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  • Mac - Flash file not loaded in independent flash player

    - by Mugdha
    Hi, I am working on an independent application to play flash files on Mac. I have already done the same for Linux, and it works flawlessly but on mac for some reason flash is not drawing to my window. It is not throwing any kind of error too. I am using Flash player 10, that would mean that I am using the Core Graphics drawing model. I am able to send mouse events to flash and wrote a sample plugin to check if there was a problem in the context that I was sending, but my sample plugin draws properly to the window. I am getting a call for NPN_InvalidateRect twice and as a response I send an update Event back to flash. I drew a dummy rectangle to check that my context is correct. I have flipped the context to make the origin as top left corner. On doing right click on the debug version of the flash player it shows the following message: "Movie not loaded..." Can anyone give me any idea why is the content not being drawn? I would really appreciate the help, as I have been struggling with it for more than a month now. Here is a small log of the interaction that I have with flash: NPN_UserAgent Called NPN_GetValue Called with variable NPNVWindowNPObject; return NULL NPN_GetValue Called with variable NPNVWindowNPObject; return NULL NPN_GetValue Called with variable NPNVSupportsWindowless; return true NPN_SetValue Called for Variable - NPPVpluginTransparentBool; return true NPN_GetValue Called with variable NPNVsupportsCoreGraphicsBool; return true NPN_SetValue Called for Variable - NPNVpluginDrawingModel NPP_SetWindow (CoreGraphics): 0, window=0xebaa90, context=0xe4c930, window.x:0 window.y:22 window.width:480 window.height:270 NPP_HandleEvent(activateEvent) accepted:0 isActive: 1 NPP_HandleEvent(updateEvt) accepted: 1 NPN_UserAgent Called NPN_GetURLNotify Called with URL - javascript:top.location+"flashplugin_unique" NPN_GetValue Called with variable NPNVWindowNPObject; return NULL NPP_NewStream URL=/Users/mjain/Desktop/clock.swf MIME=application/x-shockwave-flash error=0 NPP_WriteReady responseURL=/Users/mjain/Desktop/clock.swf bytes=268435455 NPN_InvalidateRect Called NPP_Write responseURL=/Users/mjain/Desktop/clock.swf bytes=9925 total-delivered=9925/9925 NPP_WriteReady responseURL=/Users/mjain/Desktop/clock.swf bytes=268435455 NPP_DestroyStream responseURL=/Users/mjain/Desktop/clock.swf error=0 NPP_HandleEvent(updateEvt) accepted: 1 NPN_InvalidateRect Called NPP_HandleEvent(updateEvt) accepted: 1 NPP_NewStream URL=javascript:top.location+"flashplugin_unique" MIME=text/plain error=0 NPP_WriteReady responseURL=javascript:top.location+"flashplugin_unique" bytes=16000 NPN_UserAgent Called NPP_Write responseURL=javascript:top.location+"flashplugin_unique" bytes=52 total-delivered=52/52 NPP_WriteReady responseURL=javascript:top.location+"flashplugin_unique" bytes=16000 NPP_DestroyStream responseURL=javascript:top.location+"flashplugin_unique" error=0 NPP_URLNotify responseURL=javascript:top.location+"flashplugin_unique" reason=0 Thanks Mugdha.

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  • Configuring multiple distinct WCF binding configurations causes an exception to be thrown

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I have a set of IIS7-hosted net.tcp WCF services that serve my ASP.NET MVC web application. The web application is accessed over the internet. WCF Services (IIS7) <--> ASP.NET MVC Application <--> Client Browser The services are username authenticated, the account that a client (of my web application) uses to logon ends up as the current principal on the host. I want one of the services to be authenticated differently, because it serves the view model for my logon view. When it's called, the client is obviously not logged on yet. I figure Windows authentication serves best or perhaps just certificate based security (which in fact I should use for the authenticated services as well) if the services are hosted on a machine that is not in the same domain as the web application. That's not the point here though. Using multiple TCP bindings is what's giving me trouble. I tried setting it up like this: <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> <binding name="public"> <security mode="Transport"> <message clientCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> The thing is that both bindings don't seem to want live together in my host. When I remove either of them, all's fine but together they produce the following exception on the client: The requested upgrade is not supported by 'net.tcp://localhost:8081/Service2.svc'. This could be due to mismatched bindings (for example security enabled on the client and not on the server). In the server trace log, I find the following exception: Protocol Type application/negotiate was sent to a service that does not support that type of upgrade. Am I looking into the right direction or is there a better way to solve this?

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  • Using multiple distinct TCP security binding configurations in a single WCF IIS-hosted WCF service a

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I have a set of IIS7-hosted net.tcp WCF services that serve my ASP.NET MVC web application. The web application is accessed over the internet. WCF Services (IIS7) <--> ASP.NET MVC Application <--> Client Browser The services are username authenticated, the account that a client (of my web application) uses to logon ends up as the current principal on the host. I want one of the services to be authenticated differently, because it serves the view model for my logon view. When it's called, the client is obviously not logged on yet. I figure Windows authentication serves best or perhaps just certificate based security (which in fact I should use for the authenticated services as well) if the services are hosted on a machine that is not in the same domain as the web application. That's not the point here though. Using multiple TCP bindings is what's giving me trouble. I tried setting it up like this: <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> <binding name="public"> <security mode="Transport"> <message clientCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> The thing is that both bindings don't seem to want live together in my host. When I remove either of them, all's fine but together they produce the following exception on the client: The requested upgrade is not supported by 'net.tcp://localhost:8081/Service2.svc'. This could be due to mismatched bindings (for example security enabled on the client and not on the server). In the server trace log, I find the following exception: Protocol Type application/negotiate was sent to a service that does not support that type of upgrade. Am I looking into the right direction or is there a better way to solve this?

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  • Spring rejecting bean name, no URL paths specified

    - by richever
    I am trying to register an interceptor using a annotation-driven controller configuration. As far as I can tell, I've done everything correctly but when I try testing the interceptor nothing happens. After looking in the logs I found the following: 2010-04-04 20:06:18,231 DEBUG [main] support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory (AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:452) - Finished creating instance of bean 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0' 2010-04-04 20:06:18,515 DEBUG [main] handler.AbstractDetectingUrlHandlerMapping (AbstractDetectingUrlHandlerMapping.java:86) - Rejected bean name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': no URL paths identified 2010-04-04 20:06:19,109 DEBUG [main] support.AbstractBeanFactory (AbstractBeanFactory.java:241) - Returning cached instance of singleton bean 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0' Look at the second line of this log snippet. Is Spring rejecting the DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping bean? And if so could this be the problem with my interceptor not working? Here is my application context: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <!-- Configures the @Controller programming model --> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <!-- Scan for annotations... --> <context:component-scan base-package=" com.splash.web.controller, com.splash.web.service, com.splash.web.authentication"/> <bean id="authorizedUserInterceptor" class="com.splash.web.handler.AuthorizedUserInterceptor"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"> <property name="interceptors"> <list> <ref bean="authorizedUserInterceptor"/> </list> </property> </bean> Here is my interceptor: package com.splash.web.handler; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.Autowired; import org.springframework.web.servlet.handler.HandlerInterceptorAdapter; public class AuthorizedUserInterceptor extends HandlerInterceptorAdapter { @Override public boolean preHandle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object handler) throws Exception { log.debug(">>> Operation intercepted..."); return true; } } Does anyone see anything wrong with this? What does the error I mentioned above actually mean and could it have any bearing on the interceptor not being called? Thanks!

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  • Extjs internet explorer object not found problem.

    - by john misoskian
    hi; this code run firefox , but error on ie why ? please help me. xxx.js code: var gridFormf = new Ext.FormPanel({ id: 'company-form', frame: true, labelAlign: 'left', title: 'Is Emri', bodyStyle:'padding:5px', width: 1, tbar: [ newIsEmri,delIsEmri,edIsEmri,rapIsEmri,serIsEmri ], layout: 'column', // Specifies that the items will now be arranged in columns items: [ { columnWidth: 0.3, layout: 'fit', items: [{ columnWidth: 1, xtype: 'fieldset', labelWidth: 90, title:'Ekip / Servis', defaults: {width: 120, border:false}, // Default config options for child items defaultType: 'textfield', autoHeight: true, bodyStyle: Ext.isIE ? 'padding:0 0 5px 15px;' : 'padding:10px 15px;', border: true, style: { "margin-left": "10px", // when you add custom margin in IE 6... "margin-right": Ext.isIE6 ? (Ext.isStrict ? "-10px" : "-13px") : "0" // you have to adjust for it somewhere else }, items: [{ fieldLabel: 'Ekip / Personel', name: 'SERVIS_VEREN' }] },{ columnWidth: 1, xtype: 'fieldset', labelWidth: 90, title:'Ürün', defaults: {width: 120, border:false}, // Default config options for child items defaultType: 'textfield', autoHeight: true, bodyStyle: Ext.isIE ? 'padding:0 0 5px 15px;' : 'padding:10px 15px;', border: true, style: { "margin-left": "10px", // when you add custom margin in IE 6... "margin-right": Ext.isIE6 ? (Ext.isStrict ? "-10px" : "-13px") : "0" // you have to adjust for it somewhere else }, items: [{ fieldLabel: 'Cihaz', name: 'URUN_CIHAZ_ADI' }, { fieldLabel: 'Marka', name: 'URUN_MARKA_ADI' }, { fieldLabel: 'Model', name: 'URUN_MODEL_ADI' },{ fieldLabel: 'Seri No', name: 'URUN_SERI_NO' } ] }] },{ columnWidth: 0.3, layout: 'fit', items: [{ columnWidth: 1, xtype: 'fieldset', labelWidth: 90, title: 'Servis Gelis Türü', defaults: { width: 140, border: false }, // Default config options for child items defaultType: 'textfield', autoHeight: true, bodyStyle: Ext.isIE ? 'padding:0 0 5px 15px;' : 'padding:10px 15px;', border: true, style: { "margin-left": "10px", // when you add custom margin in IE 6... "margin-right": Ext.isIE6 ? (Ext.isStrict ? "-10px" : "-13px") : "0" // you have to adjust for it somewhere else }, items: [{ fieldLabel: 'Gelis Türü', name: 'SERVIS_GELIS_TURU' }] },RadioPanels ] },{ columnWidth: 0.3, layout: 'fit', items: [{ columnWidth:1, autoHeight: true, border: true, items: [gridAksesuar] },gridAriza,{ columnWidth: 1, xtype: 'textarea', labelWidth: 0, width:250, defaultType: 'textarea', autoHeight: true, border: false, name:'ARIZA_ACIKLAMASI' }] },{ columnWidth: 1.0, layout: 'fit', items: gridFormx }] }); My html code : <script src="/ApplicationJs/xxx.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> Ext.onReady(function() { var viewport = new Ext.Viewport({ layout:'fit', items: [gridFormf] }); </script> Internet explorer return to error. Error description is object gridFormf is not found.

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  • xmlns="> was not expected

    - by Anthony Shaw
    OK. I'm trying to work on communicating with the Pivotal Tracker API, which only returns data in an XML format. I have the following XML that I'm trying to deserialize into my domain model. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"? <stories type="array" count="2" total="2" <story <id type="integer"2909137</id <project_id type="integer"68153</project_id <story_typebug</story_type <urlhttp://www.pivotaltracker.com/story/show/2909137</url <current_stateunscheduled</current_state <description</description <nameTest #2</name <requested_byAnthony Shaw</requested_by <created_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:58 EDT</created_at <updated_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:58 EDT</updated_at </story <story <id type="integer"2909135</id <project_id type="integer"68153</project_id <story_typefeature</story_type <urlhttp://www.pivotaltracker.com/story/show/2909135</url <estimate type="integer"-1</estimate <current_stateunscheduled</current_state <description</description <nameTest #1</name <requested_byAnthony Shaw</requested_by <created_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:53 EDT</created_at <updated_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:53 EDT</updated_at </story </stories My 'story' object is created as follows: public class story { public int id { get; set; } public int estimate { get; set; } public int project_id { get; set; } public string story_type { get; set; } public string url { get; set; } public string current_state { get; set; } public string description { get; set; } public string name { get; set; } public string requested_by { get; set; } public string labels { get; set; } public string lighthouse_id { get; set; } public string lighthouse_url { get; set; } public string owned_by { get; set; } public string accepted_at { get; set; } public string created_at { get; set; } public attachment[] attachments { get; set; } public note[] notes { get; set; } } When I execute my deserialization code, I receive the following exception: Exception: There is an error in XML document (2, 2). Inner Exception: <stories xmlns='' was not expected. I can deserialize the individual stories just fine, I just cannot deserialize this xml into an array of 'story' objects And my serialization code var byteArray = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(value); var stream = new MemoryStream(byteArray); var deserializedObject = new XmlSerializer(typeof (story[])).Deserialize(stream) Does anybody have any ideas?

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  • Using Wicked with Devise for a sign up wizard

    - by demondeac11
    I am using devise with wicked to create a sign up wizard, but I am unsure about a problem I am having creating profiles. After a user provides their email & password they are forwarded to a step to create a profile based on whether they have specified they are a shipper or carrier. However I am unsure what the code should be in the controller and the forms to generically create a profile. Here is the code I have for the application: The steps controller: class UserStepsController < ApplicationController include Wicked::Wizard steps :carrier_profile, :shipper_profile def create @user = User.last case step when :carrier_profile @profile = CarrierProfile.create!(:dot => params[:dot]) if @profile.save render_wizard @user else flash[:alert] = "Record not saved" end when :shipper_profile @profile = ShipperProfile.create!(params[:shipper_profile) if @profile.save render_wizard @user else flash[:alert] = "Record not saved" end end end end end def show @user = User.last @carrier_profile = CarrierProfile.new @shipper_profile = ShipperProfile.new case step when :carrier_profile skip_step if @user.shipper? when :shipper_profile skip_step if @user.carrier? end render_wizard end end The form for a carrier profile: <% form_for @carrier_profile , url: wizard_path, method: :post do |f| %> <div> <%= f.label :dot, "Please enter your DOT Number:" %> <%= f.text_field :dot %> </div> <%= f.submit "Next Step", class: "btn btn-primary" %> <% end %> The form for a shipper profile: <% form_for @shipper_profile , url: wizard_path, method: :post do |f| %> <div> <%= f.label :company_name, "What is your company name?" %> <%= f.text_field :company_name %> </div> <%= f.submit "Next Step", class: "btn btn-primary" %> <% end %> The user model: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :carrier_profile has_one :shipper_profile end How would I be able to write a generic new and create method to handle creating both profiles? With the current code it is stating that the user_steps controller has no POST method, although if I run rake routes I find that this is untrue.

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  • Ajax call to wcf windows service over ssl (https)

    - by bpatrick100
    I have a windows service which exposes an endpoint over http. Again this is a windows service (not a web service hosted in iis). I then call methods from this endpoint, using javascript/ajax. Everything works perfectly, and this the code I'm using in my windows service to create the endpoint: //Create host object WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri("http://192.168.0.100:1213")); //Add Https Endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(svcHost.serviceContract, binding, string.Empty); //Add MEX Behaivor and EndPoint ServiceMetadataBehavior metadataBehavior = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); metadataBehavior.HttpGetEnabled = true; webServiceHost.Description.Behaviors.Add(metadataBehavior); webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(ServiceMetadataBehavior.MexContractName, MetadataExchangeBindings.CreateMexHttpBinding(), "mex"); webServiceHost.Open(); Now, my goal is to get this same model working over SSL (https not http). So, I have followed the guidance of several msdn pages, like the following: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms733791(VS.100).aspx I have used makecert.exe to create a test cert called "bpCertTest". I have then used netsh.exe to configure my port (1213) with the test cert I created, all with no problem. Then, I've modified the endpoint code in my windows service to be able to work over https as follows: //Create host object WebServiceHost webServiceHost = new WebServiceHost(svcHost.obj, new Uri("https://192.168.0.100:1213")); //Add Https Endpoint WebHttpBinding binding = new WebHttpBinding(); binding.Security.Mode = WebHttpSecurityMode.Transport; binding.Security.Transport.ClientCredentialType = HttpClientCredentialType.Certificate; webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(svcHost.serviceContract, binding, string.Empty); webServiceHost.Credentials.ServiceCertificate.SetCertificate("CN=bpCertTest", StoreLocation.LocalMachine, StoreName.My); //Add MEX Behaivor and EndPoint ServiceMetadataBehavior metadataBehavior = new ServiceMetadataBehavior(); metadataBehavior.HttpsGetEnabled = true; webServiceHost.Description.Behaviors.Add(metadataBehavior); webServiceHost.AddServiceEndpoint(ServiceMetadataBehavior.MexContractName, MetadataExchangeBindings.CreateMexHttpsBinding(), "mex"); webServiceHost.Open(); The service creates the endpoint successfully, recognizes my cert in the SetCertificate() call, and the service starts up and running with success. Now, the problem is my javascript/ajax call cannot communicate with the service over https. I simply get some generic commication error (12031). So, as a test, I changed the port I was calling in the javascript to some other random port, and I get the same error - which tells me that I'm obviously not even reaching my service over https. I'm at a complete loss at this point, I feel like everything is in place, and I just can't see what the problem is. If anyone has experience in this scenario, please provide your insight and/or solution! Thanks!

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  • Long-running ASP.NET tasks

    - by John Leidegren
    I know there's a bunch of APIs out there that do this, but I also know that the hosting environment (being ASP.NET) puts restrictions on what you can reliably do in a separate thread. I could be completely wrong, so please correct me if I am, this is however what I think I know. A request typically timeouts after 120 seconds (this is configurable) but eventually the ASP.NET runtime will kill a request that's taking too long to complete. The hosting environment, typically IIS, employs process recycling and can at any point decide to recycle your app. When this happens all threads are aborted and the app restarts. I'm however not sure how aggressive it is, it would be kind of stupid to assume that it would abort a normal ongoing HTTP request but I would expect it to abort a thread because it doesn't know anything about the unit of work of a thread. If you had to create a programming model that easily and reliably and theoretically put a long running task, that would have to run for days, how would you accomplish this from within an ASP.NET application? The following are my thoughts on the issue: I've been thinking a long the line of hosting a WCF service in a win32 service. And talk to the service through WCF. This is however not very practical, because the only reason I would choose to do so, is to send tasks (units of work) from several different web apps. I'd then eventually ask the service for status updates and act accordingly. My biggest concern with this is that it would NOT be a particular great experience if I had to deploy every task to the service for it to be able to execute some instructions. There's also this issue of input, how would I feed this service with data if I had a large data set and needed to chew through it? What I typically do right now is this SELECT TOP 10 * FROM WorkItem WITH (ROWLOCK, UPDLOCK, READPAST) WHERE WorkCompleted IS NULL It allows me to use a SQL Server database as a work queue and periodically poll the database with this query for work. If the work item completed with success, I mark it as done and proceed until there's nothing more to do. What I don't like is that I could theoretically be interrupted at any point and if I'm in-between success and marking it as done, I could end up processing the same work item twice. I might be a bit paranoid and this might be all fine but as I understand it there's no guarantee that that won't happen... I know there's been similar questions on SO before but non really answers with a definitive answer. This is a really common thing, yet the ASP.NET hosting environment is ill equipped to handle long-running work. Please share your thoughts.

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  • MinGW/G++/g95 link problem - libf95 undefined reference to `MAIN_'

    - by pivakaka
    Hi folks, Summing up, my problem consists on compiling g95 objects inside a C++ application. Actually, I'm constructing an interface for an old fortran program. For this task, I'm using the wxWidgets GUI library, and calling fortran subroutines when necessary. At the beginning, I was developing the entire project compiling my fortran files with gfortran (which comes with GCC) and linking them with my app by the g++ -o... command. Everything was working fine but some numbers values calculated by my fotran subroutines returned NAN values. Doing some research, I realized that compiling my fortran files with gfortran with the -m32 flag, generates this NAN values problem. Although compiling with -m64 flag, my code works properly well. The only trouble here is that my App should be 32bits and then I tryed another compiller. Here I found g95 Fortran compiler, which compiles my fortran code and gives the right output on a 32bits environment. But when I'm trying to link these g95 objects into my program I see this following error: g++ -oCyclonTechTower.exe src\fortran\Modulo_Global.o src\fortran\Prop_Fisicas.o src\fortran\inversa.o src\fortran\tower.o src\fortran\PredadeCarga.o src\fortran\gota.o src\fortran\tadi.o src\view\SimulationORSATCustomDialog.o src\view\SimulationChildGUIFrame.o src\view\ParentGUIFrame.o src\view\ClientGUIFrame.o src\model\TowerData.o src\controller\SimulationController.o src\THEIACyclonTechTower.o ..\Resource\resource.o -Lc:\wxWidgets-2.6.4\lib -Lc:\MinGW\lib\gcc-lib\i686-pc-mingw32\4.1.2 -Bdynamic -Wl,--subsystem,windows -mwindows c:\wxWidgets-2.6.4\lib\libwx_mswu-2.6.a -lwxregexu-2.6 -lwxexpat-2.6 -lwxtiff-2.6 -lwxjpeg-2.6 -lwxpng-2.6 -lwxzlib-2.6 -lrpcrt4 -loleaut32 -lole32 -luuid -lwinspool -lwinmm -lshell32 -lcomctl32 -lcomdlg32 -lctl3d32 -ladvapi32 -lwsock32 -lgdi32 -lgcc -lf95 c:\MinGW\lib\gcc-lib\i686-pc-mingw32\4.1.2/libf95.a(main.o):(.text+0x32): undefined reference to `MAIN_' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Build error occurred, build is stopped Time consumed: 1531 ms. I have already read the g95 Manual for integration with C++ and I'm actually calling these functions bellow for controlling the fortran environment: void g95_runtime_start(int argc, char *argv[]); void g95_runtime_stop(); I also included the g95 Fortran Runtime Library libf95.a and the libgcc.a into my linker command. Finishing, I don't have a main method implemented because this is managed by wxWidgets, and my fortran subroutines can not have a main function because this is a C++ program calling fortran functions. Can some of you guys help me with this problem? How can I fix this undefined reference to MAIN__ problem? Any idea will be much appreciated. Thanks in advance, George

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  • Pinning a Java application to the Windows 7 taskbar

    - by Paul Lammertsma
    Original question I use Launch4j as a wrapper for my Java application under Windows 7, which, to my understanding, in essence forks an instance of javaw.exe that in turn interprets the Java code. As a result, when attempting to pin my application to the task bar, Windows instead pins javaw.exe. Without the required command line, my application will then not run. As you can see, Windows also does not realize that Java is the host application: the application itself is described as "Java(TM) Platform SE binary". I have tried altering the registry key HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\Applications\javaw.exe to add the value IsHostApp. This alters the behavior by disabling pinning of my application altogether; clearly not what I want. After reading about how Windows interprets instances of a single application (and a phenomenon discussed in this question), I became interested in embedding a Application User Model ID (AppUserModelID) into my Java application. I believe that I can resolve this by passing a unique AppUserModelID to Windows. There is a shell32 method for this, SetAppID(). (Or SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID?) Is it possible to call it via JNI? If so, would this even resolve the issue? On a side note, I was curious if any of the APIs discussed in this article could be implemented for a Java application. Edit after implementing JNA, as Gregory Pakosz suggested I've now implemented the following in an attempt to have my application recognized as a separate instance of javaw.exe: NativeLibrary lib; try { lib = NativeLibrary.getInstance("shell32"); } catch (Error e) { Logger.out.error("Could not load Shell32 library."); return; } Object[] args = { "Vendor.MyJavaApplication" }; String functionName = "SetCurrentProcessExplicitAppUserModelID"; try { Function function = lib.getFunction(functionName); int ret = function.invokeInt(args); if (ret != 0) { Logger.out.error(function.getName() + " returned error code " + ret + "."); } } catch (UnsatisfiedLinkError e) { Logger.out.error(functionName + " was not found in " + lib.getFile().getName() + "."); // Function not supported } This appears to have no effect, but the function returns without error. Diagnosing why is something of a mystery to me. Any suggestions? Working implementation The final implementation that worked is the answer to my follow-up question concerning how to pass the AppID using JNA. I had awarded the bounty to Gregory Pakosz' brilliant answer for JNI that set me on the right track.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Updating a Linq-To-Sql Entity with an EntitySet

    - by Simon
    I have a Linq to Sql Entity which has an EntitySet. In my View I display the Entity with it's properties plus an editable list for the child entites. The user can dynamically add and delete those child entities. The DefaultModelBinder works fine so far, it correctly binds the child entites. Now my problem is that I just can't get Linq To Sql to delete the deleted child entities, it will happily add new ones but not delete the deleted ones. I have enabled cascade deleting in the foreign key relationship, and the Linq To Sql designer added the "DeleteOnNull=true" attribute to the foreign key relationships. If I manually delete a child entity like this: myObject.Childs.Remove(child); context.SubmitChanges(); This will delete the child record from the DB. But I can't get it to work for a model binded object. I tried the following: // this does nothing public ActionResult Update(int id, MyObject obj) // obj now has 4 child entities { var obj2 = _repository.GetObj(id); // obj2 has 6 child entities if(TryUpdateModel(obj2)) //it sucessfully updates obj2 and its childs { _repository.SubmitChanges(); // nothing happens, records stay in DB } else ..... return RedirectToAction("List"); } and this throws an InvalidOperationException, I have a german OS so I'm not exactly sure what the error message is in english, but it says something along the lines of that the entity needs a Version (Timestamp row?) or no update check policies. I have set UpdateCheck="Never" to every column except the primary key column. public ActionResult Update(MyObject obj) { _repository.MyObjectTable.Attach(obj, true); _repository.SubmitChanges(); // never gets here, exception at attach } I've read alot about similar "problems" with Linq To Sql, but it seems most of those "problems" are actually by design. So am I right in my assumption that this doesn't work like I expect it to work? Do I really have to manually iterate through the child entities and delete, update and insert them manually? For such a simple object this may work, but I plan to create more complex objects with nested EntitySets and so on. This is just a test to see what works and what not. So far I'm disappointed with Linq To Sql (maybe I just don't get it). Would be the Entity Framework or NHibernate a better choice for this scenario? Or would I run into the same problem?

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  • ADO.NET Data Services Entity Framework request error when property setter is internal

    - by Jim Straatman
    I receive an error message when exposing an ADO.NET Data Service using an Entity Framework data model that contains an entity (called "Case") with an internal setter on a property. If I modify the setter to be public (using the entity designer), the data services works fine. I don’t need the entity "Case" exposed in the data service, so I tried to limit which entities are exposed using SetEntitySetAccessRule. This didn’t work, and service end point fails with the same error. public static void InitializeService(IDataServiceConfiguration config) { config.SetEntitySetAccessRule("User", EntitySetRights.AllRead); } The error message is reported in a browser when the .svc endpoint is called. It is very generic, and reads “Request Error. The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.” Unfortunately, there are no entries in the System and Application event logs. I found this stackoverflow question that shows how to configure tracing on the service. After doing so, the following NullReferenceExceptoin error was reported in the trace log. Does anyone know how to avoid this exception when including an entity with an internal setter? Blockquote 131076 3 0 2 MOTOJIM http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-US/library/System.ServiceModel.Diagnostics.TraceHandledException.aspx Handling an exception. 685a2910-19-128703978432492675 System.NullReferenceException, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.CreateProvider(Type dataServiceType, Object dataSourceInstance, DataServiceConfiguration&amp; configuration) at System.Data.Services.DataService1.EnsureProviderAndConfigForRequest() at System.Data.Services.DataService1.ProcessRequestForMessage(Stream messageBody) at SyncInvokeProcessRequestForMessage(Object , Object[] , Object[] ) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.SyncMethodInvoker.Invoke(Object instance, Object[] inputs, Object[]&amp; outputs) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.DispatchOperationRuntime.InvokeBegin(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage5(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage3(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage2(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage1(MessageRpc&amp; rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) </StackTrace> <ExceptionString>System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMemberMetadata(ResourceType resourceType, MetadataWorkspace workspace, IDictionary2 entitySets, IDictionary2 knownTypes) at System.Data.Services.Providers.ObjectContextServiceProvider.PopulateMetadata(IDictionary2 knownTypes, IDictionary2 entitySets) at System.Data.Services.Providers.BaseServiceProvider.P

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  • Using MVC2 to update an Entity Framework v4 object with foreign keys fails

    - by jbjon
    With the following simple relational database structure: An Order has one or more OrderItems, and each OrderItem has one OrderItemStatus. Entity Framework v4 is used to communicate with the database and entities have been generated from this schema. The Entities connection happens to be called EnumTestEntities in the example. The trimmed down version of the Order Repository class looks like this: public class OrderRepository { private EnumTestEntities entities = new EnumTestEntities(); // Query Methods public Order Get(int id) { return entities.Orders.SingleOrDefault(d => d.OrderID == id); } // Persistence public void Save() { entities.SaveChanges(); } } An MVC2 app uses Entity Framework models to drive the views. I'm using the EditorFor feature of MVC2 to drive the Edit view. When it comes to POSTing back any changes to the model, the following code is called: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { // Get the current Order out of the database by ID Order order = orderRepository.Get(id); var orderItems = order.OrderItems; try { // Update the Order from the values posted from the View UpdateModel(order, ""); // Without the ValueProvider suffix it does not attempt to update the order items UpdateModel(order.OrderItems, "OrderItems.OrderItems"); // All the Save() does is call SaveChanges() on the database context orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = order.OrderID }); } catch (Exception e) { return View(order); // Inserted while debugging } } The second call to UpdateModel has a ValueProvider suffix which matches the auto-generated HTML input name prefixes that MVC2 has generated for the foreign key collection of OrderItems within the View. The call to SaveChanges() on the database context after updating the OrderItems collection of an Order using UpdateModel generates the following exception: "The operation failed: The relationship could not be changed because one or more of the foreign-key properties is non-nullable. When a change is made to a relationship, the related foreign-key property is set to a null value. If the foreign-key does not support null values, a new relationship must be defined, the foreign-key property must be assigned another non-null value, or the unrelated object must be deleted." When debugging through this code, I can still see that the EntityKeys are not null and seem to be the same value as they should be. This still happens when you are not changing any of the extracted Order details from the database. Also the entity connection to the database doesn't change between the act of Getting and the SaveChanges so it doesn't appear to be a Context issue either. Any ideas what might be causing this problem? I know EF4 has done work on foreign key properties but can anyone shed any light on how to use EF4 and MVC2 to make things easy to update; rather than having to populate each property manually. I had hoped the simplicity of EditorFor and DisplayFor would also extend to Controllers updating data. Thanks

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  • IIS7 MVC deploy - 404 not found on actions that accept "id" parameter.

    - by majkinetor
    Hello. Once deployed parts of my web-application stop working. Index-es on each controller do work, and one form posting via Ajax, Login works too. Other then that yields 404. I understand that nothing particular should be done in integrated mode. I don't know how to proceed with troubleshooting. Some info: App is using default app pool set to integrated mode. WebApp is done in net framework 3.5. I use default routing model. Along web.config in root there is web.config in /View folder referencing HttpNotFoundHandler. OS is Windows Server 2008. Admins issued aspnet_regiis.exe -i IIS 7 Any help is appreciated. Thx. EDIT: I determined that only actions that accept ID parameter don't work. On the contrary, when I add dummy id method in Home controller of default MVC app it works. My Views/Web.config <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <httpHandlers> <add path="*" verb="*" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </httpHandlers> <!-- Enabling request validation in view pages would cause validation to occur after the input has already been processed by the controller. By default MVC performs request validation before a controller processes the input. To change this behavior apply the ValidateInputAttribute to a controller or action. --> <pages validateRequest="false" pageParserFilterType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewTypeParserFilter, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" pageBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" userControlBaseType="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl, System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"> <controls> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" namespace="System.Web.Mvc" tagPrefix="mvc" /> </controls> </pages> </system.web> <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <handlers> <remove name="BlockViewHandler"/> <add name="BlockViewHandler" path="*" verb="*" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.HttpNotFoundHandler"/> </handlers> </system.webServer> </configuration>

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  • Java, Jacob and Microsoft Outlook events: Receiving "Can't find event iid" Error

    - by Adam Paynter
    I am writing a Java program that interacts with Microsoft Outlook using the Jacob library (bridges COM and Java). This program creates a new MailItem, displaying its Inspector window to the user. I wish to subscribe to the inspector's Close event to know when the user is finished editing their mail item. To subscribe to the event, I followed the instructions in Jacob's documentation (about 2⁄3 down the page): The current [event] model is conceptually similar to the Visual Basic WithEvents construct. Basically, I provide a class called com.jacob.com.DispatchEvents which has a constructor that takes a source object (of type com.jacob.com.Dispatch) and a target object (of any type). The source object is queried for its IConnectionPointContainer interface and I attempt to obtain an IConnectionPoint for its default source interface (which I obtain from IProvideClassInfo). At the same time, I also create a mapping of DISPID's for the default source interface to the actual method names. I then use the method names to get jmethodID handles from the target Java object. All event methods currently must have the same signature: one argument which is a Java array of Variants, and a void return type. Here is my InspectorEventHandler class, conforming to Jacob's documentation: public class InspectorEventHandler { public void Activate(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeMaximize(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeMinimize(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeMove(Variant[] arguments) { } public void BeforeSize(Variant[] arguments) { } public void Close(Variant[] arguments) { System.out.println("Closing"); } public void Deactivate(Variant[] arguments) { } public void PageChange(Variant[] arguments) { } } And here is how I subscribe to the events using this InspectorEventHandler class: Object outlook = new ActiveXComponent("Outlook.Application"); Object mailItem = Dispatch.call(outlook, "CreateItem", 0).getDispatch(); Object inspector = Dispatch.get(mailItem, "GetInspector").getDispatch(); InspectorEventHandler eventHandler = new InspectorEventHandler(); // This supposedly registers eventHandler with the inspector new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler); However, the last line fails with the following exception: Exception in thread "main" com.jacob.com.ComFailException: Can't find event iid at com.jacob.com.DispatchEvents.init(Native Method) at com.jacob.com.DispatchEvents.(DispatchEvents.java) at cake.CakeApplication.run(CakeApplication.java:30) at cake.CakeApplication.main(CakeApplication.java:15) couldn't get IProvideClassInfo According to Google, a few others have also received this error. Unfortunately, none of them have received an answer. I am using version 1.7 of the Jacob library, which claims to prevent this problem: Version 1.7 also includes code to read the type library directly from the progid. This makes it possible to work with all the Microsoft Office application events, as well as IE5 events. For an example see the samples/test/IETest.java example. I noticed that the aforementioned IETest.java file subscribes to events like this: new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) ieo, ieE,"InternetExplorer.Application.1"); Therefore, I tried subscribing to my events in a similar manner: new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler, "Outlook.Application"); new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler, "Outlook.Application.1"); new DispatchEvents((Dispatch) inspector, eventHandler, "Outlook.Application.12"); All these attempts failed with the same error.

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  • How to assess a job offer with stock options? [closed]

    - by seas
    Cannot help expressing my curiosity about this issue. First of all, Russia, a country, I live in, as far as I understand, is a virgin land on this matter. Motivation is purely developed here and options are not existed at all. So, I am absolutely not aware about this. I roughly understand the mechanism of options. And, as far as I understand, the major white spot in the whole that story, how much will a singe share cost. How much will I get from all those N x 1000 options? I see two ways one can get money from the business: 1. Business goes IPO !!! 2. Business is sold as a whole to another owner. Next way is rather questionable about getting money: 3. Business goes without IPO "forever" (a generation would rather die before it IPO). I am also interested some explanations about situation ?3. Situation ?1 is clear - market decides everything, you either wait for stock price you satisfied or sell everything now. But topic is rather about ?2 - business is sold to another business. I am considering the following model: I am well payed specialist with company X. Somebody, with a company Y makes me an offer. Y is a startup. They cannot offer me much money and cannot overbid my salary, but they grow fast and hope to be bought soon. Instead of money, they offer me N x 1000 options. My problem is "how to assess this offer against my current, stable and well-payed job"? Are there any average cost of virtual share during selling one company to another? Are there any average stock price companies prefer to go to IPO? Are there any barriers against spreading the value of sock before selling the company or IPO (hiring too much people with options package too fast will decrease each package value, I mean)? Are there any good articles with explanations? Is all that somehow written in the law?

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  • Element was not expected While Deserializing an Array with XML Serialization

    - by Anthony Shaw
    OK. I'm trying to work on communicating with the Pivotal Tracker API, which only returns data in an XML format. I have the following XML that I'm trying to deserialize into my domain model. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"? <stories type="array" count="2" total="2" <story <id type="integer"2909137</id <project_id type="integer"68153</project_id <story_typebug</story_type <urlhttp://www.pivotaltracker.com/story/show/2909137</url <current_stateunscheduled</current_state <description</description <nameTest #2</name <requested_byAnthony Shaw</requested_by <created_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:58 EDT</created_at <updated_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:58 EDT</updated_at </story <story <id type="integer"2909135</id <project_id type="integer"68153</project_id <story_typefeature</story_type <urlhttp://www.pivotaltracker.com/story/show/2909135</url <estimate type="integer"-1</estimate <current_stateunscheduled</current_state <description</description <nameTest #1</name <requested_byAnthony Shaw</requested_by <created_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:53 EDT</created_at <updated_at type="datetime"2010/03/23 20:05:53 EDT</updated_at </story </stories My 'story' object is created as follows: public class story { public int id { get; set; } public int estimate { get; set; } public int project_id { get; set; } public string story_type { get; set; } public string url { get; set; } public string current_state { get; set; } public string description { get; set; } public string name { get; set; } public string requested_by { get; set; } public string labels { get; set; } public string lighthouse_id { get; set; } public string lighthouse_url { get; set; } public string owned_by { get; set; } public string accepted_at { get; set; } public string created_at { get; set; } public attachment[] attachments { get; set; } public note[] notes { get; set; } } When I execute my deserialization code, I receive the following exception: Exception: There is an error in XML document (2, 2). Inner Exception: <stories xmlns='' was not expected. I can deserialize the individual stories just fine, I just cannot deserialize this xml into an array of 'story' objects And my deserialization code (value is a string of the xml) var byteArray = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(value); var stream = new MemoryStream(byteArray); var deserializedObject = new XmlSerializer(typeof (story[])).Deserialize(stream) Does anybody have any ideas?

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  • Can I force JAXB not to convert " into &quot;, for example, when marshalling to XML?

    - by Elliot
    I have an Object that is being marshalled to XML using JAXB. One element contains a String that includes quotes ("). The resulting XML has &quot; where the " existed. Even though this is normally preferred, I need my output to match a legacy system. How do I force JAXB to NOT convert the HTML entities? -- Thank you for the replies. However, I never see the handler escape() called. Can you take a look and see what I'm doing wrong? Thanks! package org.dc.model; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.Writer; import javax.xml.bind.JAXBContext; import javax.xml.bind.JAXBException; import javax.xml.bind.Marshaller; import org.dc.generated.Shiporder; import com.sun.xml.internal.bind.marshaller.CharacterEscapeHandler; public class PleaseWork { public void prettyPlease() throws JAXBException { Shiporder shipOrder = new Shiporder(); shipOrder.setOrderid("Order's ID"); shipOrder.setOrderperson("The woman said, \"How ya doin & stuff?\""); JAXBContext context = JAXBContext.newInstance("org.dc.generated"); Marshaller marshaller = context.createMarshaller(); marshaller.setProperty(Marshaller.JAXB_FORMATTED_OUTPUT, Boolean.TRUE); marshaller.setProperty(CharacterEscapeHandler.class.getName(), new CharacterEscapeHandler() { @Override public void escape(char[] ch, int start, int length, boolean isAttVal, Writer out) throws IOException { out.write("Called escape for characters = " + ch.toString()); } }); marshaller.marshal(shipOrder, System.out); } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { new PleaseWork().prettyPlease(); } } -- The output is this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <shiporder orderid="Order's ID"> <orderperson>The woman said, &quot;How ya doin &amp; stuff?&quot;</orderperson> </shiporder> and as you can see, the callback is never displayed. (Once I get the callback being called, I'll worry about having it actually do what I want.) --

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  • Revisiting .NET, but what should I focus on?

    - by Wayne M
    After about a two-year hiatus, I'm brushing up on my .NET skills to find a .NET job (my previous two positions have very little development, or development using legacy technologies, so apart from a few very minor apps I have not touched .NET in close to two years). I'm aware of things like ASP.NET MVC, and I have previously read on things like NHibernate and DI/IOC, albeit I have yet to use them apart from very trivial "Hello World" type applications. I have a subscription to Rob Conery's Tekpub website and occasionally watch these videos when I have free time. My concern is this: I don't live in a very technical area. I would be surprised if any but the most tech-savvy companies have heard of, let alone use, ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate (or even LINQ/EF), or know about IoC. I would be willing to bet a large sum of money that 95% of the possible jobs I could obtain will use the following: Visual Source Safe, if any VCS at all ASP.NET 2.0 Webforms (3.5 if lucky) Raw ADO.NET on top of a very thin implementation of the Gateway pattern Stored Procedures in the database for most CRUD operations Gratuitous use of code-behind, with a Service layer if I'm lucky If I were extremely lucky, I might find a shop that has heard of ORMs and either uses one, or has wrote their own data abstraction. Also if I were lucky, the company would be using Model-View-Presenter. In light of this I'm not sure what I should focus on learning. Personally, I would prefer to be using the latest stuff - ASP.NET MVC, NHibernate, jQuery, WCF etc. Reality says I should go back to the basics, since it looks like most potential opportunities aren't going to be anywhere near the cutting edge, or anywhere close to it. And, as much as I would like to find a position and start to show the other developers the benefits, in my past experience this has usually resulted in my being fired for "not being a team player" and doing things the bad old way. So, I am curious how you would approach a situation like this? What should I focus on, in order to A) Reaquaint myself with .NET, and B) Prepare myself to obtain a .NET job again that is more than likely going to use techniques that I and most other knowledgeable developers will scoff at?

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  • Defining an Entity Framework 1:1 association

    - by Craig Fisher
    I'm trying to define a 1:1 association between two entities (one maps to a table and the other to a view - using DefinedQuery) in an Entity Framework model. When trying to define the mapping for this in the designer, it makes me choose the (1) table or view to map the association to. What am I supposed to choose? I can choose either of the two tables but then I am forced to choose a column from that table (or view) for each end of the relationship. I would expect to be able to choose a column from one table for one end of the association and a column from the other table for the other end of the association, but there's no way to do this. Here I've chosen to map to the "DW_ WF_ClaimInfo" view and it is forcing me to choose two columns from that view - one for each end of the relationship. I've also tried defining the mapping manually in the XML as follows: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="DOCUMENT" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> But this gives: Error 2010: The Column 'DOCUMENT' specified as part of this MSL does not exist in MetadataWorkspace. Seems like it still expects both columns to come from the same table, which doesn't make sense to me. Furthermore, if I select the same key for each end, e.g.: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> I then get: Error 3021: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 675: Each of the following columns in table AssignedClaims is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: AssignedClaims.PK_DocumentId is mapped to <AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.DW_WF_ClaimInfo.DOCUMENT, AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.AssignedClaim.PK_DocumentId> What am I not getting?

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  • What output and recording ports does the Java Sound API find on your computer?

    - by Dave Carpeneto
    Hi all - I'm working with the Java Sound API, and it turns out if I want to adjust recording volumes I need to model the hardware that the OS exposes to Java. Turns out there's a lot of variety in what's presented. Because of this I'm humbly asking that anyone able to help me run the following on their computer and post back the results so that I can get an idea of what's out there. A thanks in advance to anyone that can assist :-) import javax.sound.sampled.*; public class SoundAudit { public static void main(String[] args) { try { System.out.println("OS: "+System.getProperty("os.name")+" "+ System.getProperty("os.version")+"/"+ System.getProperty("os.arch")+"\nJava: "+ System.getProperty("java.version")+" ("+ System.getProperty("java.vendor")+")\n"); for (Mixer.Info thisMixerInfo : AudioSystem.getMixerInfo()) { System.out.println("Mixer: "+thisMixerInfo.getDescription()+ " ["+thisMixerInfo.getName()+"]"); Mixer thisMixer = AudioSystem.getMixer(thisMixerInfo); for (Line.Info thisLineInfo:thisMixer.getSourceLineInfo()) { if (thisLineInfo.getLineClass().getName().equals( "javax.sound.sampled.Port")) { Line thisLine = thisMixer.getLine(thisLineInfo); thisLine.open(); System.out.println(" Source Port: " +thisLineInfo.toString()); for (Control thisControl : thisLine.getControls()) { System.out.println(AnalyzeControl(thisControl));} thisLine.close();}} for (Line.Info thisLineInfo:thisMixer.getTargetLineInfo()) { if (thisLineInfo.getLineClass().getName().equals( "javax.sound.sampled.Port")) { Line thisLine = thisMixer.getLine(thisLineInfo); thisLine.open(); System.out.println(" Target Port: " +thisLineInfo.toString()); for (Control thisControl : thisLine.getControls()) { System.out.println(AnalyzeControl(thisControl));} thisLine.close();}}} } catch (Exception e) {e.printStackTrace();}} public static String AnalyzeControl(Control thisControl) { String type = thisControl.getType().toString(); if (thisControl instanceof BooleanControl) { return " Control: "+type+" (boolean)"; } if (thisControl instanceof CompoundControl) { System.out.println(" Control: "+type+ " (compound - values below)"); String toReturn = ""; for (Control children: ((CompoundControl)thisControl).getMemberControls()) { toReturn+=" "+AnalyzeControl(children)+"\n";} return toReturn.substring(0, toReturn.length()-1);} if (thisControl instanceof EnumControl) { return " Control:"+type+" (enum: "+thisControl.toString()+")";} if (thisControl instanceof FloatControl) { return " Control: "+type+" (float: from "+ ((FloatControl) thisControl).getMinimum()+" to "+ ((FloatControl) thisControl).getMaximum()+")";} return " Control: unknown type";} } All the application does is print out a line about the OS, a line about the JVM, and a few lines about the hardware found that may pertain to recording hardware. For example on my PC at work I get the following: OS: Windows XP 5.1/x86 Java: 1.6.0_07 (Sun Microsystems Inc.) Mixer: Direct Audio Device: DirectSound Playback [Primary Sound Driver] Mixer: Direct Audio Device: DirectSound Playback [SoundMAX HD Audio] Mixer: Direct Audio Device: DirectSound Capture [Primary Sound Capture Driver] Mixer: Direct Audio Device: DirectSound Capture [SoundMAX HD Audio] Mixer: Software mixer and synthesizer [Java Sound Audio Engine] Mixer: Port Mixer [Port SoundMAX HD Audio] Source Port: MICROPHONE source port Control: Microphone (compound - values below) Control: Select (boolean) Control: Microphone Boost (boolean) Control: Front panel microphone (boolean) Control: Volume (float: from 0.0 to 1.0) Source Port: LINE_IN source port Control: Line In (compound - values below) Control: Select (boolean) Control: Volume (float: from 0.0 to 1.0) Control: Balance (float: from -1.0 to 1.0)

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  • Binding a wpf listbox to a combobox

    - by user293545
    Hi there, I have created a very basic wpf application that I want to use to record time entries against different projects. I havent used mvvm for this as I think its an overkill. I have a form that contains a combobox and a listbox. I have created a basic entity model like this What I am trying to do is bind the combobox to Project and whenever I select an item from the combobox it updates the listview with the available tasks associated with that project. This is my xaml so far. I dont have any code behind as I have simply clicked on that Data menu and then datasources and dragged and dropped the items over. The application loads ok and the combobox is been populated however nothing is displaying in the listbox. Can anyone tell me what I have missed? <Window.Resources> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="tasksViewSource" d:DesignSource="{d:DesignInstance l:Task, CreateList=True}" /> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="projectsViewSource" d:DesignSource="{d:DesignInstance l:Project, CreateList=True}" /> </Window.Resources> <Grid DataContext="{StaticResource tasksViewSource}"> <l:NotificationAreaIcon Text="Time Management" Icon="Resources\NotificationAreaIcon.ico" MouseDoubleClick="OnNotificationAreaIconDoubleClick"> <l:NotificationAreaIcon.MenuItems> <forms:MenuItem Text="Open" Click="OnMenuItemOpenClick" DefaultItem="True" /> <forms:MenuItem Text="-" /> <forms:MenuItem Text="Exit" Click="OnMenuItemExitClick" /> </l:NotificationAreaIcon.MenuItems> </l:NotificationAreaIcon> <Button Content="Insert" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="150,223,0,0" Name="btnInsert" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="46" Click="btnInsert_Click" /> <ComboBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="70,16,0,0" Name="comProjects" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="177" DisplayMemberPath="Project1" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource projectsViewSource}}" SelectedValuePath="ProjectID" /> <Label Content="Projects" Height="28" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="12,12,0,0" Name="label1" VerticalAlignment="Top" IsEnabled="False" /> <Label Content="Tasks" Height="28" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="16,61,0,0" Name="label2" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <ListBox Height="112" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="16,87,0,0" Name="lstTasks" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="231" DisplayMemberPath="Task1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ProjectID, Source=comProjects}" SelectedValuePath="TaskID" /> <TextBox Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="101,224,0,0" Name="txtMinutes" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="42" /> <Label Content="Mins to Insert" Height="28" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="12,224,0,0" Name="label3" VerticalAlignment="Top" /> <Button Content="None" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="203,223,0,0" Name="btnNone" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="44" /> </Grid>

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  • Entity Framework won't SaveChanges on new entity with two-level relationship

    - by Tim Rourke
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC site using the ADO.NET Entity Framework. I have an entity model that includes these entities, associated by foreign keys: Report(ID, Date, Heading, Report_Type_ID, etc.) SubReport(ID, ReportText, etc.) - one-to-one relationship with Report. ReportSource(ID, Name, Description) - one-to-many relationship with Sub_Report. ReportSourceType(ID, Name, Description) - one-to-many relationship with ReportSource. Contact (ID, Name, Address, etc.) - one-to-one relationship with Report_Source. There is a Create.aspx page for each type of SubReport. The post event method returns a new Sub_Report entity. Before, in my post method, I followed this process: Set the properties for a new Report entity from the page's fields. Set the SubReport entity's specific properties from the page's fields. Set the SubReport entity's Report to the new Report entity created in 1. Given an ID provided by the page, look up the ReportSource and set the Sub_Report entity's ReportSource to the found entity. SaveChanges. This workflow succeeded just fine for a couple of weeks. Then last week something changed and it doesn't work any more. Now instead of the save operation, I get this Exception: UpdateException: "Entities in 'DIR2_5Entities.ReportSourceSet' participate in the 'FK_ReportSources_ReportSourceTypes' relationship. 0 related 'ReportSourceTypes' were found. 1 'Report_Source_Types' is expected." The debug visualizer shows the following: The SubReport's ReportSource is set and loaded, and all of its properties are correct. The Report_Source has a valid ReportSourceType entity attached. In SQL Profiler the prepared SQL statement looks OK. Can anybody point me to what obvious thing I'm missing? TIA Notes: The Report and SubReport are always new entities in this case. The Report entity contains properties common to many types of reports and is used for generic queries. SubReports are specific reports with extra parameters varying by type. There is actually a different entity set for each type of SubReport, but this question applies to all of them, so I use SubReport as a simplified example.

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  • Best Practice for Images with Codeigniter : Generating Thumbs or Resizing on the Fly

    - by Steve K
    Hi all, I know there’s been a good deal written on thumbnail generation and the like with CI, but I wanted to explain what I’ve made and see what kind of best-practice advice I could find. Here’s my story… Currently, I have a site which allows users to upload collections of photos to projects they’ve created after first creating an account. Upon account creation, the site generates folders for the users in the following fashion for each of five pre-defined projects: /students/username/project_num/images/thumbs/ (This is to say that within a pre-created students folder, the username, project_num, images and thumbs folders are created recursively five times.) When a user uploads images to a project, I have a gallery controller which uploads the full images into the images folder for the project_num, and then creates a smaller thumbnail which maintains its ratio. So far so good. On the index page of the site, where these thumbnails and full images are displayed, I had a bit of a brain lapse, thinking I could simply output the full image while resizing it via css for a ‘medium-size’ image which would lead to the full-size image when clicked. (To be clear, the path is: Click on thumbnail— Load scaled full-size (medium-size) image via ajax into a display area above thumbs— Click on medium-sized image— Load full size image via lightbox, or something of that nature.) I have everything working to this point, except, as one might imagine, resizing the full-sized images with css doesn’t maintain aspect ratio for the thumbs, which means I need to find the best way to resize these. In thinking about it, I figured I had two options: I could resize the image on the fly when the user clicks a thumbnail to load the medium-sized image via ajax. (I have a method ‘get_image($url)’ in my gallery controller which simply loads a view with an image tag and the image source passed to it, etc.) I thought perhaps I could send it first to my gallery model, resize it there on the fly, and send it on to the view. The problem I’m having is that resizing it on the fly and echoing it out gives me the raw image data (I apologize, I don’t know that’s the right term). I’ve tried using data_uris to format the raw data into something echoable, but with no success. Is this method possible? The second option I considered was to generate a second medium-sized thumbnail when the user uploads the image with maintain_ratio set to true. This method is slightly less ideal, given that when providing a way for the user to delete their projects, I’ll need to scan for an additional set of images to delete. Not a huge deal, definitely, but something I figured could be avoided by generating the medium-sized image on the fly. I hope I’ve been clear in my explanations, if long-winded! I’m very curious to see what suggestions folks have about the best way to handle this. Much thanks for reading, and any suggestions are much-appreciated! Steve K.

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