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  • Destroying a record via RJS TemplateError (Called ID for nil...)

    - by bgadoci
    I am trying to destroy a record in my table via RJS and having some trouble. I have successfully implemented this before so can't quite understand what is not working here. Here is the setup: I am trying to allow a user of my app to select an answer from another user as the 'winning' answer to their question. Much like StackOverflow does. I am calling this selected answer 'winner'. class Winner < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question validates_uniqueness_of :user_id, :scope => [:question_id] end I'll spare you the reverse has_many associations but I believe they are correct (I am using has_many with the validation as I might want to allow for multiple later). Also, think of site like an answer to the question. My link calling the destroy action of the WinnersController is located in the /views/winners/_winner.html.erb and has the following code: <% div_for winner do %> Selected <br/> <%=link_to_remote "Destroy", :url => winner, :method => :delete %> <% end %> This partial is being called by another partial `/views/sites/_site.html.erb and is located in this code block: <% if site.winners.blank? %> <% remote_form_for [site, Winner.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :question_id, :value => @question.id %> <%= f.hidden_field :winner, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "Select This Answer" %> Make sure you unselect any previously selected answers. <% end %> <% else %> <div id="winner_<%= site.id %>" class="votes"> <%= render :partial => site.winners%> </div> <% end %> <div id="winner_<%= site.id %>" class="votes"> </div> And the /views/sites/_site.html.erb partial is being called in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file. My WinnersController#destroy action is the following: def destroy @winner = Winner.find(params[:id]) @winner.destroy respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to Question.find(params[:post_id]) } format.js end end And my /views/winners/destroy.js.rjs code is the following: page[dom_id(@winner)].visual_effect :fade I am getting the following error and not really sure where I am going wrong: Processing WinnersController#destroy (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-30 16:05:48) [DELETE] Parameters: {"authenticity_token"=>"nn1Wwr2PZiS2jLgCZQDLidkntwbGzayEoHWwR087AfE=", "id"=>"24", "_"=>""} Rendering winners/destroy ActionView::TemplateError (Called id for nil, which would mistakenly be 4 -- if you really wanted the id of nil, use object_id) on line #1 of app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs: 1: page[dom_id(@winner)].visual_effect :fade app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs:1:in `_run_rjs_app47views47winners47destroy46js46rjs' app/views/winners/destroy.js.rjs:1:in `_run_rjs_app47views47winners47destroy46js46rjs' Rendered rescues/_trace (137.1ms) Rendered rescues/_request_and_response (0.3ms) Rendering rescues/layout (internal_server_error)

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  • MVC design in Cocoa - are all 3 always necessary? Also: naming conventions, where to put Controller

    - by Nektarios
    I'm new to MVC although I've read a lot of papers and information on the web. I know it's somewhat ambiguous and there are many different interpretations of MVC patterns.. but the differences seem somewhat minimal My main question is - are M, V, and C always going to be necessary to be doing this right? I haven't seen anyone address this in anything I've read. Examples (I'm working in Cocoa/Obj-c although that shouldn't much matter).. 1) If I have a simple image on my GUI, or a text entry field that is just for a user's convenience and isn't saved or modified, these both would be V (view) but there's no M (no data and no domain processing going on), and no C to bridge them. So I just have some aspects that are "V" - seems fine 2) I have 2 different and visible windows that each have a button on them labeled as "ACTIVATE FOO" - when a user clicks the button on either, both buttons press in and change to say "DEACTIVATE FOO" and a third window appears with label "FOO". Clicking the button again will change the button on both windows to "ACTIVATE FOO" and will remove the third "FOO" window. In this case, my V consists of the buttons on both windows, and I guess also the third window (maybe all 3 windows). I definitely have a C, my Controller object will know about these buttons and windows and will get their clicks and hold generic states regarding windows and buttons. However, whether I have 1 button or 10 button, my window is called "FOO" or my window is called "BAR", this doesn't matter. There's no domain knowledge or data here - just control of views. So in this example, I really have "V" and "C" but no "M" - is that ok? 3) Final example, which I am running in to the most. I have a text entry field as my View. When I enter text in this, say a number representing gravity, I keep it in a Model that may do things like compute physics of a ball while taking in to account my gravity parameter. Here I have a V and an M, but I don't understand why I would need to add a C - a controller would just accept the signals from the View and pass it along to the Model, and vice versa. Being as the C is just a pure passthrough, it's really "junk" code and isn't making things any more reusable in my opinion. In most situations, when something changes I will need to change the C and M both in nearly identical ways. I realize it's probably an MVC beginner's mistake to think most situations call for only V and M.. leads me in to next subject 4) In Cocoa / Xcode / IB, I guess my Controllers should always be an instantiated object in IB? That is, I lay all of my "V" components in IB, and for each collection of View objects (things that are related) I should have an instantiated Controller? And then perhaps my Models should NOT be found in IB, and instead only found as classes in Xcode that tie in with Controller code found there. Is this accurate? This could explain why you'd have a Controller that is not really adding value - because you are keeping consistent.. 5) What about naming these things - for my above example about FOO / BAR maybe something that ends in Controller would be the C, like FancyWindowOpeningController, etc? And for models - should I suffix them with like GravityBallPhysicsModel etc, or should I just name those whatever I like? I haven't seen enough code to know what's out there in the wild and I want to get on the right track early on Thank you in advance for setting me straight or letting me know I'm on the right track. I feel like I'm starting to get it and most of what I say here makes sense, but validation of my guessing would help me feel confident..

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  • Jetty: Stopping programatically causes "1 threads could not be stopped"

    - by Ondra Žižka
    Hi, I have an embedded Jetty 6.1.26 instance. I want to shut it down by HTTP GET sent to /shutdown. So I created a JettyShutdownServlet: @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws ServletException, IOException { resp.setStatus(202, "Shutting down."); resp.setContentType("text/plain"); ServletOutputStream os = resp.getOutputStream(); os.println("Shutting down."); os.close(); resp.flushBuffer(); // Stop the server. try { log.info("Shutting down the server..."); server.stop(); } catch (Exception ex) { log.error("Error when stopping Jetty server: "+ex.getMessage(), ex); } However, when I send the request, Jetty does not stop - a thread keeps hanging in org.mortbay.thread.QueuedThreadPool on the line with this.wait(): // We are idle // wait for a dispatched job synchronized (this) { if (_job==null) this.wait(getMaxIdleTimeMs()); job=_job; _job=null; } ... 2011-01-10 20:14:20,375 INFO org.mortbay.log jetty-6.1.26 2011-01-10 20:14:34,756 INFO org.mortbay.log Started [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.jboss.qa.mavenhoe.MavenHoeApp Shutting down the server... 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.Context@1672bbb{/,null} 2011-01-10 20:25:40,006 INFO org.mortbay.log Graceful shutdown org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext@18d30fb{/jsp,file:/home/ondra/work/Mavenhoe/trunk/target/classes/org/jboss/qa/mavenhoe/web/jsp} 2011-01-10 20:25:43,007 INFO org.mortbay.log Stopped [email protected]:17283 2011-01-10 20:25:43,009 WARN org.mortbay.log 1 threads could not be stopped 2011-01-10 20:26:43,010 INFO org.mortbay.log Shutdown hook executing 2011-01-10 20:26:43,011 INFO org.mortbay.log Shutdown hook complete It blocks for exactly one minute, then shuts down. I've added the Graceful shutdown, which should allow me to shut the server down from a servlet; However, it does not work as you can see from the log. I've solved it this way: Server server = new Server( PORT ); server.setGracefulShutdown( 3000 ); server.setStopAtShutdown(true); ... server.start(); if( server.getThreadPool() instanceof QueuedThreadPool ){ ((QueuedThreadPool) server.getThreadPool()).setMaxIdleTimeMs( 2000 ); } setMaxIdleTimeMs() needs to be called after the start(), becase the threadPool is created in start(). However, the threads are already created and waiting, so it only applies after all threads are used at least once. I don't know what else to do except some awfulness like interrupting all threads or System.exit(). Any ideas? Is there a good way? Thanks, Ondra

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  • Is it safe to assert a functions return type?

    - by wb
    This question is related to this question. I have several models stored in a collection. I loop through the collection and validate each field. Based on the input, a field can either be successful, have an error or a warning. Is it safe to unit test each decorator and assert that the type of object returned is what you would expect based on the given input? I could perhaps see this being an issue for a language with function return types since my validation function can return one of 3 types. This is the code I'm fiddling with: <!-- #include file = "../lib/Collection.asp" --> <style type="text/css"> td { padding: 4px; } td.error { background: #F00F00; } td.warning { background: #FC0; } </style> <% Class UserModel Private m_Name Private m_Age Private m_Height Public Property Let Name(value) m_Name = value End Property Public Property Get Name() Name = m_Name End Property Public Property Let Age(value) m_Age = value End Property Public Property Get Age() Age = m_Age End Property Public Property Let Height(value) m_Height = value End Property Public Property Get Height() Height = m_Height End Property End Class Class NameValidation Private m_Name Public Function Init(name) m_Name = name End Function Public Function Validate() Dim validationObject If Len(m_Name) < 5 Then Set validationObject = New ValidationError Else Set validationObject = New ValidationSuccess End If validationObject.CellValue = m_Name Set Validate = validationObject End Function End Class Class AgeValidation Private m_Age Public Function Init(age) m_Age = age End Function Public Function Validate() Dim validationObject If m_Age < 18 Then Set validationObject = New ValidationError ElseIf m_Age = 18 Then Set validationObject = New ValidationWarning Else Set validationObject = New ValidationSuccess End If validationObject.CellValue = m_Age Set Validate = validationObject End Function End Class Class HeightValidation Private m_Height Public Function Init(height) m_Height = height End Function Public Function Validate() Dim validationObject If m_Height > 400 Then Set validationObject = New ValidationError ElseIf m_Height = 324 Then Set validationObject = New ValidationWarning Else Set validationObject = New ValidationSuccess End If validationObject.CellValue = m_Height Set Validate = validationObject End Function End Class Class ValidationError Private m_CSSClass Private m_CellValue Public Property Get CSSClass() CSSClass = "error" End Property Public Property Let CellValue(value) m_CellValue = value End Property Public Property Get CellValue() CellValue = m_CellValue End Property End Class Class ValidationWarning Private m_CSSClass Private m_CellValue Public Property Get CSSClass() CSSClass = "warning" End Property Public Property Let CellValue(value) m_CellValue = value End Property Public Property Get CellValue() CellValue = m_CellValue End Property End Class Class ValidationSuccess Private m_CSSClass Private m_CellValue Public Property Get CSSClass() CSSClass = "" End Property Public Property Let CellValue(value) m_CellValue = value End Property Public Property Get CellValue() CellValue = m_CellValue End Property End Class Class ModelValidator Public Function ValidateModel(model) Dim modelValidation : Set modelValidation = New CollectionClass ' Validate name Dim name : Set name = New NameValidation name.Init model.Name modelValidation.Add name ' Validate age Dim age : Set age = New AgeValidation age.Init model.Age modelValidation.Add age ' Validate height Dim height : Set height = New HeightValidation height.Init model.Height modelValidation.Add height Dim validatedProperties : Set validatedProperties = New CollectionClass Dim modelVal For Each modelVal In modelValidation.Items() validatedProperties.Add modelVal.Validate() Next Set ValidateModel = validatedProperties End Function End Class Dim modelCollection : Set modelCollection = New CollectionClass Dim user1 : Set user1 = New UserModel user1.Name = "Mike" user1.Age = 12 user1.Height = 32 modelCollection.Add user1 Dim user2 : Set user2 = New UserModel user2.Name = "Phil" user2.Age = 18 user2.Height = 432 modelCollection.Add user2 Dim user3 : Set user3 = New UserModel user3.Name = "Michele" user3.Age = 32 user3.Height = 324 modelCollection.Add user3 ' Validate all models in the collection Dim modelValue Dim validatedModels : Set validatedModels = New CollectionClass For Each modelValue In modelCollection.Items() Dim objModelValidator : Set objModelValidator = New ModelValidator validatedModels.Add objModelValidator.ValidateModel(modelValue) Next %> <table> <tr> <td>Name</td> <td>Age</td> <td>Height</td> </tr> <% Dim r, c For Each r In validatedModels.Items() %><tr><% For Each c In r.Items() %><td class="<%= c.CSSClass %>"><%= c.CellValue %></td><% Next %></tr><% Next %> </table> Thank you.

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  • How to design a data model that deals with (real) contracts?

    - by Geoffrey
    I was looking for some advice on designing a data model for contract administration. The general life cycle of a contract is thus: Contract is created and in a "draft" state. It is viewable internally and changes may be made. Contract goes out to vendor, status is set to "pending" Contract is rejected by vendor. At this state, nothing can be done to the contract. No statuses may be added to the collection. Contract is accepted by vendor. At this state, nothing can be done to the contract. No statuses may be added to the collection. I obviously want to avoid a situation where the contract is accepted and, say, the amount is changed. Here are my classes: [EnforceNoChangesAfterDraftState] public class VendorContract { public virtual Vendor Vendor { get; set; } public virtual decimal Amount { get; set; } public virtual VendorContact VendorContact { get; set; } public virtual string CreatedBy { get; set; } public virtual DateTime CreatedOn { get; set; } public virtual FileStore Contract { get; set; } public virtual IList<VendorContractStatus> ContractStatus { get; set; } } [EnforceCorrectWorkflow] public class VendorContractStatus { public virtual VendorContract VendorContract { get; set; } public virtual FileStore ExecutedDocument { get; set; } public virtual string Status { get; set; } public virtual string Reason { get; set; } public virtual string CreatedBy { get; set; } public virtual DateTime CreatedOn { get; set; } } I've omitted the filestore class, which is basically a key/value lookup to find the document based on its guid. The VendorContractStatus is mapped as a many-to-one in Nhibernate. I then use a custom validator as described here. If anything but draft is returned in the VendorContractStatus collection, no changes are allowed. Furthermore the VendorContractStatus must follow the correct workflow (you can add a rejected after a pending, but you can't add anything else to the collection if a reject or accepted exists, etc.). All sounds alright? Well a colleague has argued that we should simply add an "IsDraft" bool property to VendorContract and not accept updates if IsDraft is false. Then we should setup a method inside of VendorContractStatus for updating the status, if something gets added after a draft, it sets the IsDraft property of VendorContract to false. I do not like this as it feels like I'm dirtying up the POCOs and adding logic that should persist in the validation area, that no rules should really exist in these classes and they shouldn't be aware of their states. Any thoughts on this and what is the better practice from a DDD perspective? From my view, if in the future we want more complex rules, my way will be more maintainable over the long run. Say we have contracts over a certain amount to be approved by a manager. I would think it would be better to have a one-to-one mapping with a VendorContractApproval class, rather than adding IsApproved properties, but that's just speculation. This might be splitting hairs, but this is the first real gritty enterprise software project we've done. Any advice would be appreciated!

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  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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  • MSSQL 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but MS SQL does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • Do You Really Know Your Programming Languages?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I am often amazed at how little some of my colleagues know or care about their craft. Something that constantly frustrates me is that people don't want to learn any more than they need to about the programming languages they use every day. Many programmers seem content to learn some pidgin sub-dialect, and stick with that. If they see a keyword or construct that they aren't familiar with, they'll complain that the code is "tricky." What would you think of a civil engineer who shied away from calculus because it had "all those tricky math symbols?" I'm not suggesting that we all need to become "language lawyers." But if you make your living as a programmer, and claim to be a competent user of language X, then I think at a minimum you should know the following: Do you know the keywords of the language and what they do? What are the valid syntactic forms? How are memory, files, and other operating system resources managed? Where is the official language specification and library reference for the language? The last one is the one that really gets me. Many programmers seem to have no idea that there is a "specification" or "standard" for any particular language. I still talk to people who think that Microsoft invented C++, and that if a program doesn't compile under VC6, it's not a valid C++ program. Programmers these days have it easy when it comes to obtaining specs. Newer languages like C#, Java, Python, Ruby, etc. all have their documentation available for free from the vendors' web sites. Older languages and platforms often have standards controlled by standards bodies that demand payment for specs, but even that shouldn't be a deterrent: the C++ standard is available from ISO for $30 (and why am I the only person I know who has a copy?). Programming is hard enough even when you do know the language. If you don't, I don't see how you have a chance. What do the rest of you think? Am I right, or should we all be content with the typical level of programming language expertise? Update: Several great comments here. Thanks. A couple of people hit on something that I didn't think about: What really irks me is not the lack of knowledge, but the lack of curiosity and willingness to learn. It seems some people don't have any time to hone their craft, but they have plenty of time to write lots of bad code. And I don't expect people to be able to recite a list of keywords or EBNF expressions, but I do expect that when they see some code, they should have some inkling of what it does. Few people have complete knowledge of every dark corner of their language or platform, but everyone should at least know enough that when they see something unfamiliar, they will know how to get whatever additional information they need to understand it.

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  • Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed"

    - by aron
    My site was working fine with PayPal's sandbox, and then all of a sudden it stopped. Now I get the wonderful error Sandbox "Sorry — your last action could not be completed" This is my HTML: <body onload="document.Paypal.submit();"> <!-- item_number should get passed back --> <form name="Paypal" method="post" action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com cgi-bin/webscr" id="Paypal"> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__VIEWSTATE" id="__VIEWSTATE" value="/wEPDwUKLTkyNTEyNzc0NGRk0LKGvSMTla6LgHpbOsdk7iC0iXE=" /> </div> <div> <input type="hidden" name="__EVENTVALIDATION" id="__EVENTVALIDATION" value="/wEWCALKhatPArLPtrsEAreImG4CweeH+AkCgMPhowcC+NaM4gQC+Y2VqwoCouzSnwEVXI9UvQxqI2UcdQ4SmcSWqfEZNw==" /> </div> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_cart" /> <input type="hidden" name="upload" value="1" /> <!-- The following is for itemized PayPal data instead of the aggregated version --> <input type="hidden" name="item_name_1" value="LEADING SKILLS 4/10/2012 6:00 PM Section: Members " /> <input type="hidden" name="amount_1" value="250.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="quantity_1" value="2" /> <input type="hidden" name="handling_cart" value="7.00" /> <input type="hidden" name="tax_cart" value="35.00" /> <!-- STANDARD DATA --> <input name="business" type="hidden" id="business" value="[email protected]" /> <input name="invoice" type="hidden" id="invoice" value="TS-1E8B59A0-B" /> <input type="hidden" name="no_note" value="0" /> <input name="currency_code" type="hidden" id="currency_code" value="USD" /> <input name="shipCountry" type="hidden" id="shipCountry" /> <input type="hidden" name="return" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/paypal/Complete.aspx?id=db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="cancel_returnUrl" type="hidden" id="cancel_returnUrl" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/ShoppingCart.aspx" /> <input type="hidden" name="cn" value="How did you hear about us?" /> <input name="custom" type="hidden" id="custom" value="db86c0bf-beb8-4e37-b495-bed1d3e7e6f3" /> <input name="notify_url" type="hidden" id="notify_url" value="http://rockclimbing.venueblue.com/Gateway/Paypal/IPN.aspx" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit Payment Info" style="display:none;" /> Processing Order.... </form> </body> Anyone have a clue what happened?

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  • Xcode + Perforce: it frequently shows me the spinning wheel for no reason! What can i do?

    - by GamingHorror
    While working on an Xcode project i keep getting the spinning wheel while switching files, scrolling, searching, typing, debugging, removing breakpoints, switching back from another app or saving. It also happens before compiling but usually it just happens from time to time for no apparent reason. This is the second time this started happening in a Xcode project and it's driving me nuts. It completely breaks my flow of work to have to wait for the spinning wheel to go away (2-5 seconds). What on earth could i possibly do to ... figure out what's causing the problem? resolve the problem? More details: When any project is small, everything is super-smooth with Xcode and Perforce. Two of my projects eventually had this spinning wheel problem after about 4 weeks of work. It only happened with those two projects so far. They consist of around 1000-1200 files in source control, most of them assets. The problem occurs even if i manually check out the whole project in Perforce. The problem is gone when i copy the project directory and work in the copy which is no longer under source control, or if i create a branch in Perforce and work in the branch (under source control). One of these projects i shared with a colleague, and he had exactly the same issues on his Mac. We eventually switched to Subversion and the spinning-wheel issue immediately went away. Now that i've received an updated copy of the project and simply put it under Perforce as a new project, the problem also went away (so far it did not resurface). It leads me to think that it may be caused by a larger number of file revisions. The server itself (version 2009.1) is on a different (Windows) machine on my LAN, so there's definetely no Internet lag involved. The complete repository is just 1 GB in size spread over a dozen projects or so. I'm sorry if the question seems more like a support inquiry for Perforce. However i'm using the free version of Perforce so i'm not entitled to get support from them. I hope no one minds me asking here. I'm really bummed out by this. I don't want to have to create a new branch for the project each time the spinning wheel problem surfaces.

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  • Binding Entity Framework Collections Simply Using ASP.NET MVC

    - by jpcmorton
    To begin with: Using Entity Framework v4.0. ASP.NET MVC 2.0. Visual Studio 2010. I have a model that consists simply of an order & order items. What I want to do is simply bind that model without too much hassle where possible (avoiding type converters, etc). Simply the model looks like this: public class Order { public int ID { get; set; } public string OrderNumber { get; set; } public EntityCollection<OrderItem> Items { get; set; } } public class OrderItem { public int ID { get; set; } public string Qty { get; set; } } This is as simple as I want to keep it. This model is coming directly from the code generated by the entity framework generator. I would prefer to use the model directly from the entity framework (I know there are views saying this is a bad thing, but alas). I then have the View looking like this: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%: Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.ID) %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.ID) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.OrderNumber) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.OrderNumber)%> </div> <div id="lineItems"> Where I need to put my line items to be edited, inserted </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> What I want to do is have a situation where I can use dynamic line items (using javascript). Problems are this: How to go about inserting the initial line item (within the lineItems div). This need to be strongly typed and use the built in validation framework of MVC. Best way to go about inserting line items dynamically so that on the postback there is a complete bind to the model without too much messing around (id = 1,2,3,4, etc). Any help, examples, tips, etc would be appreciated.

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  • Makefile issue with compiling a C++ program

    - by Steve
    I recently got MySQL compiled and working on Cygwin, and got a simple test example from online to verify that it worked. The test example compiled and ran successfully. However, when incorporating MySQL in a hobby project of mine it isn't compiling which I believe is due to how the Makefile is setup, I have no experience with Makefiles and after reading tutorials about them, I have a better grasp but still can't get it working correctly. When I try and compile my hobby project I recieve errors such as: Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x492): undefined reference to `_mysql_insert_id' Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x4c1): undefined reference to `_mysql_affected_rows' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[1]: *** [build] Error 1 make: *** [all] Error 2 Here is my Makefile, it worked with compiling and building the source before I attempted to put in MySQL support into the project. The LIBMYSQL paths are correct, verified by 'mysql_config'. COMPILER = g++ WARNING1 = -Wall -Werror -Wformat-security -Winline -Wshadow -Wpointer-arith WARNING2 = -Wcast-align -Wcast-qual -Wredundant-decls LIBMYSQL = -I/usr/local/include/mysql -L/usr/local/lib/mysql -lmysqlclient DEBUGGER = -g3 OPTIMISE = -O C_FLAGS = $(OPTIMISE) $(DEBUGGER) $(WARNING1) $(WARNING2) -export-dynamic $(LIBMYSQL) L_FLAGS = -lz -lm -lpthread -lcrypt $(LIBMYSQL) OBJ_DIR = Obj/ SRC_DIR = Source/ MUD_EXE = project MUD_DIR = TestP/ LOG_DIR = $(MUD_DIR)Files/Logs/ ECHOCMD = echo -e L_GREEN = \e[1;32m L_WHITE = \e[1;37m L_BLUE = \e[1;34m L_RED = \e[1;31m L_NRM = \e[0;00m DATE = `date +%d-%m-%Y` FILES = $(wildcard $(SRC_DIR)*.cpp) C_FILES = $(sort $(FILES)) O_FILES = $(patsubst $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp, $(OBJ_DIR)%.o, $(C_FILES)) all: @$(ECHOCMD) " Compiling $(L_RED)$(MUD_EXE)$(L_NRM)."; @$(MAKE) -s build build: $(O_FILES) @rm -f $(MUD_EXE) $(COMPILER) -o $(MUD_EXE) $(L_FLAGS) $(O_FILES) @echo " Finished Compiling $(MUD_EXE)."; @chmod g+w $(MUD_EXE) @chmod a+x $(MUD_EXE) @chmod g+w $(O_FILES) $(OBJ_DIR)%.o: $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp @echo " Compiling $@"; $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< -o $@ .cpp.o: $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< clean: @echo " Complete compile on $(MUD_EXE)."; @rm -f $(OBJ_DIR)*.o $(MUD_EXE) @$(MAKE) -s build I like the functionality of the Makefile, instead of spitting out all the arguments etc, it just spits out the "Compiling [Filename]" etc. If I add -c to the L_FLAGS then it compiles (I think) but instead spits out stuff like: g++: Obj/Database.o: linker input file unused because linking not done After a full day of trying and research on google, I'm no closer to solving my problem, so I come to you guys to see if you can explain to me why all this is happening and if possible, steps to solve. Regards, Steve

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  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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  • Is this postgres function cost efficient or still have to clean

    - by kiranking
    There are two tables in postgres db. english_all and english_glob First table contains words like international,confidential,booting,cooler ...etc I have written the function to get the words from english_all then perform for loop for each word to get word list which are not inserted in anglish_glob table. Word list is like I In Int Inte Inter .. b bo boo boot .. c co coo cool etc.. for some reason zwnj(zero-width non-joiner) is added during insertion to english_all table. But in function I am removing that character with regexp_replace. Postgres function for_loop_test is taking two parameter min and max based on that I am selecting words from english_all table. function code is like DECLARE inMinLength ALIAS FOR $1; inMaxLength ALIAS FOR $2; mviews RECORD; outenglishListRow english_word_list;--custom data type eng_id,english_text BEGIN FOR mviews IN SELECT id,english_all_text FROM english_all where wlength between inMinLength and inMaxLength ORDER BY english_all_text limit 30 LOOP FOR i IN 1..char_length(regexp_replace(mviews.english_all_text,'(?)$','')) LOOP FOR outenglishListRow IN SELECT distinct on (regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','')) mviews.id, regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') where regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') not in(select english_glob.english_text from english_glob where i=english_glob.wlength) order by regexp_replace((substring(mviews.english_all_text from 1 for i)),'(?)$','') LOOP RETURN NEXT outenglishListRow; END LOOP; END LOOP; END LOOP; END; Once I get the word list I will insert that into another table english_glob. My question is is there any thing I can add to or remove from function to make it more efficient. edit Let assume english_all table have words like footer,settle,question,overflow,database,kingdom If inMinLength = 5 and inmaxLength=7 then in the outer loop footer,settle,kingdom will be selected. For above 3 words inner two loop will apply to get words like f,fo,foo,foot,foote,footer,s,se,set,sett,settl .... etc. In the final process words which are bold will be entered into english_glob with another parameter like 1 to denote it is a proper word and stored in the another filed of english_glob table. Remaining word will be stored with another parameter 0 because in the next call words which are saved in database should not be fetched again. edit2: This is a complete code CREATE TABLE english_all ( id serial NOT NULL, english_all_text text NOT NULL, wlength integer NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT english_all PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_all_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_all_text) ) CREATE TABLE english_glob ( id serial NOT NULL, english_text text NOT NULL, is_prop integer default 1, CONSTRAINT english_glob PRIMARY KEY (id), CONSTRAINT english_glob_kan_text_uq_id UNIQUE (english_text) ) insert into english_all(english_text) values ('ant'),('forget'),('forgive'); on function call with parameter 3 and 6 fallowing rows should fetched a an ant f fo for forg forge forget next is insert to another table based on above row insert into english_glob(english_text,is_prop) values ('a',1),('an',1), ('ant',1),('f',0), ('fo',0),('for',1), ('forg',0),('forge',1), ('forget',1), on function call next time with parameter 3 and 7 fallowing rows should fetched.(because f,fo,for,forg are all entered in english_glob table) forgi forgiv forgive

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  • HTTP Post requests using HttpClient take 2 seconds, why?

    - by pableu
    Update: You might better hold off this for a bit, I just noticed I could be my fault after all. Working on this all afternoon, and then I find a flaw ten minutes after posting here, ts. Hi, I'am currently coding an android app that submits stuff in the background using HTTP Post and AsyncTask. I use the org.apache.http.client Package for this. I based my code on this example. Basically, my code looks like this: public void postData() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost httppost = new HttpPost("http://192.168.1.137:8880/form"); try { List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("id", "12345")); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("stringdata", "AndDev is Cool!")); httppost.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); // Execute HTTP Post Request HttpResponse response = httpclient.execute(httppost); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { Log.e(TAG,e.toString()); } } The problem is that the httpclient.execute(..) line takes around 1.5 to 3 seconds, and I do not understand why. Just requesting a page with HTTP Get takes around 80 ms or so, so the problem doesn't seem to be the network latency itself. The problem doesn't seem to be on the server side either, I have also tried POSTing data to http://www.disney.com/ with similarly slow results. And Firebug shows 1 ms response time when POSTing data to my server locally. This happens on the Emulator and with my Nexus One (both with Android 2.2). If you want to look at the complete code, I've put it on GitHub. It's just a dummy program to do HTTP Post in the background using AsyncTask on the push of a button. It's my first Android app, and my first java code for a long time. And incidentially, also my first question on Stackoverflow ;-) Any ideas why httpclient.execute(httppost) takes so long?

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  • jQuery Form plugin - no data from file upload?

    - by pojo
    I've been struggling a bit with the jQuery Form plugin. I want to create a file upload form that posts the data (JSON, from the chosen file) into a REST service exposed by a servlet. The URL for the POST is calculated from what the user chooses in a SELECT dropdown. When the upload is complete, I want to notify the user immediately, AJAX-style. The problem is that the POST header has a Content-Length of 0 and contains no data. I would appreciate any help! <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js">/* ppp */</script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.form.js">/* ppp */</script> <script type="text/javascript"> function cb_beforesubmit (arr, $form, options) { // This should override the form's action attribute options.url = "/rest/services/" + $('#selectedaction')[0].value; return true; } function cb_success (rt, st, xhr, wf) { $('#response').html(rt + '<br>' + st + '<br>' + xhr); } $(document).ready(function () { var options = { beforeSubmit: cb_beforesubmit, success: cb_success, dataType: 'json', contentType: 'application/json', method: 'POST', }; $('#myform').ajaxForm(options); $.getJSON('/rest/services', function (data, ts) { for (var property in data) { if (typeof property == 'string') { $('#selectedaction').append('<option>' + property + '</option>'); } } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="myform" action="/rest/services/foo1" method="POST" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <!-- The form does not seem to submit at all if I don't set action to a default value? !--> <select id="selectedaction"> <script type="text/javascript"> </script> </select> <input type="file" value="Choose"/> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> <div id="response"> </div> </body> </html>

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  • embed a jquery script after jquery is loaded by widget

    - by matthew k
    http://stackoverflow.com/a/6065421 was helpful to see how to confirm jquery has been loaded. my widget will need a class that was written using jquery. may i have some assistance on embedding this other class built using jquery? thank you, below is the snippet from the above link with my code added in the final portion as noted in the code comments: (function(window, document, version, callback) { var j, d; var loaded = false; if (!(j = window.jQuery) || version > j.fn.jquery || callback(j, loaded)) { var script = document.createElement("script"); script.type = "text/javascript"; script.src = "/media/jquery.js"; script.onload = script.onreadystatechange = function() { if (!loaded && (!(d = this.readyState) || d == "loaded" || d == "complete")) { callback((j = window.jQuery).noConflict(1), loaded = true); j(script).remove(); } }; document.documentElement.childNodes[0].appendChild(script) } })(window, document, "1.3", function($, jquery_loaded) { //my code added below var script_tag = document.createElement('script'); script_tag.setAttribute("type","text/javascript"); script_tag.setAttribute("src", "http://mysite.com/widget/slides.jquery.js"); (document.getElementsByTagName("head")[0] || document.documentElement).appendChild(script_tag); $('#slides').slides({}); //this line gives an error. }); right now, i am trying the following based on the response(s) provided to this question (line that throws error is noted with a comment): //this function is called after jquery being embedded has been confirmed. {mysite} placeholder is nonexistent in actual code. function main() { jQuery(document).ready(function($) { var css_link = $("<link>", { rel: "stylesheet", type: "text/css", href: "http://mysite/widget/widget.css" }); css_link.appendTo('head'); $('#crf_widget').after('<div id="crf_widget_container"></div>'); /******* Load HTML *******/ var jsonp_url = "http://mysite/widget.php?callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonp_url, function(data) { $('#crf_widget_container').html(data); $('#category_sel').change(function(){ alert(this.value); }); $.getScript("http://mysite/widget/slides.jquery.js", function(data, textStatus, jqxhr) { alert(1); //fires ok $('#slides').slides({}); //errors }); }); }); }

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  • XML pass values to timer, AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    My timer has three variables that I can trace to the output window, but don't know how to pass them to the timer. How to I pass the XML values to my timer? Purpose I want to test with an XML document, before I try connecting it to an XML socket. myXML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> <COUNT TITLE="starting position">-77777</COUNT> <FCOUNT TITLE="ramp">1000</FCOUNT> </SESSION> myFlash //myTimer 'instance of mytext on stage' /* fields I want to change with XML */ //CHANGE TO 100 var timer:Timer = new Timer(10); //CHANGE TO -77777 var count:int = 0; //CHANGE TO 1000 var fcount:int = 0; timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, incrementCounter); timer.start(); function incrementCounter(event:TimerEvent) { count++; fcount=int(count*count/1000);//starts out slow... then speeds up mytext.text = formatCount(fcount); } function formatCount(i:int):String { var fraction:int = i % 100; var whole:int = i / 100; return ("0000000" + whole).substr(-7, 7) + "." + (fraction < 10 ? "0" + fraction : fraction); } //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(myXML.ROGUE.*); trace(myXML); //TEXT var text:TextField = new TextField(); text.text = myXML.TIMER.*; text.textColor = 0xFF0000; addChild(text); } RESOURCES OReilly's ActionScript 3.0 Cookbook, Chapter 12 Strings, Chapter 20 XML

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  • Creating multiple heads in remote repository

    - by Jab
    We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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  • Thoughts on streamlining multiple .Net apps

    - by John Virgolino
    We have a series of ASP.Net applications that have been written over the course of 8 years. Mostly in the first 3-4 years. They have been running quite well with little maintenance, but new functionality is being requested and we are running into IDE and platform issues. The apps were written in .Net 1.x and 2.x and run in separate spaces but are presented as a single suite of applications which use a common navigation toolbar (implemented as a user control). Every time we want to add something to a menu in the nav we have to modify it in all the apps which is a pain. Also, the various versions of Crystal reports and that we used tables to organize the visual elements and we end up with a mess, especially with all the multi-platform .Net versions running. We need to streamline the suite of apps and make it easier to add on new apps without a hassle. We also need to bring all these apps under one .Net platform and IDE. In addition, there is a WordPress blog styled to match the style of the application suite "integrated" into the UI and a link to a MediaWiki Wiki application as well. My current thinking is to use an open source content management system (CMS) like Joomla (PHP based unfortunately, but it works well) as the user interface framework for style templating and menu management. Joomla's article management would allow us to migrate the Wiki content into articles which could be published without interfering with the .Net apps. Then essentially use an IFrame within an "article" to "host" the .Net application, then... Upgrade the .Net apps to VS2010, strip out all the common header/footer controls and migrate the styles to use the style sheets used in the CMS. As I write this, I certainly realize this is a lot of work and there are optimization issues which this may cause as well as using IFrames seems a bit like cheating and I've read about issues with IFrames. I know that we could use .Net application styling, but it seems like a lot more work (not sure really). Also, the use of a CMS to handle the blog and wiki also seems appealing, unless there is a .Net CMS out there that can handle all of these requirements. Given this information, I am looking to know if I am totally going in the wrong direction? We tried to use open source and integrate it over time, but not this has become hard to maintain. Am I not aware of some technology out there that will meet our requirements? Did we do this right and should we just focus on getting the .Net streamlined? I understand that no matter what we do, it's going to be a lot of work. The communities considerable experience would be helpful. Thanks!! PS - A complete rewrite is not an option.

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  • JSF2 - Problems with Composite Components and Validatiors

    - by Shadowman
    I've created some Facelets to make developing our pages easier. Particularly, I've created a series of Facelets for input components. I have 1 Facelet, <xxx:input /> that displays a label around the input field. Beyond that, I have Facelets like <xxx:inputText /> and <xxx:inputSecret /> that render the actual input field. Each of these makes use of <xxx:input /> to display the label. The Facelet looks something like this: <html ...> <composite:interface> ... </composite:interface> <composite:implementation> <label><h:outputText value="#{cc.attrs.labelText}" /></label> <composite:insertChildren /> </composite:implementation> </html> The <xxx:inputText /> Facelet would then look like this... <html ...> <composite:interface> ... </composite:interface> <composite:implementation> <xxx:input labelText=...> <h:inputText id="myinput" ... /> </xxx:input> </composite:implementation> </html> Everything renders just fine, but I am having troubles when trying to add <f:validator /> or other validation tags. From what I've read, I have to add a tag to my Facelet. So, I added <composite:editableValueHolder name="myinput" targets="myinput" /> line in the interface section. However, I still do not see my validator being fired. I have something like this in my .xhtml file... ... <xxx:inputText value="..."> <f:validateLength minimum="10" /> </xxx:inputText> ... Regardless of the input I enter, the validator never seems to fire and I never get an error message. A coworker suggested that it is due to the target ID I am using and the fact that it is wrapped by the <xxx:input /> Facelet. Do I need to incorporate the parent component ID in my target definition? Is there something else that I'm missing? It works just fine if I exclude the <xxx:input /> Facelet, so I'm assuming it's something related to that, but don't know how to solve it. Any help you can provide is GREATLY appreciated.

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  • Can I avoid a threaded UDP socket in Python dropping data?

    - by 666craig
    First off, I'm new to Python and learning on the job, so be gentle! I'm trying to write a threaded Python app for Windows that reads data from a UDP socket (thread-1), writes it to file (thread-2), and displays the live data (thread-3) to a widget (gtk.Image using a gtk.gdk.pixbuf). I'm using queues for communicating data between threads. My problem is that if I start only threads 1 and 3 (so skip the file writing for now), it seems that I lose some data after the first few samples. After this drop it looks fine. Even by letting thread 1 complete before running thread 3, this apparent drop is still there. Apologies for the length of code snippet (I've removed the thread that writes to file), but I felt removing code would just prompt questions. Hope someone can shed some light :-) import socket import threading import Queue import numpy import gtk gtk.gdk.threads_init() import gtk.glade import pygtk class readFromUDPSocket(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, socketUDP, readDataQueue, packetSize, numScans): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.socketUDP = socketUDP self.readDataQueue = readDataQueue self.packetSize = packetSize self.numScans = numScans def run(self): for scan in range(1, self.numScans + 1): buffer = self.socketUDP.recv(self.packetSize) self.readDataQueue.put(buffer) self.socketUDP.close() print 'myServer finished!' class displayWithGTK(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, displayDataQueue, image, viewArea): threading.Thread.__init__(self) self.displayDataQueue = displayDataQueue self.image = image self.viewWidth = viewArea[0] self.viewHeight = viewArea[1] self.displayData = numpy.zeros((self.viewHeight, self.viewWidth, 3), dtype=numpy.uint16) def run(self): scan = 0 try: while True: if not scan % self.viewWidth: scan = 0 buffer = self.displayDataQueue.get(timeout=0.1) self.displayData[:, scan, 0] = numpy.fromstring(buffer, dtype=numpy.uint16) self.displayData[:, scan, 1] = numpy.fromstring(buffer, dtype=numpy.uint16) self.displayData[:, scan, 2] = numpy.fromstring(buffer, dtype=numpy.uint16) gtk.gdk.threads_enter() self.myPixbuf = gtk.gdk.pixbuf_new_from_data(self.displayData.tostring(), gtk.gdk.COLORSPACE_RGB, False, 8, self.viewWidth, self.viewHeight, self.viewWidth * 3) self.image.set_from_pixbuf(self.myPixbuf) self.image.show() gtk.gdk.threads_leave() scan += 1 except Queue.Empty: print 'myDisplay finished!' pass def quitGUI(obj): print 'Currently active threads: %s' % threading.enumerate() gtk.main_quit() if __name__ == '__main__': # Create socket (IPv4 protocol, datagram (UDP)) and bind to address socketUDP = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_DGRAM) host = '192.168.1.5' port = 1024 socketUDP.bind((host, port)) # Data parameters samplesPerScan = 256 packetsPerSecond = 1200 packetSize = 512 duration = 1 # For now, set a fixed duration to log data numScans = int(packetsPerSecond * duration) # Create array to store data data = numpy.zeros((samplesPerScan, numScans), dtype=numpy.uint16) # Create queue for displaying from readDataQueue = Queue.Queue(numScans) # Build GUI from Glade XML file builder = gtk.Builder() builder.add_from_file('GroundVue.glade') window = builder.get_object('mainwindow') window.connect('destroy', quitGUI) view = builder.get_object('viewport') image = gtk.Image() view.add(image) viewArea = (1200, samplesPerScan) # Instantiate & start threads myServer = readFromUDPSocket(socketUDP, readDataQueue, packetSize, numScans) myDisplay = displayWithGTK(readDataQueue, image, viewArea) myServer.start() myDisplay.start() gtk.gdk.threads_enter() gtk.main() gtk.gdk.threads_leave() print 'gtk.main finished!'

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  • Google Maps API 3 How to call initialize without putting it in Body onload

    - by Bex
    Hi I am using the google maps API and have copied the examples and have ended up with a function called "initialize" that is called from the body onload. I am using the maps in a few different user controls, which are placed within content place holders, so the body tag is in the master page. Is there a way of calling initialize directly in the usercontrol rather than having to place an onload on the masterpage? Ideally I want my user control to be a stand alone control that I can just slot into pages without trying to access the master page body onload. I have tried calling the Initialize function from my page load of the user control (by adding a start up script), but the map doesn't appear. Any suggestions? My code: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false">/script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var geocoder; function initialize() { geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(51.8052184317649, -4.965819906250006); var myOptions = { zoom: 8, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/GoogleMapsService.asmx/GetPointers", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", beforeSend: function () { $(".loadingData").html("<p>Loading data..</p>"); }, complete: function () { $(".loadingData").html(""); }, cache: true, success: mapPoints, error: onError }); } function onError(xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(xhr.responseText); } function mapPoints(response) { if (response.d != null) { if (response.d.length > 0) { for (var i = 0; i < response.d.length; i++) { plotOnMap(response.d[i].Id, response.d[i].Name, response.d[i].Lat, response.d[i].Long, response.d[i].ShortDesc) } } } } and on my test master page: <body onload="initialize()"> <form runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MainContent" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </form> </body>

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  • JavaScript regular expression literal persists between function calls

    - by Charles Anderson
    I have this piece of code: function func1(text) { var pattern = /([\s\S]*?)(\<\?(?:attrib |if |else-if |else|end-if|search |for |end-for)[\s\S]*?\?\>)/g; var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { if (some condition) { throw new Error('failed'); } ... } } This works, unless the throw statement is executed. In that case, the next time I call the function, the exec() call starts where it left off, even though I am supplying it with a new value of 'text'. I can fix it by writing var pattern = new RegExp('.....'); instead, but I don't understand why the first version is failing. How is the regular expression persisting between function calls? (This is happening in the latest versions of Firefox and Chrome.) Edit Complete test case: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>Test Page</title> <style type='text/css'> body { font-family: sans-serif; } #log p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </style> <script type='text/javascript'> function func1(text, count) { var pattern = /(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|eight)/g; log("func1"); var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { log("result[0] = " + result[0] + ", pattern.index = " + pattern.index); if (--count <= 0) { throw "Error"; } } } function go() { try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 3); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 99); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } } function log(msg) { var log = document.getElementById('log'); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = msg; log.appendChild(p); } </script> </head> <body><div> <input type='button' id='btnGo' value='Go' onclick='go();'> <hr> <div id='log'></div> </div></body> </html> The regular expression continues with 'four' as of the second call on FF and Chrome, not on IE7 or Opera.

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  • Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

    - by Don
    I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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