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  • forcing a child component to resize itself larger than its container

    - by Josh
    I am creating a component that displays a variable amount of "gauges" (square tiles of content if you will), that is laid out like so: <HDividedBox id="container"> <VBox id="myComponent"> <HBox id="header"> ...header content... </HBox> <Tile id="body"> ...gauges are added to the body... </Tile> </Vbox> </HDividedBox> The body Tile has a horizontal direction. When I drag the HDividedBox to make myComponent smaller, the body component will get smaller as well, and eventually if there are too many gauges to fit horizontally, they will be bumped to the next row, and thus the smaller I make myComponent, the number of vertically stacked gauges grows. This is all well and good. The problem is, no matter what combination of settings I use, I absolutely cannot get the body (a Tile) to size itself beyond the size of myComponent, which would ideally cause myComponent to scroll vertically. Even setting the maxHeight of the body to some huge value, it will never size itself larger than it's container. Any ideas on how to accomplish this? Thanks

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  • Compiling and linking libcurl to create a stand alone dll

    - by Haraldo
    Hi, I've managed to compile a dll with the necessary linked libraries (*.lib) and with CURL_STATICLIB set in the preprocessor section among other settings. I'm using "libcurl-7.19.3-win32-ssl-msvc.zip" package and compiling with VS 2008 express. This has been the first version I managed to get compiled properly with no link issues etc. The problem I have now is that my dll needs libcurl.dll to function and this is not ok. My dll needs to be independent. I have no idea how to implement this. I've taken all day just to get what I've got compiled. I've got runtime library set to Multi threaded dll (debug/release) respectively under C/C++ - code generation. I've a number of preprocessor set - CURL_STATICLIB being one of them. Configuration Type is set to Dynamic Library Use of MFC is set to Use MFC in a static library Additional Library Directories is set to the lib folders (debug/release) respectively. I've noticed there is a curllib_static.lib file which I've tried instead of curllib.lib as an additional dependency but it only compiles with the later. This is driving me nuts! So I guess I need some guidance as to how to make my dll completely static so it doesn't have any dependencies. I notice my dll is currently dependent on: CURLLIB.DLL MSVCR90D.DLL As I'm pretty new to C++ it could be a setting I'm missing in VS 2008 but I'm not sure. One person said I should be using a static library with *.a files (libcurl.a) etc but when I do this I get link errors which I haven't been able to resolve. Any guidance here would be much appreciated.

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  • Deployment Setup (.Net) - Search target machine -> Registry search (64 bit)

    - by Joonas Kirsebom
    I have a windows installer project which installs some software (winform, service, mce addin). During the installation I need to search the machine for a registry key. This is done with with the "Launch Condition" - "Add Registry Search" (Deployment Project). I have filled out all the properties right, and checked against the regestry that the value actually can be found. The problem is that the "Registry Search" searches in the x86 part of the registry (HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\...) although my system is a x64 and the deployment setup is also set to x64. Does anyone know how to force the "Registry Search" to search the x64 registry? Or know about a workaround? The weird thing about this, is that Registry setting in the deployment setup is writing to the right registry (x64). My idea is that the "Registry Search" program is only developed to the x86 architecture, and therefore can't read the right registry. I found this article from microsoft, so it seams that they know about this problem. https://connect.microsoft.com/VisualStudio/feedback/ViewFeedback.aspx?FeedbackID=110105&wa=wsignin1.0#details My system is: Windows 7 64bit Visual Studio 2008

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  • Getting a variable into another class through properties or button tags with Iphone SDK?

    - by MarcZero
    Hello. I have been pounding my head against a wall trying to figure out what I think is a simple thing to do, but I have, so far, been unable to figure it out with the iPhone SDK. I have a view with 4 buttons. When I push the buttons, I have another view called and come up to take over the screen. I want to have a simple variable passed from the old view to the new view. The purpose of this is to know what button was pressed out of the four identical ones. (trying to get an int value of 1 through 4) Here is what I have tried so far: I initially tried to call the variable from the class itself. My understanding was that my new view was only sitting on top of the old view, so it should not have been released. I could not get access to the variable as the variable was said to not be declared. I then tried to create a method that would return the int value. Again, the view class was not seen and was being declared as a "first use" of it. I then attempted to follow another similar post on here that suggested to try and send the button tag number to some part of the new view. I attempted to do this by setting the new views button title but I still cannot figure out a way to code it without coming up with errors. I am just looking for what method would be the best for me to pursue. I have no problem going back and reading the books on Objective-C, but I'm just trying to figure out which way I should concentrate on. Thank you for any insight.

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  • Creating an Admin directory in Rails

    - by matsko
    I've been developing the CMS backend for a website for a few weeks now. The idea is to craft everything in the backend first so that it can manage the database and information that will be displayed on the main website. As of now, I currently have all my code setup in the normal rails MVC structure. So the users admin is /users and videos is /videos. My plans are to take the code for this and move it to a /admin directory. So the two controllers above would need to be accessed by /admin/users and /admin/videos. I'm not sure how todo the ruote (adding the /admin as a prefix) nor am I sure about how to manage the logic. What I'm thinking of doing is setting up an additional 'middle' controller that somehow gets nested between the ApplicationControler and the targetted controller when the /admin directory is accessed. This way, any additional flags and overloaded methods can be spawned for the /admin section only (I believe I could use a filter too for this). If that were to work, then the next issue would be separating the views logic (but that would just be renaming folders and so on). Either I do it that way or I have two rails instances that share the MVC code between them (and I guess the database too), but I fear that would cause lots of duplication errors. Any ideas as to how I should go about doing this? Many thanks!

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  • CSS issue in IE

    - by Ayaz Alavi
    Hi, Me website contains drop down menus at the top right corner. Dropdwon is displayed fine but when I hover over elements of drop down then IE is causing issue on rendering them on the other hand Firefox is displaying the way i want. website is http://www.textsensor.com/test. Can anybody tell me what is causing IE issue on its menu. Here is the details. Each parent at top has child div which contains child elements in a ul. I am displaying them inline with width of div container fixed so that two of them are being displayed in one line. Each child li contains two images and an anchor in between. These two images are providing rounded corners whereas anchor contains span which contains text of sub-menu item. On mouseover on span I am showing its parent anchor sibling images through javascript and also setting its bg-image to white. Images are not aligned correctly and span tag got down about 10px from top on IE only. Javascript is listed below $("#jsddm li ul li a span").hover(function(){ $(this).parent().siblings("img").show(); $(this).parent().css("border-bottom", "#a00 5px double"); }, function(){ $(this).parent().siblings("img").hide(); $(this).parent().css("border-bottom", "none"); }); Cheers Ayaz Alavi

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  • Table valued function only returns CLR error

    - by Anthony
    I have read-only access to a database that was set up for a third-party, closed-source app. Once group of (hopefully) useful table functions only returns the error: Failed to initialize the Common Language Runtime (CLR) v2.0.50727 with HRESULT 0x80131522. You need to restart SQL server to use CLR integration features. (severity 16) But in theory, the third-party app should be able to use the function (either directly or indirectly), so I'm convinced I'm not setting things up right. I'm very new to SQL Server, so I could be missing something obvious. Or I could be missing something really slight, I have no idea. Here is an example of a query that returns the above error: SELECT * FROM dbo.UncompressDataDateRange(4,'Apr 24 2010 12:00AM','Apr 30 2010 12:00AM') Where the function takes three parameters: The Data Set (int) -- basically the data has 6 classifications, and the giant table this should be pulling from has a column to indicate which is which. startDate (smalldatetime) endDate (smalldatetime) There are other, similar functions that expand on the same idea, all returning the same error. Quick Note: I'm not sure if this is relevant, but I was able to connect to the database via SQL Studio (but without the privs to script the functions as code), and a checked the dependency for the above sample function. It turns out that it is a dependent of a view that I have gotten to work, and that view is dependent of the larger, much-hairier data-table. This makes me think I should somehow be pointing the function at the results of the view, but I'm not seeing any documentation that shows how that is done.

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  • PrinterSettings.IsValid always returning false

    - by Jarrod
    In our code, we have to give the users a list of printers to choose from. The user then chooses a printer and it is checked to verify it is valid before printing. On a windows 2003 server with IIS 6, this works fine. On a windows 2008 server with IIS 7, it fails each time impersonate is set to true. PrinterSettings printerSetting = new PrinterSettings(); printerSetting.PrinterName = ddlPrinterName.SelectedItem.Text; if (!printerSetting.IsValid) { lblMsg.Text = "Server Printer is not valid."; } else { lblMsg.Text = "Success"; } Each time this code is run, the "Server Printer is not valid" displays, only if impersonate is set to true. If impersonate is set to false, the success message is displayed. The impersonation user has full rights to the printer. Is there a way to catch the actual reason the printer is not valid? Is there some other 2008 setting I should check?

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  • Switch between multiple views while respecting orientation

    - by zoul
    Hello! I have an MVC application with a single model and several views (something like skins). I want the user to be able to switch the views and I can’t get it working with interface orientation. The most simple approach looks like this: - (void) switchToADifferentView: (UIView*) newView { // self is a descendant of UIViewController self.view = newView; } This does not work because the incoming view does not get rotated according to current orientation (until the next orientation change, test case). Is there a way to force the orientation on a view? It looks like the system is trying really hard to keep the interface controls for itself. (Or is it as simple as setting the right transform by hand?) I figured I’d better not switch the views directly and switch controllers instead. This makes sense, as it makes the initial code simpler. But how do I switch controllers that have no “navigation relation” between them? I guess I could use presentModalViewController:, but that seems like a hack. Same goes for navigation controller. If I exchange the controllers by hand, I get the wrong orientation again: - (void) switchToAController: (id) incoming { [currentController.view removeFromSuperview]; [window addSubview:incoming.view]; // does not respect current orientation } Now how the heck do I simply exchange the current controller for another one? Again, the controllers are something like “skins” operating above a shared model, so it really makes no sense to pretend that skin A is a “modal” dialog above skin B or that they’re a part of a navigation stack.

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  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Changing CSS height property removes anchors?

    - by JMan
    I am working on a standard header/navigation for my website. I started with having a CSS "height" value of 100% for the html, body elements but this resulted in the wrong layout. However, when I change the CSS height property from "100%" to "auto", the layout is correct, but I lose the anchors in the navigation. Why is this? Here's my CSS: html,body { height: auto; /* This is the only property that I'm toggling */ margin: 0; } body { margin: 0; min-width: 978px; font: 12px/16px Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; color: #000; background: #000001 url('../images/bg-body.jpg') no-repeat 50% 0; } #nav { position: relative; float: left; margin: 0; padding: 0 2px 0 271px; list-style: none; background: url('../images/sep-nav.gif') no-repeat 100% 0; } #nav li { float: left; padding: 11px 0 0 2px; height: 35px; width: 128px; line-height: 22px; font-size: 18px; text-align: center; background: url('../images/sep-nav.gif') no-repeat 0 -1px; display: inline; } #nav li a {color: #FFFEFE;} ..... I compared the computed CSS in Firebug when the html, body height property was set to "auto" vs. "100%" and they were the same. Can somebody please shed some light on how retain the anchors in the navigation while setting height to "auto"? Thanks for your help.

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  • Reading email address from contacts fails with weird memory issue

    - by CapsicumDreams
    Hi all, I'm stumped. I'm trying to get a list of all the email address a person has. I'm using the ABPeoplePickerNavigationController to select the person, which all seems fine. I'm setting my ABRecordRef personDealingWith; from the person argument to - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier { and everything seems fine up till this point. The first time the following code executes, all is well. When subsequently run, I can get issues. First, the code: // following line seems to make the difference (issue 1) // NSLog(@"%d", ABMultiValueGetCount(ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty))); // construct array of emails ABMultiValueRef multi = ABRecordCopyValue(personDealingWith, kABPersonEmailProperty); CFIndex emailCount = ABMultiValueGetCount(multi); if (emailCount 0) { // collect all emails in array for (CFIndex i = 0; i < emailCount; i++) { CFStringRef emailRef = ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(multi, i); [emailArray addObject:(NSString *)emailRef]; CFRelease(emailRef); } } // following line also matters (issue 2) CFRelease(multi); If compiled as written, the are no errors or static analysis problems. This crashes with a *** -[Not A Type retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x4e9dc60 error. But wait, there's more! I can fix it in either of two ways. Firstly, I can uncomment the NSLog at the top of the function. I get a leak from the NSLog's ABRecordCopyValue every time through, but the code seems to run fine. Also, I can comment out the CFRelease(multi); at the end, which does exactly the same thing. Static compilation errors, but running code. So without a leak, this function crashes. To prevent a crash, I need to haemorrhage memory. Neither is a great solution. Can anyone point out what's going on?

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  • Subscription website architecture questions + SQL Server & .NET

    - by chopps
    Hey Guys, I have a few questions about the architecture of a subscription service I am about to embark on and I am looking for some feedback on how best to set it up. I won’t have a large amount of customers as Basecamp, maybe a few hundred and was wondering what would be a solid architecture for setting up the customer sites. I’m running SQL Server and .NET on a dedicated machine. Should create a new database for each customer as to have control and isolation of data or keep them all in one database? I am also thinking of creating a sub-domain for each customer as well so modifications can be made to each site as needed. The customer URLs would look like this: https://customer1.foobar.com https://customer2.foobar.com I am going to have the ability to ‘plug-in’ reports that will be uploaded to the site so each customer can customize as needed. Off the top of my head this necessitates having each sub domain on its own code-base for the uploading of these reports. So on the main site the customer would sign up for their new subscription and I would programmatically create a new directory for the customer from the main code base and then create a sub domain pointing to the new directory for the customer and then finally their database. Does this sound about right? Am I on the right track? How do other such sites accomplish the same thing? Thanks for letting me bend your ear for a bit on this.

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  • m2crypto aes-256-cbc not working against encoded openssl files.

    - by Gary
    $ echo 'this is text' > text.1 $ openssl enc -aes-256-cbc -a -k "thisisapassword" -in text.1 -out text.enc $ openssl enc -d -aes-256-cbc -a -k "thisisapassword" -in text.enc -out text.2 $ cat text.2 this is text I can do this with openssl. Now, how do I do the same in m2crypto. Documentation is lacking this. I looked at the snv test cases, still nothing there. I found one sample, http://passingcuriosity.com/2009/aes-encryption-in-python-with-m2crypto/ (changed to aes_256_cbc), and it will encrypted/descrypt it's own strings, but it cannot decrypt anything made with openssl, and anything it encrypts isn't decryptable from openssl. I need to be able enc/dec with aes-256-cbc as have many files already encrypted with this and we have many other systems in place that also handle the aes-256-cbc output just fine. We use password phrases only, with no IV. So setting the IV to \0 * 16 makes sense, but I'm not sure if this is also part of the problem. Anyone have any working samples of doing AES 256 that is compatible with m2crypto? I will also be trying some additional libraries and seeing if they work any better.

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  • Binding UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, updates source at program startup

    - by GTD
    I have following code: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Text="{Binding Path=Name, Mode=OneWayToSource, UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, FallbackValue=default text}" KeyUp="TextBox_KeyUp" x:Name="textBox1"/> </Grid> public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void TextBox_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == Key.Enter) { BindingExpression exp = this.textBox1.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty); exp.UpdateSource(); } } } public class ViewModel { public string Name { set { Debug.WriteLine("setting name: " + value); } } } public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); Window1 window = new Window1(); window.DataContext = new ViewModel(); window.Show(); } } I want to update source only when "Enter" key is pressed in textbox. This works fine. However binding updates source at program startup. How can I avoid this? Am I missing something?

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  • Disable Painting of the VScrollbar in a System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a custom control inherited from RichTextBox. This control has the ability to "disable" rich text editing. I achive this by just setting the Rtf property to the text property during the TextChanged event. this is how my code looks like: private bool lockTextChanged; void RichTextBox_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // prevent StackOverflowException if (lockTextChanged) return; // remember current position int rtbstart = rtb.SelectionStart; int len = rtb.SelectionLength; // prevent painting rtb.SuspendLayout(); // set the text property to remove the entire formatting. lockTextChanged = true; rtb.Text = rtb.Text; rtb.Select(rtbstart, len); lockTextChanged = false; rtb.ResumeLayout(true); } That worked well. However in a large text with like 200 lines the controls jitters (you see the first lines of text for the wink). To prevent that from happening I filter the WM_PAINT between SuspendLayout() and ResumeLayout() private bool layoutSuspended; public new void SuspendLayout() { layoutSuspended = true; base.SuspendLayout(); } public new void ResumeLayout() { layoutSuspended = false; base.ResumeLayout(); } public new void ResumeLayout(bool performLayout) { layoutSuspended = false; base.ResumeLayout(performLayout); } private const int WM_PAINT = 0x000F; protected override void WndProc(ref System.Windows.Forms.Message m) { if (!(m.Msg == WM_PAINT && layoutSuspended)) base.WndProc(ref m); } that did the trick, the RichTextBox isn't jittering anymoe. That's what I wanted to achive, except one thing: The scrollbar is still jittering everytime I type text to my control. Now my question: Does anyone have a clue for me how to prevent the scrollbar from redrawing during Suspend/Resume Layout?

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  • Audio playback, creating nested loop for fade in/out.

    - by Dave Slevin
    Hi Folks, First time poster here. A quick question about setting up a loop here. I want to set up a for loop for the first 1/3 of the main loop that will increase a value from .00001 or similar to 1. So I can use it to multiply a sample variable so as to create a fade-in in this simple audio file playback routine. So far it's turning out to be a bit of a head scratcher, any help greatfully recieved. for(i=0; i < end && !feof(fpin); i+=blockframes) { samples = fread(audioblock, sizeof(short), blocksamples, fpin); frames = samples; for(j=0; j < frames; j++) { for (f = 0; f< frames/3 ;f++) { fade = fade--; } output[j] = audioblock[j]/fade; } fwrite(output,sizeof(short), frames, fpoutput); } Apologies, So far I've read and re-write the file successfully. My problem is I'm trying to figure out a way to loop the variable 'fade' so it either increases or decreases to 1, so as I can modify the output variable. I wanted to do this in say 3 stages: 1. From 0 to frames/3 to increace a multiplication factor from .0001 to 1 2. from frames 1/3 to frames 2/3 to do nothing (multiply by 1) and 3. For the factor to decrease again below 1 so as for the output variable to decrease back to the original point. How can I create a loop that will increase and decrease these values over the outside loop?

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  • Boost::Mutex & Malloc

    - by M. Tibbits
    Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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  • Reusing Windows Picture and Fax Viewer process to load a new image from FileSystemWatcher

    - by Cory Larson
    So for an idea for my birthday party I'm setting up a photo booth. I've got software to remotely control the camera and all that, but I need to write a little application to monitor the folder where the pictures get saved and display them. Here's what I've got so far. The issue is that I don't want to launch a new Windows Photo Viewer process every time the FileSystemWatcher sees a new file, I just want to load the latest image into the current instance of the Windows Photo Viewer (or start a new one if one isn't running). class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { new Program().StartWatching(); } public void StartWatching() { FileSystemWatcher incoming = new FileSystemWatcher(); incoming.Path = @"G:\TempPhotos\"; incoming.NotifyFilter = NotifyFilters.LastWrite | NotifyFilters.FileName; incoming.Filter = "*.jpg"; incoming.Created += new FileSystemEventHandler(ShowImage); incoming.EnableRaisingEvents = true; Console.WriteLine("Press \'q\' to quit."); while (Console.Read() != 'q') ; } private void ShowImage(object source, FileSystemEventArgs e) { string s1 = Environment.ExpandEnvironmentVariables("%windir%\\system32\\rundll32.exe "); string s2 = Environment.ExpandEnvironmentVariables("%windir%\\system32\\shimgvw.dll,ImageView_Fullscreen " + e.FullPath); Process.Start(s1, s2); Console.WriteLine("{0} : Image \"{0}\" at {1:t}.", e.ChangeType, e.FullPath, DateTime.Now); } } If you don't have a tried and true solution, a simple push in the right direction would be just as valuable. And FYI, this will be running on a 64-bit Windows 7 machine. Thanks!

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  • instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

    - by gwk
    My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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  • TeamCity + HG. Only pull (push?) passing builds

    - by ColoradoMatt
    Feels like with the popularity of continuous integration this one should be a piece of cake but I am stumped. I am setting up TeamCity with HG. I want to be able to push changesets up to a repository that TeamCity watches and runs builds on changes. That's easy. Next, if a build passes, I want that changeset to be pulled into a "clean" repository... one that contains only passing changesets. Should be easy but... TeamCity 6 supports multiple build steps and if any step fails, the rest don't run. My thought was to put a build step at the end that does a pull (or optionally a push?) to get the passing changeset into the clean repository. I am trying to use PsExec to run hg on the box with the repositories. If I try to run just a plain 'hg pull' it can't find the hg.exe even though it is set in the path and I have used the -w flag. I have tried putting a .bat file in the clean repository that takes a revision parameter and it works fine... locally. When I try to run the .bat file remotely (using PsExec) it runs everything fine but it tries to run it on the build agent. Even if I set the -w argument it runs the .bat file there but tries to run the contents on the build agent box. Am I just WAY off in my approach? Seems like this is a pretty obvious thing to do so either my Google skills are waning or no one thinks this is worthy of writing about. Either way, I am stuck in SVN land trying to get out so I would appreciate some help!

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  • JSF/Seam - new component instance on submit?

    - by purecharger
    And my confusion with JSF continues. This is a continuation of a question asked yesterday, but I feel it warrants a new question. I have a single seam component that expects a URL parameter to be injected for retrieving a List<String> from a method. This works perfectly on the first navigation to the page. The List is used to display many different selectOneRadio groups that populate a <h:form/>. Now on the submit, I cannot get the URL parameter to be injected or otherwise set on the component! Adding <h:inputHidden/> causes FacesExceptions to be thrown. Then I tried setting the List as an instance variable on the object, and when the subsequent call is made on the submit (which I also do not understand why that is done) I check to see if the variable is non-null: if it isn't, return it. Now I found that a new instance of the component is created on submit!!! getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@5fd98420 #### This is when submit is clicked getList() called this.toString(): .BeanAction@22aacbce The component has the following annotations: Stateful @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) @Name("bean") @Restrict("#{identity.loggedIn}") Can someone explain why there is a new instance of the component created? I'm really not quite sure how to go about handling this. I thought the hidden parameter would work, because that is how I would do it with straight HTML, and I'm a little surprised that its not working for JSF/Seam.

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  • How to fix codesign when it says user cancelled the operation? (And I didn't)

    - by eipipuz
    I'm compiling an iPhone app meant to be Distributed. It's my first app so I followed the "iPhone Provisioning Profiles" instructions. Unfortunately it fails with this: CodeSign build/*_*_.app cd "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_" setenv IGNORE_CODESIGN_ALLOCATE_RADAR_7181968 /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin/codesign_allocate setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneOS.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /usr/bin/codesign -f -s "iPhone Distribution: ******" "--resource-rules=/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app/ResourceRules.plist" --entitlements "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent" "/Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app" /Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/*_*_.app: The operation was cancelled by the user. Command /usr/bin/codesign failed with exit code 1 I thought Keychain wasn't allowing Codesign to work but as far as I can tell that isn't the case. I also attempted running these commands from a terminal and it failed with this message: Users/videojuegos/Documents/*_*_/build/Unity-iPhone.build/Distribution-iphoneos/Unity-iPhone.build/*_*_.xcent: cannot read entitlement data I have made the xcode setting from scratch three times. Googled it. No results. I don't have any idea what else to try. Any suggestions?

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  • C# COM Cross Thread problem

    - by user364676
    Hi, we're developing a software to control a scientific measuring device. it provides a COM-Interface defines serveral functions to set measurement parameters and fires an event when it measured data. in order to test our software, i'm implementing a simulation of that device. the com-object runs a loop which periodically fires the event. another loop in the client app should now setup up the com-simulator using the given functions. i created a class for measuring parameters which will be instanciated when setting up a new measurement. // COM-Object public class MeasurementParams { public double Param1; public double Param2; } public class COM_Sim : ICOMDevice { public MeasurementParams newMeasurement; IClient client; public int NewMeasurement() { newMeasurment = new MeasurementParam(); } public int SetParam1(double val) { // why is newMeasurement null when method is called from client loop newMeasurement.Param1 = val; } void loop() { while(true) { // fire event client.HandleEvent; } } } public class Client : IClient { ICOMDevice server; public int HandleEvent() { // handle this event server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } void loop() { while(true) { // do some stuff... server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } } } both of the loops run in independent threads. when server.NewMeasurement() is called, the object on the server is set to a new instance. but in the next function, the object is null again. do the same when handling the server-event, it works perfectly, because the method runs in the servers thread. how to make it work from client-thread as well. as the client is meant to be working with the real device, i cannot modify the interfaces given by the manufactor. also i need to setup measurements independent from the event-handler, which will be fired not regulary. i assume this problem related to multithreaded-COM behavior but i found nothing on this topic.

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  • JavaEE : "Access to default session denied" when sending mail using smtp.gmail.com

    - by Harry Pham
    I am trying to write email authentication feature for my website and I encounter some issues. I got java.lang.SecurityException: Access to default session denied, when I try to do Session.getDefaultInstance. Here are my codes: private static final String SMTP_HOST_NAME = "smtp.gmail.com"; private static final String SMTP_PORT = "465"; private static final String emailSubjectTxt = "Email Confirmation"; private static final String emailFromAddress = "[email protected]"; private static final String SSL_FACTORY = "javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"; ... String sendTo = "[email protected]"; boolean debug = true; Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", SMTP_HOST_NAME); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.debug", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class", SSL_FACTORY); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.fallback", "false"); //It dies at the next line Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { @Override protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("myUserName", "myPassword"); } }); session.setDebug(debug); //Set the FROM address Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(emailFromAddress); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); //Set the TO address InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[1]; addressTo[0] = new InternetAddress(sendTo); msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); //Construct the content of the email confirmation String message = "Test Content" // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(emailSubjectTxt); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg);

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