Search Results

Search found 14745 results on 590 pages for 'setting'.

Page 482/590 | < Previous Page | 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489  | Next Page >

• parameter for xcodebuild for using latest sdk.

  - by Maciek Sawicki

  I using ant exec task to execute xcodebuild to build some iOS projects hudson. I would like to be able to crate script that way that allows not to specify sdk version, because after updating sdk on hudson slave or my iOS projects all my projects failing.... There is is nice option in xcode since sdk 4.2 in target setup Base SDK - Latest iOS and I don't have to provide -sdk param in xcodebuild command, but then (i think) it's taken from xcode project and it's bad because then some one can change target from simulator to device accidentally during commit. I need something that is constant. I will prefer not to use env variable because I would like to be able to run this ant task also on dev machines and would like not have to renember about setting it on all machines. Unfortunately xcodebuild -showsdk gives only: Mac OS X SDKs: Mac OS X 10.4 -sdk macosx10.4 Mac OS X 10.5 -sdk macosx10.5 Mac OS X 10.6 -sdk macosx10.6 iOS SDKs: iOS 4.2 -sdk iphoneos4.2 iOS Simulator SDKs: Simulator - iOS 3.2 -sdk iphonesimulator3.2 Simulator - iOS 4.0 -sdk iphonesimulator4.0 Simulator - iOS 4.1 -sdk iphonesimulator4.1 Simulator - iOS 4.2 -sdk iphonesimulator4.2 I need something like -sdk iphoneosLatest. My only idea is to pare output of xcodebuild -showsdk with some script, but I don't like this idea.

  Read the article

• Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

  - by zoul

  Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

  Read the article

• Creating an Admin directory in Rails

  - by matsko

  I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

  Read the article

• Getting a variable into another class through properties or button tags with Iphone SDK?

  - by MarcZero

  Hello. I have been pounding my head against a wall trying to figure out what I think is a simple thing to do, but I have, so far, been unable to figure it out with the iPhone SDK. I have a view with 4 buttons. When I push the buttons, I have another view called and come up to take over the screen. I want to have a simple variable passed from the old view to the new view. The purpose of this is to know what button was pressed out of the four identical ones. (trying to get an int value of 1 through 4) Here is what I have tried so far: I initially tried to call the variable from the class itself. My understanding was that my new view was only sitting on top of the old view, so it should not have been released. I could not get access to the variable as the variable was said to not be declared. I then tried to create a method that would return the int value. Again, the view class was not seen and was being declared as a "first use" of it. I then attempted to follow another similar post on here that suggested to try and send the button tag number to some part of the new view. I attempted to do this by setting the new views button title but I still cannot figure out a way to code it without coming up with errors. I am just looking for what method would be the best for me to pursue. I have no problem going back and reading the books on Objective-C, but I'm just trying to figure out which way I should concentrate on. Thank you for any insight.

  Read the article

• forcing a child component to resize itself larger than its container

  - by Josh

  I am creating a component that displays a variable amount of "gauges" (square tiles of content if you will), that is laid out like so: <HDividedBox id="container"> <VBox id="myComponent"> <HBox id="header"> ...header content... </HBox> <Tile id="body"> ...gauges are added to the body... </Tile> </Vbox> </HDividedBox> The body Tile has a horizontal direction. When I drag the HDividedBox to make myComponent smaller, the body component will get smaller as well, and eventually if there are too many gauges to fit horizontally, they will be bumped to the next row, and thus the smaller I make myComponent, the number of vertically stacked gauges grows. This is all well and good. The problem is, no matter what combination of settings I use, I absolutely cannot get the body (a Tile) to size itself beyond the size of myComponent, which would ideally cause myComponent to scroll vertically. Even setting the maxHeight of the body to some huge value, it will never size itself larger than it's container. Any ideas on how to accomplish this? Thanks

  Read the article

• Compiling and linking libcurl to create a stand alone dll

  - by Haraldo

  Hi, I've managed to compile a dll with the necessary linked libraries (*.lib) and with CURL_STATICLIB set in the preprocessor section among other settings. I'm using "libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc.zip" package and compiling with VS 2008 express. This has been the first version I managed to get compiled properly with no link issues etc. The problem I have now is that my dll needs libcurl.dll to function and this is not ok. My dll needs to be independent. I have no idea how to implement this. I've taken all day just to get what I've got compiled. I've got runtime library set to Multi threaded dll (debug/release) respectively under C/C++ - code generation. I've a number of preprocessor set - CURL_STATICLIB being one of them. Configuration Type is set to Dynamic Library Use of MFC is set to Use MFC in a static library Additional Library Directories is set to the lib folders (debug/release) respectively. I've noticed there is a curllib_static.lib file which I've tried instead of curllib.lib as an additional dependency but it only compiles with the later. This is driving me nuts! So I guess I need some guidance as to how to make my dll completely static so it doesn't have any dependencies. I notice my dll is currently dependent on: CURLLIB.DLL MSVCR90D.DLL As I'm pretty new to C++ it could be a setting I'm missing in VS 2008 but I'm not sure. One person said I should be using a static library with *.a files (libcurl.a) etc but when I do this I get link errors which I haven't been able to resolve. Any guidance here would be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Deployment Setup (.Net) - Search target machine -> Registry search (64 bit)

  - by Joonas Kirsebom

  I have a windows installer project which installs some software (winform, service, mce addin). During the installation I need to search the machine for a registry key. This is done with with the "Launch Condition" - "Add Registry Search" (Deployment Project). I have filled out all the properties right, and checked against the regestry that the value actually can be found. The problem is that the "Registry Search" searches in the x86 part of the registry (HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\...) although my system is a x64 and the deployment setup is also set to x64. Does anyone know how to force the "Registry Search" to search the x64 registry? Or know about a workaround? The weird thing about this, is that Registry setting in the deployment setup is writing to the right registry (x64). My idea is that the "Registry Search" program is only developed to the x86 architecture, and therefore can't read the right registry. I found this article from microsoft, so it seams that they know about this problem. https://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/ViewFeedback.aspx?FeedbackID=110105&wa=wsignin1.0#details My system is: Windows 7 64bit Visual Studio 2008

  Read the article

• Integrating Search Server 2008 Express with WSS 3.0

  - by Jason Kemp

  I'm setting up the environment for an intranet using WSS (Windows SharePoint Services) 3.0. The catch is getting the environment configured to work with MS Search Server 2008 Express. Here's the environment I'd like to setup: A: Web Server; Win Server 2003 SP2; WSS 3.0 SP2; IIS 6.0; .NET 3.5 SP1 B: Search Server; Win Server 2003 SP2; WSS 3.0 SP2; IIS 6.0; .NET 3.5 SP1; Search Server 2008 Express C: Database Server; Win Server 2003 SP2; SQL Server 2000 SP3 - Admin db, Content db, Config db, Search db The question is whether 3 servers can be used like the above configuration or if the Search Server (B) has to be combined with (A) since we're using the free Express version of the Search Server. The documentation from MS doesn't make it clear either way. I can attack this problem with trial and error but would rather not. The bigger question is: What is the best practice for a WSS / Search Server installation?

  Read the article

• Binding UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, updates source at program startup

  - by GTD

  I have following code: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Text="{Binding Path=Name, Mode=OneWayToSource, UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, FallbackValue=default text}" KeyUp="TextBox_KeyUp" x:Name="textBox1"/> </Grid> public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void TextBox_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == Key.Enter) { BindingExpression exp = this.textBox1.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty); exp.UpdateSource(); } } } public class ViewModel { public string Name { set { Debug.WriteLine("setting name: " + value); } } } public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); Window1 window = new Window1(); window.DataContext = new ViewModel(); window.Show(); } } I want to update source only when "Enter" key is pressed in textbox. This works fine. However binding updates source at program startup. How can I avoid this? Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

  - by LOSnively

  I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• CSS issue in IE

  - by Ayaz Alavi

  Hi, Me website contains drop down menus at the top right corner. Dropdwon is displayed fine but when I hover over elements of drop down then IE is causing issue on rendering them on the other hand Firefox is displaying the way i want. website is http://www.textsensor.com/test. Can anybody tell me what is causing IE issue on its menu. Here is the details. Each parent at top has child div which contains child elements in a ul. I am displaying them inline with width of div container fixed so that two of them are being displayed in one line. Each child li contains two images and an anchor in between. These two images are providing rounded corners whereas anchor contains span which contains text of sub-menu item. On mouseover on span I am showing its parent anchor sibling images through javascript and also setting its bg-image to white. Images are not aligned correctly and span tag got down about 10px from top on IE only. Javascript is listed below $("#jsddm li ul li a span").hover(function(){ $(this).parent().siblings("img").show(); $(this).parent().css("border-bottom", "#a00 5px double"); }, function(){ $(this).parent().siblings("img").hide(); $(this).parent().css("border-bottom", "none"); }); Cheers Ayaz Alavi

  Read the article

• PrinterSettings.IsValid always returning false

  - by Jarrod

  In our code, we have to give the users a list of printers to choose from. The user then chooses a printer and it is checked to verify it is valid before printing. On a windows 2003 server with IIS 6, this works fine. On a windows 2008 server with IIS 7, it fails each time impersonate is set to true. PrinterSettings printerSetting = new PrinterSettings(); printerSetting.PrinterName = ddlPrinterName.SelectedItem.Text; if (!printerSetting.IsValid) { lblMsg.Text = "Server Printer is not valid."; } else { lblMsg.Text = "Success"; } Each time this code is run, the "Server Printer is not valid" displays, only if impersonate is set to true. If impersonate is set to false, the success message is displayed. The impersonation user has full rights to the printer. Is there a way to catch the actual reason the printer is not valid? Is there some other 2008 setting I should check?

  Read the article

• Audio playback, creating nested loop for fade in/out.

  - by Dave Slevin

  Hi Folks, First time poster here. A quick question about setting up a loop here. I want to set up a for loop for the first 1/3 of the main loop that will increase a value from .00001 or similar to 1. So I can use it to multiply a sample variable so as to create a fade-in in this simple audio file playback routine. So far it's turning out to be a bit of a head scratcher, any help greatfully recieved. for(i=0; i < end && !feof(fpin); i+=blockframes) { samples = fread(audioblock, sizeof(short), blocksamples, fpin); frames = samples; for(j=0; j < frames; j++) { for (f = 0; f< frames/3 ;f++) { fade = fade--; } output[j] = audioblock[j]/fade; } fwrite(output,sizeof(short), frames, fpoutput); } Apologies, So far I've read and re-write the file successfully. My problem is I'm trying to figure out a way to loop the variable 'fade' so it either increases or decreases to 1, so as I can modify the output variable. I wanted to do this in say 3 stages: 1. From 0 to frames/3 to increace a multiplication factor from .0001 to 1 2. from frames 1/3 to frames 2/3 to do nothing (multiply by 1) and 3. For the factor to decrease again below 1 so as for the output variable to decrease back to the original point. How can I create a loop that will increase and decrease these values over the outside loop?

  Read the article

• Changing CSS height property removes anchors?

  - by JMan

  I am working on a standard header/navigation for my website. I started with having a CSS "height" value of 100% for the html, body elements but this resulted in the wrong layout. However, when I change the CSS height property from "100%" to "auto", the layout is correct, but I lose the anchors in the navigation. Why is this? Here's my CSS: html,body { height: auto; /* This is the only property that I'm toggling */ margin: 0; } body { margin: 0; min-width: 978px; font: 12px/16px Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; color: #000; background: #000001 url('../images/bg-body.jpg') no-repeat 50% 0; } #nav { position: relative; float: left; margin: 0; padding: 0 2px 0 271px; list-style: none; background: url('../images/sep-nav.gif') no-repeat 100% 0; } #nav li { float: left; padding: 11px 0 0 2px; height: 35px; width: 128px; line-height: 22px; font-size: 18px; text-align: center; background: url('../images/sep-nav.gif') no-repeat 0 -1px; display: inline; } #nav li a {color: #FFFEFE;} ..... I compared the computed CSS in Firebug when the html, body height property was set to "auto" vs. "100%" and they were the same. Can somebody please shed some light on how retain the anchors in the navigation while setting height to "auto"? Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• Disable Painting of the VScrollbar in a System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox

  - by SchlaWiener

  I have a custom control inherited from RichTextBox. This control has the ability to "disable" rich text editing. I achive this by just setting the Rtf property to the text property during the TextChanged event. this is how my code looks like: private bool lockTextChanged; void RichTextBox_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // prevent StackOverflowException if (lockTextChanged) return; // remember current position int rtbstart = rtb.SelectionStart; int len = rtb.SelectionLength; // prevent painting rtb.SuspendLayout(); // set the text property to remove the entire formatting. lockTextChanged = true; rtb.Text = rtb.Text; rtb.Select(rtbstart, len); lockTextChanged = false; rtb.ResumeLayout(true); } That worked well. However in a large text with like 200 lines the controls jitters (you see the first lines of text for the wink). To prevent that from happening I filter the WM_PAINT between SuspendLayout() and ResumeLayout() private bool layoutSuspended; public new void SuspendLayout() { layoutSuspended = true; base.SuspendLayout(); } public new void ResumeLayout() { layoutSuspended = false; base.ResumeLayout(); } public new void ResumeLayout(bool performLayout) { layoutSuspended = false; base.ResumeLayout(performLayout); } private const int WM_PAINT = 0x000F; protected override void WndProc(ref System.Windows.Forms.Message m) { if (!(m.Msg == WM_PAINT && layoutSuspended)) base.WndProc(ref m); } that did the trick, the RichTextBox isn't jittering anymoe. That's what I wanted to achive, except one thing: The scrollbar is still jittering everytime I type text to my control. Now my question: Does anyone have a clue for me how to prevent the scrollbar from redrawing during Suspend/Resume Layout?

  Read the article

• instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

  - by gwk

  My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

  Read the article

• m2crypto aes-256-cbc not working against encoded openssl files.

  - by Gary

  $ echo 'this is text' > text.1 $ openssl enc -aes-256-cbc -a -k "thisisapassword" -in text.1 -out text.enc $ openssl enc -d -aes-256-cbc -a -k "thisisapassword" -in text.enc -out text.2 $ cat text.2 this is text I can do this with openssl. Now, how do I do the same in m2crypto. Documentation is lacking this. I looked at the snv test cases, still nothing there. I found one sample, http://passingcuriosity.com/2009/aes-encryption-in-python-with-m2crypto/ (changed to aes_256_cbc), and it will encrypted/descrypt it's own strings, but it cannot decrypt anything made with openssl, and anything it encrypts isn't decryptable from openssl. I need to be able enc/dec with aes-256-cbc as have many files already encrypted with this and we have many other systems in place that also handle the aes-256-cbc output just fine. We use password phrases only, with no IV. So setting the IV to \0 * 16 makes sense, but I'm not sure if this is also part of the problem. Anyone have any working samples of doing AES 256 that is compatible with m2crypto? I will also be trying some additional libraries and seeing if they work any better.

  Read the article

• Reusing Windows Picture and Fax Viewer process to load a new image from FileSystemWatcher

  - by Cory Larson

  So for an idea for my birthday party I'm setting up a photo booth. I've got software to remotely control the camera and all that, but I need to write a little application to monitor the folder where the pictures get saved and display them. Here's what I've got so far. The issue is that I don't want to launch a new Windows Photo Viewer process every time the FileSystemWatcher sees a new file, I just want to load the latest image into the current instance of the Windows Photo Viewer (or start a new one if one isn't running). class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { new Program().StartWatching(); } public void StartWatching() { FileSystemWatcher incoming = new FileSystemWatcher(); incoming.Path = @"G:\TempPhotos\"; incoming.NotifyFilter = NotifyFilters.LastWrite | NotifyFilters.FileName; incoming.Filter = "*.jpg"; incoming.Created += new FileSystemEventHandler(ShowImage); incoming.EnableRaisingEvents = true; Console.WriteLine("Press \'q\' to quit."); while (Console.Read() != 'q') ; } private void ShowImage(object source, FileSystemEventArgs e) { string s1 = Environment.ExpandEnvironmentVariables("%windir%\\system32\\rundll32.exe "); string s2 = Environment.ExpandEnvironmentVariables("%windir%\\system32\\shimgvw.dll,ImageView_Fullscreen " + e.FullPath); Process.Start(s1, s2); Console.WriteLine("{0} : Image \"{0}\" at {1:t}.", e.ChangeType, e.FullPath, DateTime.Now); } } If you don't have a tried and true solution, a simple push in the right direction would be just as valuable. And FYI, this will be running on a 64-bit Windows 7 machine. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Reading a .dat file as "rb" read binary

  - by donpal

  I have a web-accessible php script that accesses a folder above the webroot (not web accessible) called \folder\. This is done via setting the path to \folder\ in .htaccess the usual way so that \folder\ becomes part of the project. \folder\ contains a .php script (communicates with the web-accessible script inside the webroot) some .inc files (used by the .php in the same folder, above the webroot) a dat file (used by the .inc in the same folder, above the webroot) All files are accessible to each other as needed: the web-accessible php inside the webroot can communicate with the php above the webroot the php above the webroot can communicate with the inc in the same folder But the inc above the webroot can't communicate with the dat in the same folder, and I have no idea why that's the case The inc myinc.inc is supposed to open the dat mydat.dat in the same folder like this fopen('mydat.dat', "rb"); but I get an error that no file called mydat.dat exists inside \folder\myinc.inc. Of course it does not, the .dat is sibling to .inc and is not supposed to be inside it. Why is php expecting to find the .dat file inside the .inc. The stranger thing is that if I move the .dat in the web-accessible folder, it becomes readable now. Any ideas why php is trying to find the .dat inside the .inc?

  Read the article

• Run AppleScript with Elevated Privileges from Objective C

  - by cygnl7

  I'm attempting to execute an uninstaller (written in AppleScript) through AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges. I'm setting up my rights after creating an empty auth ref like so: char *tool = "/usr/bin/osascript"; AuthorizationItem items = {kAuthorizationRightExecute, strlen(tool), tool, 0}; AuthorizationRights rights = {sizeof(items)/sizeof(AuthorizationItem), &items}; AuthorizationFlags flags = kAuthorizationFlagDefaults | kAuthorizationFlagExtendRights | kAuthorizationFlagPreAuthorize | kAuthorizationFlagInteractionAllowed; status = AuthorizationCopyRights(authorizationRef, &rights, NULL, flags, NULL); Later I call: status = AuthorizationExecuteWithPrivileges(authorizationRef, tool, kAuthorizationFlagDefaults, (char *const *)args, NULL); On Snow Leopard this works fine, but on Leopard I get the following in syslog.log: Apr 19 15:30:09 hostname /usr/bin/osascript[39226]: OpenScripting.framework - 'gdut' event blocked in process with mixed credentials (issetugid=0 uid=501 euid=0 gid=20 egid=20) Apr 19 15:30:12: --- last message repeated 1 time --- ... Apr 19 15:30:12 hostname [0x0-0x2e92e9].com.example.uninstaller[39219]: /var/folders/vm/vmkIi0nYG8mHMrllaXaTgk+++TI/-Tmp-/TestApp_tmpfiles/Uninstall.scpt: Apr 19 15:30:12 hostname [0x0-0x2e92e9].com.example.uninstaller[39219]: execution error: «constant afdmasup» doesn’t understand the «event earsffdr» message. (-1708) After researching this for a few hours my first guess is that Leopard somehow doesn't want to do what I'm doing because it knows it's in a setuid situation and blocks calls that ask about user-specific things in the applescript. Am I going about this all wrong? I just want to run the equivalent of "sudo /usr/bin/osascript ..." Edit: FWIW, the first line that causes the "execution error" is: set userAppSupportPath to (POSIX path of (path to application support folder from user domain)) However, even with an empty script (on run argv, end run and that's it) I still get the 'gdut' message.

  Read the article

• Boost::Mutex & Malloc

  - by M. Tibbits

  Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

  Read the article

• Reading email address from contacts fails with weird memory issue

  - by CapsicumDreams

  Hi all, I'm stumped. I'm trying to get a list of all the email address a person has. I'm using the ABPeoplePickerNavigationController to select the person, which all seems fine. I'm setting my ABRecordRef personDealingWith; from the person argument to - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier { and everything seems fine up till this point. The first time the following code executes, all is well. When subsequently run, I can get issues. First, the code: // following line seems to make the difference (issue 1) // NSLog(@"%d", ABMultiValueGetCount(ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty))); // construct array of emails ABMultiValueRef multi = ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty); CFIndex emailCount = ABMultiValueGetCount(multi); if (emailCount 0) { // collect all emails in array for (CFIndex i = 0; i < emailCount; i++) { CFStringRef emailRef = ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(multi, i); [emailArray addObject:(NSString *)emailRef]; CFRelease(emailRef); } } // following line also matters (issue 2) CFRelease(multi); If compiled as written, the are no errors or static analysis problems. This crashes with a *** -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x4e9dc60 error. But wait, there's more! I can fix it in either of two ways. Firstly, I can uncomment the NSLog at the top of the function. I get a leak from the NSLog's ABRecordCopyValue every time through, but the code seems to run fine. Also, I can comment out the CFRelease(multi); at the end, which does exactly the same thing. Static compilation errors, but running code. So without a leak, this function crashes. To prevent a crash, I need to haemorrhage memory. Neither is a great solution. Can anyone point out what's going on?

  Read the article

• JavaEE : "Access to default session denied" when sending mail using smtp.gmail.com

  - by Harry Pham

  I am trying to write email authentication feature for my website and I encounter some issues. I got java.lang.SecurityException: Access to default session denied, when I try to do Session.getDefaultInstance. Here are my codes: private static final String SMTP_HOST_NAME = "smtp.gmail.com"; private static final String SMTP_PORT = "465"; private static final String emailSubjectTxt = "Email Confirmation"; private static final String emailFromAddress = "[email protected]"; private static final String SSL_FACTORY = "javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"; ... String sendTo = "[email protected]"; boolean debug = true; Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", SMTP_HOST_NAME); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.debug", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class", SSL_FACTORY); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.fallback", "false"); //It dies at the next line Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { @Override protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("myUserName", "myPassword"); } }); session.setDebug(debug); //Set the FROM address Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(emailFromAddress); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); //Set the TO address InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[1]; addressTo[0] = new InternetAddress(sendTo); msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); //Construct the content of the email confirmation String message = "Test Content" // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(emailSubjectTxt); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg);

  Read the article

• how to access control in templatefield gridview with custom id

  - by Mohsen.Tavoosi

  i have a customized gridview.my grid is able to sort for each column just by 1 click in the header without any setting and overloading methods such as sorting,etc by user(programmer).(i do this successfully and work fine) users(programmers) maybe add each column in grid.such as template field,hyperlinkfield,boundfield... . for sorting, i must access datafield of columns. i can access boundfield column by this code.i can access datafield and header text and ... sample: for (int j = 0; j < this.Columns.Count; j++) { BoundField bf; bf = this.Columns[j] as BoundField; if (bf != null) { string ht = bf.HeaderText; string df = bf.DataField; } } but i can access control in the templateField.such as ColumnBound. sample: <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("Name") %>'></asp:Label> i want access "Name" (Bind ("Name") or Eval ("Name")) . how can i? there is a point: i dont now what is the ID (in this case "Label1") of control in templatefield. special thanks

  Read the article

• Custom DateTime model binder in Asp.net MVC

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I would like to write my own model binder for DateTime type. First of all I'd like to write a new attribute that I can attach to my model property like: [DateTimeFormat("d.M.yyyy")] public DateTime Birth { get; set,} This is the easy part. But the binder part is a bit more difficult. I would like to add a new model binder for type DateTime. I can either implement IModelBinder interface and write my own BindModel() method inherit from DefaultModelBinder and override BindModel() method My model has a property as seen above (Birth). So when the model tries to bind request data to this property, my model binder's BindModel(controllerContext, bindingContext) gets invoked. Everything ok, but. How do I get property attributes from controller/bindingContext, to parse my date correctly? How can I get to the PropertyDesciptor of property Birth? Edit Because of separation of concerns my model class is defined in an assembly that doesn't (and shouldn't) reference System.Web.MVC assembly. Setting custom binding (similar to Scott Hanselman's example) attributes is a no-go here.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 478 479 480 481 482 483 484 485 486 487 488 489  | Next Page >