. The first branch is for subscribing activities. It has a receive-sendreply activity that assigns the string passed by the client to the WF address var. The second branch handles unsubscribing. The trigger is the Request activity and the client address is again passed in. From there it goes into a sequence, starting with an If. It checks to see if the unsubscribeAddress equals the address already subscribed. If it does, then it sets the address to String.Empty and sends a success message back to the client. Why would a variable that's scoped to the enveloping DoWhile activity be implicitly assigned to null? I'm trying to get this to work so I can implement multiple client subscribers from there and work on triggers that invoke callbacks to multiple clients. CONCAT EDIT: I set a breakpoint at the DoWhile level and my var is null once Unsubscribe() is called. When Subscribe() is invoked, the watch shows a value in the var all the way through. Until I Unsubscribe() with a client. Should I be using a While Activity instead?

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  • How can I check whether Exposé is being activated or not?

    - by yangumi
    Hi, I'm creating an application that emulates MacBook's multi-touch Trackpad. As you may know, on MacBook's trackpad if you swipe 4 fingers up, it triggers the Show Desktop. if you swipe 4 fingers down, it shows the Exposé. However, if the Show Desktop is being activated and you swipe 4 fingers down, it will come back to the normal mode. The same goes with the Exposé: if the Exposé is being activated and you swipe 4 fingers up, it will also come back to the normal mode. Here is the problem: I use the keyboard shortcut F3 to show the Exposé and F11 to show the Show Desktop. The problem is, when the Show Desktop is being activated, if I press F3, it will go straight to the Exposé. And when the Exposé is being activated, if I press F11 it will go straight to the Show Desktop. But I want it to behave like Trackpad, which I guess its code may look like this - FourFingersDidSwipeUp { if (isExposeBeingActivated() || isShowDesktopBeingActivated()) { pressKey("Esc"); } else { pressKey("F11"); } } But I don't know how to implement the "isExposeBeingActivated()" and "isShowDesktopBeingActivated()" methods. I've tried creating a window and check whether its size has changed (on assumption that if the Expose is being activated, its size should be smaller), but the system always returns the same size. I tried monitoring the background processes during the Expose, but nothing happened. Does anyknow have any suggestions on this? (I'm sorry if my English sounds weird.)

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  • NSOutlineview - strange behavior after reloading data

    - by matei
    I have a NSOutlineView which loads data from a data source. The table is displayed in a panel. The items shown in the table are items which belong to an object (the relation is one-to many between the object and the items). I have a list of objects in a combo box (in fact a NSPopupButton), and when I select another object in the combo box, I want it's items to be shown in the table (the NSOutlineView). I managed to do all this , however when I select another object from the combo box, not all of it's items are displayed. I have put some logging messages in the data source and it seems that there are some items that are being returned from the data source , but are not shown in the table (and are not queried for children). Now the strange part is that when I click the main window (as I said, all that I described here is in a NSPanel loaded on top of the window) , all the data is displayed correctly. It seems as if clicking the main window triggers something in the NSOutlineView that makes it display the missing items, but I can't tell what it is.

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  • how can I add a custom non-DataTable column to my DataView, in a winforms ADO.net application?

    - by Greg
    Hi, How could I (/is it possible) to add a custom column to my DataView, and in this column display the result of a specific calculation. That is, I currently have a dataGridView which has a binding to a DataView, based on the DataTable from my database. I'd like to add an additional column to the dataGridView to display a number which is calculated by looking at this current row plus it's children row. In other words the info for the column isn't just derivable from the row data itself. Specific questions might be: a) where to add the column itself? to the DataView I assume? b) which method / event to trigger the re-calculation of the value of this custom column from ( / how do I control this) Thanks PS. I've also noted if I use the following code/approach I get a infinite loop... // Custom Items DataColumn dc = new DataColumn("OverallSize", typeof(long)); DT_Webfiles.Columns.Add(dc); DT_Webfiles.RowChanged += new DataRowChangeEventHandler(DT_Row_Changed); private static void DT_Row_Changed(object sender, DataRowChangeEventArgs e) { e.Row["OverallSize"] = e.Row["OverallSize"] ?? 0; e.Row["OverallSize"] = (long)e.Row["OverallSize"] + 1; } What other approach could avoid this looping. i.e. currently I'm saying update the value of the custom column when the row changes, however after then changing the row it triggers antoher 'row has changed' event...

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  • SQL Server - Multi-Column substring matching

    - by hamlin11
    One of my clients is hooked on multi-column substring matching. I understand that Contains and FreeText search for words (and at least in the case of Contains, word prefixes). However, based upon my understanding of this MSDN book, neither of these nor their variants are capable of searching substrings. I have used LIKE rather extensively (Select * from A where A.B Like '%substr%') Sample table A: ID | Col1 | Col2 | Col3 | ------------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma | colorado | Utah | 2 | arkansas | colorado | oklahoma | 3 | florida | michigan | florida | ------------------------------------- The following code will give us row 1 and row 2: select * from A where Col1 like '%klah%' or Col2 like '%klah%' or Col3 like '%klah%' This is rather ugly, probably slow, and I just don't like it very much. Probably because the implementations that I'm dealing with have 10+ columns that need searched. The following may be a slight improvement as code readability goes, but as far as performance, we're still in the same ball park. select * from A where (Col1 + ' ' + Col2 + ' ' + Col3) like '%klah%' I have thought about simply adding insert, update, and delete triggers that simply add the concatenated version of the above columns into a separate table that shadows this table. Sample Shadow_Table: ID | searchtext | --------------------------------- 1 | oklahoma colorado Utah | 2 | arkansas colorado oklahoma | 3 | florida michigan florida | --------------------------------- This would allow us to perform the following query to search for '%klah%' select * from Shadow_Table where searchtext like '%klah%' I really don't like having to remember that this shadow table exists and that I'm supposed to use it when I am performing multi-column substring matching, but it probably yields pretty quick reads at the expense of write and storage space. My gut feeling tells me there there is an existing solution built into SQL Server 2008. However, I don't seem to be able to find anything other than research papers on the subject. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Event OnClick ASP:LinkButton not firing with jquery overlay

    - by rolando
    Hi there, So i have this: <asp:LinkButton runat="server" id="lkbTomeChichi" class="modalInput contratacionVinculos" rel="#prueba" OnClick="PruebaBrava" >LinkPrueba</asp:LinkButton> <div id="prueba" class="simple_overlayFondoBlanco" style="margin: auto; z-index: 99;"> hola como está todo ;) </div> and i have this: <script type="text/javascript"> function pageLoad() { var triggers = $("a.modalInput").overlay({ // some expose tweaks suitable for modal dialogs expose: { color: '#333', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.3, zIndex: 99 }, top: '25%', closeOnClick: true }); } </script> as you can see i'm using a LinkButton who transforms into an 'a' tag on rendering so jquery pageLoad function can use it to show an overlay. My problem is i need the 'OnClick="PruebaBrava' to execute before the overlay shows. If i use a button instead of a LinkButton it works perfectly but i need to use the linkbutton and with it that event is not firing. What can i do? Thankyou all very much for your answers ;)

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  • Change Data Capture or Change Tracking - Same as Traditional Audit Trail Table?

    - by HardCode
    Before I delve into the abyss of Microsoft documentation any deeper, I'd like to know if someone experienced with Change Data Capture and Change Tracking know if one or both of these can be used to replace the traditional ... "Audit trail table copy of the 'real table' (all of the fields of the original table, plus date/time, user ID, and DML action field) inserted into by Triggers" ... setup for a database table audit trail, where the trigger populates the audit trail table (which is all manual work). The MSDN overview documentation explains at a high level what Change Data Capture and Change Tracking are, but it isn't clear enough to me, and doesn't state outright, that these tools can be used to replace the traditional audit trail tables we've made so often. Can someone with any experience using Change Data Capture and Change Tracking save me a lot of time, or confirm that I am spending time looking at the right tool? The critical part of our audit trail is capturing all changes to a table's fields (on INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE), when it happened, and who did it. These changes are commonly provided to an end user chronologically via an audit trail report. Which is another question ... Change Data Capture or Change Tracking is the solution, I'd assume that this data can be queried just like data from a normal table? EDIT: I need a permanent audit trail, irregardless of time. I see that Change Data Capture has to do with the transaction logs, so this sounds finite to me.

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