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  • Managing large binary files with git

    - by pi
    Hi there. I am looking for opinions of how to handle large binary files on which my source code (web application) is dependent. We are currently discussing several alternatives: Copy the binary files by hand. Pro: Not sure. Contra: I am strongly against this, as it increases the likelihood of errors when setting up a new site/migrating the old one. Builds up another hurdle to take. Manage them all with git. Pro: Removes the possibility to 'forget' to copy a important file Contra: Bloats the repository and decreases flexibility to manage the code-base and checkouts/clones/etc will take quite a while. Separate repositories. Pro: Checking out/cloning the source code is fast as ever, and the images are properly archived in their own repository. Contra: Removes the simpleness of having the one and only git repository on the project. Surely introduces some other things I haven't thought about. What are your experiences/thoughts regarding this? Also: Does anybody have experience with multiple git repositories and managing them in one project? Update: The files are images for a program which generates PDFs with those files in it. The files will not change very often(as in years) but are very relevant to a program. The program will not work without the files. Update2: I found a really nice screencast on using git-submodule at GitCasts.

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  • Word-wrap grid cells in Ext JS

    - by richardtallent
    (This is not a question per se, I'm documenting a solution I found using Ext JS 3.1.0. But, feel free to answer if you know of a better solution!) The Column config for an Ext JS Grid object does not have a native way to allow word-wrapped text, but there is a css property to override the inline CSS of the TD elements created by the grid. Unfortunately, the TD elements contain a DIV element wrapping the content, and that DIV is set to white-space:nowrap by Ext JS's stylesheet, so overriding the TD CSS does no good. I added the following to my main CSS file, a simple fix that appears to not break any grid functionality, but allows any white-space setting I apply to the TD to pass through to the DIV. .x-grid3-cell { /* TD is defaulted to word-wrap. Turn it off so it can be turned on for specific columns. */ white-space:nowrap; } .x-grid3-cell-inner { /* Inherit DIV's white-space from TD parent, since DIV's inline style is not accessible in the column definition. */ white-space:inherit; } YMMV, but it works for me, wanted to get it out there as a solution since I couldn't find a working solution by searching the Interwebs.

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  • Stuck on Object scope in Java

    - by ivor
    Hello, I'm working my way through an exercise to understand Java, and basically I need to merge the functionality of two classes into one app. I'm stuck on one area though - the referencing of objects across classes. What I have done is set up a gui in one class (test1), and this has a textfield in ie. chatLine = new JTextField(); in another class(test2), I was planning on leaving all the functionality in there and referencing the various gui elements set up in test1 - like this test1.chatLine I understand this level of referencing, I tested this by setting up a test method in the test2 class public static void testpass() { test1.testfield.setText("hello"); } I'm trying to understand how to implement the more complex functionality in test2 class though, specifically this existing code; test1.chatLine.addActionListener(new ActionAdapter() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { String s = Game.chatLine.getText(); if (!s.equals("")) { appendToChatBox("OUTGOING: " + s + "\n"); Game.chatLine.selectAll(); // Send the string sendString(s); } } }); This is the bit I'm stuck on, if I should be able to do this - as it's failing on the compile, can I add the actionadapter stuff to the gui element thats sat in test1, but do this from test2 - I'm wondering if I'm trying to do something that's not possible. Hope this makes sense, I'm pretty confused over this - I'm trying to understand how the scope and referencing works. Ideally what i'm trying to achieve is one class that has all the main stuff in, the gui etc, then all the related functionality in the other class, and target the first class's gui elements with the results etc. Any thoughts greatly appreciated.

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  • Change classes instantiated with loadNibNamed

    - by Nick H247
    I am trying to change the class of objects created with a nib with the iPhone SDK. The reason for this is; i dont know until runtime what the class is that i want the nib object to be (though they will have the same UIView based super class), and i dont want to create a different nib for every eventuality - as the .nib will be the same for each, apart from the class of one object. I have been successful, with a couple of methods, but either have some knock on effects or am unsure of how safe the methods I have used are: Method 1: Override alloc, on the super class and set a c variable to the class I require: + (id) alloc { if (theClassIWant) { id object = [theClassIWant allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; theClassIWant = nil; return object; } return [BaseClass allocWithZone:NSDefaultMallocZone()]; } this works well, and i assume is 'reasonably' safe, though if I alloc a subclass myself (without setting 'theClassIWant') - an object of the base class is created. I also dont really like the idea of overriding alloc... Method 2: use object_setClass(self,theClassIWant) in initWithCoder (before calling initWithCoder on the super class): - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder *)aDecoder { if (theClassIWant) { // the framework doesn't like this: //[self release]; //self = [theClassIWant alloc]; // whoa now! object_setClass(self,theClassIWant); theClassIWant = nil; return [self initWithCoder:aDecoder]; } if (self = [super initWithCoder:aDecoder]) { ... this also works well, but not all the subclasses are necessarily going to be the same size as the super class, so this could be very unsafe! To combat this i tried releasing and re-allocing to the correct type within initWithCoder, but i got the following error from the framework: "This coder requires that replaced objects be returned from initWithCoder:" dont quite get what this means! i am replacing an object in initWithCoder... Any comments on the validity of these methods, or suggestions of improvements or alternatives welcome!

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  • Heroku: bash: bundle: command not found

    - by Space Monkey
    My heroku deployment is crashing with following errors. 2012-12-12T17:16:18+00:00 app[web.1]: bash: bundle: command not found 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: Process exited with status 127 2012-12-12T17:16:19+00:00 heroku[web.1]: State changed from starting to crashed The Heroku documentation for this error is to set PATH and GEM variables as described in https://devcenter.heroku.com/articles/changing-ruby-version-breaks-path I tried that, however that too is not helping. ? heroku config:add PATH=bin:vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1/bin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/bin:/bin ? heroku config:add GEM_PATH=vendor/bundle/ruby/1.9.1 ? heroku run rake db:migrate Running rake db:migrate attached to terminal... up, run.7130 bash: bundle: command not found Next, I tried setting Ruby version in my Heroku app. This increased the slugsize. But app was still not up. Gemfile ruby "1.9.2" Pushed to Heroku -----> Using Ruby version: ruby-1.9.2 -----> Installing dependencies using Bundler version 1.2.2 heroku run "ruby -v" Running `ruby -v` attached to terminal... up, run.4483 ruby 1.9.2p320 (2012-04-20 revision 35421) [x86_64-linux] Can someone please advice

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  • Fastest way to modify a decimal-keyed table in MySQL?

    - by javanix
    I am dealing with a MySQL table here that is keyed in a somewhat unfortunate way. Instead of using an auto increment table as a key, it uses a column of decimals to preserve order (presumably so its not too difficult to insert new rows while preserving a primary key and order). Before I go through and redo this table to something more sane, I need to figure out how to rekey it without breaking everything. What I would like to do is something that takes a list of doubles (the current keys) and outputs a list of integers (which can be cast down to doubles for rekeying). For example, input {1.00, 2.00, 2.50, 2.60, 3.00} would give output {1, 2, 3, 4, 5). Since this is a database, I also need to be able to update the rows nicely: UPDATE table SET `key`='3.00' WHERE `key`='2.50'; Can anyone think of a speedy algorithm to do this? My current thought is to read all of the doubles into a vector, take the size of the vector, and output a new vector with values from 1 => doubleVector.size. This seems pretty slow, since you wouldn't want to read every value into the vector if, for instance, only the last n/100 elements needed to be modified. I think there is probably something I can do in place, since only values after the first non-integer double need to be modified, but I can't for the life of me figure anything out that would let me update in place as well. For instance, setting 2.60 to 3.00 the first time you see 2.50 in the original key list would result in an error, since the key value 3.00 is already used for the table.

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  • Discussion - Allowing / blocking user access to pages (Client Side Only!) - Javascript / Jquery

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR Using plain HTML / Javascript (Client Side) I want to prevent viewing of certain pages. The user will have to type a username and password and depending on that they get access to different pages. Answers can NOT include server side whatsoever It does not matter if they can break it easily. There is no sensitive information etc. Also the target audience will not have access to internet OR probably know what a cookie is... At some point the user will have to type username / password.(I can define the cookie here) Currently I thought of using cookies to set a cookie for each page to say "true" / "false" but that would get messy with so many cookies. Or setting an array within a cookie for each page? I have div field "#Content" which as it looks encompasses all of my content on the page so blocking out content will be as simple as replacing it with ("sorry you don't have access") etc. For Example: $.cookie("Access","page1, page2, page3"{ expires: 1 }); I am looking for anyway to do this does not have to be with cookies. Would be nice to get a discussion of different ways this can be done. So the question is: What do YOU think would be a good way to go about doing this with client side validation?

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  • What are the most time consuming checks performed by .NET when executing a managed appplication?

    - by ltorje
    I've developed a .NET based Windows service that uses part managed (C#) and unmanaged code (C/C++ libraries). In some domain environments (e.g. Win 2k3 32bit server inside domain abc.com) sometimes the service takes more than 30 seconds to start (especially on OS restart), thus failing to start the service. I suspect that it has something to do with enterprise level security but I do not know for sure. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa720255%28VS.71%29.aspx I've tried the following without success: - delay loading references by moving the using directives as far as possible from the servicebase implementation (especially the xml namespace - know to cause delays in loading) - delay loading and configuring log4net - precompiling the code by using ngen - delaying the start of the worker thread - add/remove manifest + decencies set inside - sign/unsign the binaries - use the configuration settings (there are a lot of settings and the scope level for all is set to application ) as later as possible - add all dependencies to GAC I didn't tried yet to add security demands for the class that has the Main method implemented. I didn't tries to implement my own configuration loader because after inspecting the autogenerated code, I've noticed that the setting class is a singletone and it gets its instance on call. By completely removing the log4net dependency it worked, but this is not an option. When the network card is disabled the service starts immediately. Any suggestions/comments/solution you have would be most welcomed.

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  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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  • How do you fix issues with the debugger for the Android plug-in for Eclipse not attaching?

    - by user279112
    I have been trying to program something for the Android mobile phone, using Eclipse and the Android plug-in for that IDE, and my debugger used to attach just fine. But then it has suddenly started having consistent issues attaching. I just get that message about how the process is waiting for the debugger attach, and then it just won't. What determines whether the attachment glitches so seems to have something to do with what the code is that I'm trying to debug, as it seems to be drastically more of an issue with some versions of my code than with others (on the same app). How do I fix this? Now before you answer, please understand that I have researched this issue already. I have found a couple of solutions that have worked with other people, but which do not work for me. One of which is setting the debuggable property in the main manifest file as true, and the other is going into Dev Tools and into some settings menu, and from there selecting the process and essentially saying to the fake phone, "Debug this process". Neither has really worked. Any other ideas? And just in case...I've run into one blasted technical issue like this after another trying to program for that stupid phone. And I'm not the only one who's having these issues; when I go online to research these issues, it is always very easy for me to find many people who have the same issues, and who are having to use the shottiest, sloppiest, most "ghetto" solutions to work around these issues. I know that many people have created good applications for that phone, but I don't see how I'm supposed to do that when the SDK and the plug-in just don't work half the time. Does anybody know how I may put all this trash behind me, once and for all? Thanks for your answers to either question!

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  • ASP.net file operations delay

    - by mtranda
    Ok, so here's the problem: I'm reading the stream from a FileUpload control, reading in chunks of n bytes and writing the array in a loop until I reach the stream's end. Now the reason I do this is because I need to check several things while the upload is still going on (rather than doing a Save(); which does the whole thing in one go). Here's the problem: when doing this from the local machine, I can see the file just fine as it's uploading and its size increases (had to add a Sleep(); clause in the loop to actually get to see the file being written). However, when I upload the file from a remote machine, I don't get to see it until the the file has completed uploading. Also, I've added another call to write the progress to a text file as the progress is going on, and I get the same thing. Local: the file updates as the upload goes on, remote: the token file only appears after the upload's done (which is somewhat useless since I need it while the upload's still happening). Is there some sort of security setting in (or ASP.net) that maybe saves files in a temporary location for remote machines as opposed to the local machine and then moves them to the specified destination? I would liken this with ASP.net displaying error messages when browsing from the local machine (even on the public hostname) as opposed to the generic compilation error page/generic exception page that is shown when browsing from a remote machine (and customErrors are not off) Any clues on this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Ruby on Rails - Primary and Foreign key

    - by Eef
    Hey, I am creating a site in Ruby on Rails, I have two models a User model and a Transaction model. These models both belong to an account so they both have a field called account_id I am trying to setup a association between them like so: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account has_many :transactions end class Transaction < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account belongs_to :user end I am using these associations like so: user = User.find(1) transactions = user.transactions At the moment the application is trying to find the transactions with the user_id, here is the SQL it generates: Mysql::Error: Unknown column 'transactions.user_id' in 'where clause': SELECT * FROM `transactions` WHERE (`transactions`.user_id = 1) This is incorrect as I would like the find the transactions via the account_id, I have tried setting the associations like so: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account has_many :transactions, :primary_key => :account_id, :class_name => "Transaction" end class Transaction < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :account belongs_to :user, :foreign_key => :account_id, :class_name => "User" end This almost achieves what I am looking to do and generates the following SQL: Mysql::Error: Unknown column 'transactions.user_id' in 'where clause': SELECT * FROM `transactions` WHERE (`transactions`.user_id = 104) The number 104 is the correct account_id but it is still trying to query the transaction table for a user_id field. Could someone give me some advice on how I setup the associations to query the transaction table for the account_id instead of the user_id resulting in a SQL query like so: SELECT * FROM `transactions` WHERE (`transactions`.account_id = 104) Cheers Eef

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  • One config file for multiple environments

    - by ho
    I'm currently working with systems that has quite a lot of configuration settings that are environment specific (Dev, UAT, Production). Does anyone have any suggestions for minimizing the changes needed to the config file when moving between environments as well as minimizing the duplication of data in the config file? It's mostly Application settings rather than User settings. The way I'm doing it at the moment is something similar to this: <DevConnectionString>xyz</DevConnectionString> <DevInboundPath>xyz</DevInboundPath> <DevProcessedPath>xyz</DevProcessedPath> <UatConnectionString>xyz</UatConnectionString> <UatInboundPath>xyz</UatInboundPath> <UatProcessedPath>xyz</UatProcessedPath> ... <Environment>Dev</Environment> And then I have a class that reads in the Environment setting via the My.Settings class (it's VB project) and then uses that to decide what other settings to retrieve. This leads to too much duplication though so I'm not sure if it's worth it.

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  • UTF8 charset, diacritical elements, conversion problems - and Zend Framework form escaping

    - by imanc
    Hey, I am writing a webapp in ZF and am having serious issues with UTF8. It's using multi lingual content through Zend Form and it seems that ZF heavily escapes all of these characters and basically just won't show a field if there's diacritical elements 'é' and if I use the HTML entity equivalent e.g. é it gets escaped so that the user will see 'é'. Zend Form allows for having non escaped data, but trying to use this is confusing, and it seems it'd need to be used all over the place. So, I have been told that if the page and the text is in UTF8, no conversion to htmlentities is required. Is this true? And if the last question is true, then how do I convert the source text to UTF8? I am comfortable setting up apache so that it sends a default UTF8 charset heading, and also adding the charset meta tag to the html, but doing this I am still getting messed up encoding. I have also tried opening the translation csv file in TextWrangler on OSX as UTF8, but it has done nothing. Thanks! L

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  • PostgreSQL, Foreign Keys, Insert speed & Django

    - by Miles
    A few days ago, I ran into an unexpected performance problem with a pretty standard Django setup. For an upcoming feature, we have to regenerate a table hourly, containing about 100k rows of data, 9M on the disk, 10M indexes according to pgAdmin. The problem is that inserting them by whatever method literally takes ages, up to 3 minutes of 100% disk busy time. That's not something you want on a production site. It doesn't matter if the inserts were in a transaction, issued via plain insert, multi-row insert, COPY FROM or even INSERT INTO t1 SELECT * FROM t2. After noticing this isn't Django's fault, I followed a trial and error route, and hey, the problem disappeared after dropping all foreign keys! Instead of 3 minutes, the INSERT INTO SELECT FROM took less than a second to execute, which isn't too surprising for a table <= 20M on the disk. What is weird is that PostgreSQL manages to slow down inserts by 180x just by using 3 foreign keys. Oh, disk activity was pure writing, as everything is cached in RAM; only writes go to the disks. It looks like PostgreSQL is working very hard to touch every row in the referred tables, as 3MB/sec * 180s is way more data than the 20MB this new table takes on disk. No WAL for the 180s case, I was testing in psql directly, in Django, add ~50% overhead for WAL logging. Tried @commit_on_success, same slowness, I had even implemented multi row insert and COPY FROM with psycopg2. That's another weird thing, how can 10M worth of inserts generate 10x 16M log segments? Table layout: id serial primary, a bunch of int32, 3 foreign keys to small table, 198 rows, 16k on disk large table, 1.2M rows, 59 data + 89 index MB on disk large table, 2.2M rows, 198 + 210MB So, am I doomed to either drop the foreign keys manually or use the table in a very un-Django way by defining saving bla_id x3 and skip using models.ForeignKey? I'd love to hear about some magical antidote / pg setting to fix this.

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  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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  • ASP.NET web setup class is not defined

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I've got an ASP.NET application that I installed by creating a web setup. I ran into a problem where ASP.NET wasn't registered with IIS so it gave me a "installation was interrupted" message that told me exactly nothing. Anyhow, I finally got it installed, and I can access the main page, but it's telling me that my class isn't defined. The dll is in the same directory as the Default.aspx page Here's the main error information Compiler Error Message: BC30002: Type 'SIValidator.SIValidator' is not defined. Source Error: Line 4: Line 5: <script runat="server"> Line 6: Dim validator As New SIValidator.SIValidator() Line 7: Protected table As New arrayList() Line 8: Protected countyByDistrict As New Hashtable() Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.1873; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.1433 Am I doing it wrong? Is there some obscure setting that may not be set? I'm completely new to this VS deployment deal, so I'm trying to learn the right terms to ask the right questions... Thanks for any help edit: As an aside, when I searched google 5 minutes later, this entry came up as the first result. Would have been awesome if there was an answer for me then :P

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  • How to simulate OutOfMemory exception

    - by Gacek
    I need to refactor my project in order to make it immune to OutOfMemory exception. There are huge collections used in my project and by changing one parameter I can make my program to be more accurate or use less of the memory... OK, that's the background. What I would like to do is to run the routines in a loop: Run the subroutines with the default parameter. Catch the OutOfMemory exception, change the parameter and try to run it again. Do the 2nd point until parameters allow to run the subroutines without throwing the exception (usually, there will be only one change needed). Now, I would like to test it. I know, that I can throw the OutOfMemory exception on my own, but I would like to simulate some real situation. So the main question is: Is there a way of setting some kind of memory limit for my program, after reaching which the OutOfMemory exception will be thrown automatically? For example, I would like to set a limit, let's say 400MB of memory for my whole program to simulate the situation when there is such an amount of memory available in the system. Can it be done?

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  • Baffled by differences between WPF BitmapEncoders

    - by DanM
    I wrote a little utility class that saves BitmapSource objects to image files. The image files can be either bmp, jpeg, or png. Here is the code: public class BitmapProcessor { public void SaveAsBmp(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new BmpBitmapEncoder()); } public void SaveAsJpg(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new JpegBitmapEncoder()); } public void SaveAsPng(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path) { Save(bitmapSource, path, new PngBitmapEncoder()); } private void Save(BitmapSource bitmapSource, string path, BitmapEncoder encoder) { using (var stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create)) { encoder.Frames.Add(BitmapFrame.Create(bitmapSource)); encoder.Save(stream); } } } Each of the three Save methods work, but I get unexpected results with bmp and jpeg. Png is the only format that produces an exact reproduction of what I see if I show the BitmapSource on screen using a WPF Image control. Here are the results: BMP - too dark JPEG - too saturated PNG - correct Why am I getting completely different results for different file types? I should note that the BitmapSource in my example uses an alpha value of 0.1 (which is why it appears very desaturated), but it should be possible to show the resulting colors in any image format. I know if I take a screen capture using something like HyperSnap, it will look correct regardless of what file type I save to. Here's a HyperSnap screen capture saved as a bmp: As you can see, this isn't a problem, so there's definitely something strange about WPF's image encoders. Do I have a setting wrong? Am I missing something?

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  • Magic Methods in Python

    - by dArignac
    Howdy, I'm kind of new to Python and I wonder if there is a way to create something like the magic methods in PHP (http://www.php.net/manual/en/language.oop5.overloading.php#language.oop5.overloading.methods) My aim is to ease the access of child classes in my model. I basically have a parent class that has n child classes. These classes have three values, a language key, a translation key and a translation value. The are describing a kind of generic translation handling. The parent class can have translations for different translation key each in different languages. E.g. the key "title" can be translated into german and english and the key "description" too (and so far and so on) I don't want to get the child classes and filter by the set values (at least I want but not explicitly, the concrete implementation behind the magic method would do this). I want to call parent_class.title['de'] # or also possible maybe parent_class.title('de') for getting the translation of title in german (de). So there has to be a magic method that takes the name of the called method and their params (as in PHP). As far as I dug into Python this is only possible with simple attributes (_getattr_, _setattr_) or with setting/getting directly within the class (_getitem_, _setitem_) which both do not fit my needs. Maybe there is a solution for this? Please help! Thanks in advance!

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  • Ajaxcontrol toolkit ConfirmButtonExtender with radiobuttonlist control

    - by chugh97
    I have a Yes/No Radiobutton List, When the asp.net page is loaded, if there are items in the gridview this radio is defaulted to Yes. Now if the user clicks no, I have to delete all the items for the gridview and persist them in db. But I want to show a confimation whether the user wants to go ahead doing this operation. If user clciks Yes then go ahead and delete the rows in gridview if no then keep the original radio setting to Yes. I have been struggling to get this to work as the ConfirmButtonExtender which opens up a modalpopup extender even before I know what has been clicked on the radio. If the radio is preselected with Yes, then if I clcik no, the Modal extender is shown and in the Page PreRender event handler the value of the radio is still Yes and not No as extender is run on click using ajax and it doesnt know the correct value of the radio.Even if I use onClick client side javascript to find out which option has been chosen the difficulty is then executing the server side delete command to the db. Has anyone enconuntered this problem before? Any solutions would be appreciated.

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  • IE 8 issue where window.close() is not occuring after winword.exe is fired to print a document

    - by Dave
    In my web application, a popup page is called using window.open javascript. There is a Print button on the page that has an onclick event that calls a printchecks() function. The code in the printchecks() function is function printchecks(){ window.print(); window.close(); } Issue is that the window.print brings up the printer dialog fine and then you select a printer. The page is actually then printed and is a reference to an rtf document that opens in winword.exe behind the scenes. For some reason in IE 8, the window.close() does not occur. This worked in IE 7. In both cases, WINWORD.EXE process appears to run in the background after the page is printed but in the case of IE 8, control is not give back to that popup page until the WINWORD.EXE process dies which takes a minute or so. I am thinking that becasue control is not being sent back to the page in IE 8, the page is not closed automatically. You can close the page after control is given back after the minute or so. This does happen in IE on both Windows XP and Windows 7. Any ideas if there is a setting in IE 8 or some other reason this may be occuring?

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  • Multiple elements with the same name with SimpleXML and Java

    - by LouieGeetoo
    I'm trying to use SimpleXML to parse an XML document (an ItemLookupResponse for a book from the Amazon Product Advertising API) which contains the following element: <ItemAttributes> <Author>Shane Conder</Author> <Author>Lauren Darcey</Author> <Manufacturer>Pearson Educacion</Manufacturer> <ProductGroup>Book</ProductGroup> <Title>Android Wireless Application Development: Barnes & Noble Special Edition</Title> </ItemAttributes> My problem is that I don't know how to deal with the multiple possible Author elements. Here's what I have right now for the corresponding POJO (Plain Old Java Object), keeping in mind that it's not handling the case of multiple Authors: @Element public class ItemAttributes { @Element public String Author; @Element public String Manufacturer; @Element public String Title; } (I don't care about the ProductGroup, so it's not in the class -- I'm just setting SimpleXML's strict mode to off to allow for that.) I couldn't find an example in the documentation that corresponded with such a case. Using an ElementList with (inline=true) seemed along the right lines, but I didn't see how to do it for String (as opposed to a separate Author class, which I have no need for and don't see how it would even work). Here's a similar question and answer, but for PHP: php - simpleXML how to access a specific element with the same name as others? I don't know what the Java equivalent would be to the accepted answer. Thanks in advance.

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  • Why do I get two clicked or released signals when using a custom slot for a QPushButton ?

    - by Chris
    here's the main code at first I thought is was the message box but setting a label instead has the same effect. #include <time.h> #include "ui_mainwindow.h" #include <QMessageBox> class MainWindow : public QWidget, private Ui::MainWindow { Q_OBJECT public: MainWindow(QWidget *parent = 0); void makeSum(void); private: int r1; int r2; private slots: void on_pushButton_released(void); }; MainWindow::MainWindow(QWidget *parent) : QWidget(parent) { setupUi(this); } void MainWindow::on_pushButton_released(void) { bool ok; int a = lineEdit->text().toInt(&ok, 10); if (ok) { if (r1+r2==a) { QMessageBox::information( this, "Sums","Correct!" ); } else { QMessageBox::information( this, "Sums","Wrong!" ); } } else { QMessageBox::information( this, "Sums","You need to enter a number" ); } makeSum(); } void MainWindow::makeSum(void) { r1 = rand() % 10 + 1; r2 = rand() % 10 + 1; label->setText(QString::number(r1)); label_3->setText(QString::number(r2)); } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { srand ( time(NULL) ); QApplication app(argc, argv); MainWindow mw; mw.makeSum(); mw.show(); return app.exec(); } #include "main.moc"

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  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

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