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  • Can you explain this generics behavior and if I have a workaround?

    - by insta
    Sample program below: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace GenericsTest { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { IRetrievable<int, User> repo = new FakeRepository(); Console.WriteLine(repo.Retrieve(35)); } } class User { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } class FakeRepository : BaseRepository<User>, ICreatable<User>, IDeletable<User>, IRetrievable<int, User> { // why do I have to implement this here, instead of letting the // TKey generics implementation in the baseclass handle it? //public User Retrieve(int input) //{ // throw new NotImplementedException(); //} } class BaseRepository<TPoco> where TPoco : class,new() { public virtual TPoco Create() { return new TPoco(); } public virtual bool Delete(TPoco item) { return true; } public virtual TPoco Retrieve<TKey>(TKey input) { return null; } } interface ICreatable<TPoco> { TPoco Create(); } interface IDeletable<TPoco> { bool Delete(TPoco item); } interface IRetrievable<TKey, TPoco> { TPoco Retrieve(TKey input); } } This sample program represents the interfaces my actual program uses, and demonstrates the problem I'm having (commented out in FakeRepository). I would like for this method call to be generically handled by the base class (which in my real example is able to handle 95% of the cases given to it), allowing for overrides in the child classes by specifying the type of TKey explicitly. It doesn't seem to matter what parameter constraints I use for the IRetrievable, I can never get the method call to fall through to the base class. Also, if anyone can see an alternate way to implement this kind of behavior and get the result I'm ultimately looking for, I would be very interested to see it. Thoughts?

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  • Why is it possible to enumerate a LinqToSql query after calling Dispose() on the DataContext?

    - by DanM
    I'm using the Repository Pattern with some LinqToSql objects. My repository objects all implement IDisposable, and the Dispose() method does only thing--calls Dispose() on the DataContext. Whenever I use a repository, I wrap it in a using person, like this: public IEnumerable<Person> SelectPersons() { using (var repository = _repositorySource.GetNew<Person>(dc => dc.Person)) { return repository.GetAll(); } } This method returns an IEnumerable<Person>, so if my understanding is correct, no querying of the database actually takes place until Enumerable<Person> is traversed (e.g., by converting it to a list or array or by using it in a foreach loop), as in this example: var persons = gateway.SelectPersons(); // Dispose() is fired here var personViewModels = ( from b in persons select new PersonViewModel { Id = b.Id, Name = b.Name, Age = b.Age, OrdersCount = b.Order.Count() }).ToList(); // executes queries In this example, Dispose() gets called immediately after setting persons, which is an IEnumerable<Person>, and that's the only time it gets called. So, a couple questions: How does this work? How can a disposed DataContext still query the database for results when I walk the IEnumerable<Person>? What does Dispose() actually do? I've heard that it is not necessary (e.g., see this question) to dispose of a DataContext, but my impression was that it's not a bad idea. Is there any reason not to dispose of it?

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  • Prevent event from parent element to child element in jquery

    - by sonam
    I have binded event as below: $(document).delegate('.budget', 'click', function(e){ if ($(this).hasClass('collapsed')) { $(this).removeClass('collapsed'); $(this).addClass('expanded'); } else if ($(this).hasClass('expanded')) { $(this).removeClass('expanded'); $(this).addClass('collapsed'); } }); Basically this toggles between expand and collapse. I have another event binded as below: $('[id^="tree"]').delegate('.collapsed', 'click', function(e){ var elementId = $(this).attr('id'); hideChildElement(elementId); }); The elements binded by the second event binding are parents of elements binded by first event binding. What happens is that on clicking on the element from the first binding event method also triggers the event binded by second event binding. I want to prevent any events from binding from second event binding to 1st event binding method. If element A is binded to click event from first event binding and B is binded to second event binding (A is inside B or A is child of B), I dont want any event of B to propagate to A. Note I tried e.stopImmediatePropagation(); but did not worked

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  • Display TableViews corresponding to segmentedControl in a single tableview without pushing a new view

    - by user1727927
    I have a tableViewController where I have used the Interface Builder to insert a Segmented Controller having two segments. Since by default, first segment is always selected, I am not facing any problem in displaying the tableview corresponding to first segment. However, when I click on the second segment, I want to display another tableView. Here goes the problem. I am calling newTableViewController class on clicking the second segment. Hence, this view is getting pushed instead. Please suggest me a method to have these two tableViews in the main tableView upon clicking the segments. I have used switch case for switching between the segments. Here's the relevant part of the code: This method is in the FirstTableViewController since first segment is by default selected. -(IBAction) segmentedControlChanged { switch(segmentedControl.selectedSegmnentIndex) { case 0: //default first index selected. [tableView setHidden:NO]; break; case 1: NewViewController *controller=[[NewViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"NewViewController" bundle:nil]; self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; break; default: break; } }

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  • Why my jquery function is not firing on Firefox

    - by Cristian Boariu
    I have some trouble with some jquery method (for some checkboxes I want them to fire on checked/unchecked so I can do something then). This method works perfectly on Chrome and IE but not on latest FF. jQuery(function () { jQuery(':checkbox').change(function () { var counter = jQuery('.count').text(); var thisCheck = jQuery(this); if (thisCheck.is(':checked')) { counter++; //apply green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').addClass('checked'); } else { counter--; //remove green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').removeClass('checked'); } jQuery('.count').html(counter); //enable export button when there are selected emails to be exported if (counter > 0) { jQuery(".exportButton").removeAttr("disabled", ""); } else { jQuery(".exportButton").attr("disabled", "disabled"); } }); }); Basically it's simply not firing...Even with Debug is not catching the first line (function declare nor other lines too). If I move this javascript(without function declare) inside jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { all works nice on Firefox too... Yes, I do use jQuery.noConflict(); before jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { Do you know why this happens?

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  • Reload a UITable on the fly when editing a UITextField inside one of the cells

    - by Saze
    I have a UITable containing some customs UITableCells. Those cells contain a few UILabels and a UITextField. The datasource of the table comes from a main controller's property. (This controller is also the delegate and the dataSource for the table). Here's a simplified screenshot of the UI: Now, I need to update "on the fly" the content of all the UILabels when the user edits one of the UITextFields. To do so, at the I am listening to the "Editing Changed" event at the UITextField level. This triggers the following action: - (IBAction) editChangeHandler: (id) sender { MyAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[delegate.viewController.myDataSourceArray objectAtIndex:self.rowIndex] setANumber: [theTextField.text intValue]]; [delegate.viewController reloadRows]; } The reloadRows method in the viewController is as such: - (void) reloadRows { NSLog(@"called reloadRows"); //perform some calculations on the data source objects here... [theUITable reloadData]; } My problem here is that whenever the user changes the value in the field, the reloadRows method is successfully called, so is apparently the reloadData but it also causes the keyboard to be dismissed. So in the end, the user can only touch one key when editing the TextField before the keyboard is dismissed and the table reloaded. Does anybody knows a solution to this or have experienced the same issue?

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  • Java Socket - how to catch Exception of BufferedReader.readline()

    - by Hasan Tahsin
    I have a Thread (let's say T1) which reads data from socket: public void run() { while (running) { try { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream()) ); String input = reader.readLine(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Another Thread (lets say T2) try to finish the program in one of its method. Therefore T2 does the following: T1.running = false; socket.close(); Here is this scenario for which i couldn't find a solution: T1 is active and waiting for some input to read i.e. blocking. context switching T2 is active and sets running to false, closes the socket context switching because T1 was blocking and T2 closed the socket, T1 throws an Exception. What i want is to catch this SocketException. i can't put a try/catch(SocketException) in T1.run(). So how can i catch it in T1's running-method? If it's not possible to catch it in T1's running, then how can i catch it elsewhere? PS: "Another question about the Thread Debugging" Normally when i debug the code step by step, i lose the 'active running line' on a context switch. Let's say i'm in line 20 of T1, context switch happens, let's assume the program continues from the 30.line of T2, but the debugger does not go/show to the 30.line of T2, instead the 'active running line' vanishes. So i lose the control over the code. I use Eclipse for Java and Visual Studio for C#. So what is the best way to track the code while debugging on a context switch ?

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  • populating an nsarray

    - by MoKaM
    I intend to make a program that does the following: Create an NSArray populated with numbers from 1 to 100,000. Loop over some code that deletes certain elements of the NSArray when certain conditions are met. Store the resultant NSArray. However the above steps will also be looped over many times and so I need a fast way of making this NSArray that has 100,000 number elements. So what is the fastest way of doing it? Is there an alternative to iteratively populating an Array using a for loop? Such as an NSArray method that could do this quickly for me? Or perhaps I could make the NSArray with the 100,000 numbers by any means the first time. And then create every new NSArray (for step 1) by using method arraywithArray? (is it quicker way of doing it?) Or perhaps you have something completely different in mind that will achieve what I want. edit: Replace NSArray with NSMutableArray in this post.

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  • Generics Java and Shadowing of type parameters

    - by rubixibuc
    This code seems to work fine class Rule<T> { public <T>Rule(T t) { } public <T> void Foo(T t) { } } Does the method type parameter shadow the class type parameter? Also when you create an object does it use the type parameter of the class? example Rule<String> r = new Rule<String>(); Does this normally apply to the type parameter of the class, in the situation where they do not conflict? I mean when only the class has a type parameter, not the constructor, or does this look for a type parameter in the constructor? If they do conflict how does this change? SEE DISCUSSION BELOW if I have a function call x = <Type Parameter>method(); // this is a syntax error even inside the function or class ; I must place a this before it, why is this, and does everything still hold true. Why don't I need to prefix anything for the constructor call. Shouldn't Oracle fix this.

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  • php / phpDoc - @return instance of $this class ?

    - by searbe
    How do I mark a method as "returns an instance of the current class" in my phpDoc? In the following example my IDE (Netbeans) will see that setSomething always returns a foo object. But that's not true if I extent the object - it'll return $this, which in the second example is a bar object not a foo object. class foo { protected $_value = null; /** * Set something * * @param string $value the value * @return foo */ public function setSomething($value) { $this->_value = $value; return $this; } } $foo = new foo(); $out = $foo->setSomething(); So fine - setSomething returns a foo - but in the following example, it returns a bar..: class bar extends foo { public function someOtherMethod(){} } $bar = new bar(); $out = $bar->setSomething(); $out->someOtherMethod(); // <-- Here, Netbeans will think $out // is a foo, so doesn't see this other // method in $out's code-completion ... it'd be great to solve this as for me, code completion is a massive speed-boost. Anyone got a clever trick, or even better, a proper way to document this with phpDoc?

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  • Invoking [SKProductsRequest start] hangs on iOS 4.0

    - by figelwump
    Encountering an issue with SKProductsRequest that is specific to iOS 4.0. The problematic code: - (void)requestProductData { NSSet *productIdentifiers = [NSSet setWithObjects:kLimitedDaysUpgradeProductId, kUnlimitedUpgradeProductId, nil]; self.productsRequest = [[SKProductsRequest alloc] initWithProductIdentifiers:productIdentifiers]; self.productsRequest.delegate = self; [self.productsRequest start]; } - (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); } When [SKProductsRequest start] is invoked, the productsRequest:didReceiveResponse: delegate method is never invoked; further, the entire app hangs and is completely unresponsive to input. Obviously, this is a huge issue for our iOS 4.0 users as it not only breaks payments but makes the app completely unusable. Some other things to note: this only happens on iOS 4.0; iOS 4.2, 3.x are fine. Also: if the delegate is not set on the SKProductsRequest (i.e. comment out the line "self.productsRequest.delegate = self;"), the app doesn't hang (but of course in that case we have no way of getting the product info). Also, the problem still reproduces with everything stripped out of the productsRequest:didReceiveResponse: callback (that method never actually gets called). Finally, if the productIdentifiers NSSet object is initialized to an empty set, the hang doesn't occur. Has anybody else experienced this? Any ideas/thoughts on what could be going on here, and how we might be able to work around this?

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  • Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods?

    - by RCola
    Why I can noy access my variable p in mull form iterate method? How to resolve a problem? Hot to set class variable to be visible to its public static methods? public class mull { public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { final JPanel p = createAndShowGUI(); Timer timer = new Timer(1000, new MyTimerActionListener()); timer.start(); try { Thread.sleep(10000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } timer.stop(); public static void iterate(){ for (int i = 0; i < 55; i++){ // "p cannot be resolved" p.moveSquare(i*10, i*10); p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); // p.repaint(); } } } class MyPanel extends JPanel { .... } How to access variable set in another method (in this example main())? Why Eclipse forces me to use this ((MyPanel) p).setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200); instead of this p.setParamsRing(i*5, i*7, 200, 200);?

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  • Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

    - by Matt Rowles
    I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • Magento - save quote_address on cart addAction using observer

    - by Byron
    I am writing a custom Magento module that gives rate quotes (based on an external API) on the product page. After I get the response on the product page, it adds some of the info from the response into the product view's form. The goal is to save the address (as well as some other things, but those can be in the session for now). The address needs to be saved to the quote, so that the checkout (onestepcheckout, free version) will automatically fill those values in (city, state, zip, country, shipping method [of which there are 3]) and load the rate quote via ajax (which it's already doing). I have gone about this by using an Observer, and watching for the cart events. I fill in the address and save it. When I end up on the cart page or checkout page ~4/5 times the data is lost, and the sql table shows that the quote_address is getting save with no address info, even though there is an explicit save. The observer method's I've used are: checkout_cart_update_item_complete checkout_cart_product_add_after The code saving is: (I've tried this with the address, quote and cart all not calling save() with the same results, as well as not calling setQuote() $quote->getShippingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->getBillingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->save(); $cart->save(); I imagine there's a good chance this is not the best place to save this info, but I am not quite sure. I was wondering if there is a good place to do this without overriding a whole controller to save the address on the add to cart action. Thanks so much, let me know if I need to clarify

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  • Refactoring two methods down to one

    - by bflemi3
    I have two methods that almost do the same thing. They get a List<XmlNode> based on state OR state and schoolType and then return a distinct, ordered IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string,string>>. I know they can be refactored but I'm struggling to determine what type the parameter should be for the linq statement in the return of the method (the last line of each method). I thank you for your help in advance. private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getAreaDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(STATE_AND_SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, StateOfInterest, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["idLocation"].Value, x.Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); } private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getStateOfInterestDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["stateCode"].Value, x.Attributes["stateName"].Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); }

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  • rails route question

    - by badnaam
    I am trying to build a search functionality which at a high level works like this. 1 - I have a Search model, controller with a search_set action and search views/partial to render the search. 2 - At the home page a serach form is loaded with an empty search object or a search object initialized with session[:search] (which contains user search preferences, zip code, proximity, sort order, per page etc). This form has a post(:put) action to search_set. 3 - When a registered user performs a set the params of the search form are collected and a search record is saved against that user. If a unregistered user performs a search then the search set action simply stores the params in the session[:search]. In either case, the search is executed with the given params and the results are displayed. At this point the url of in the location bar is something like.. http://localhost:3000/searches/search_set?stype=1 At this point if the user simply hits enter on the location bar, I get an error that says "No action responded to show" I am guessing because the URL contains search_set which uses a put method and even though I have a search_show (:get) action (which simply reruns the search in the session or saved in the database) does not get called. How can I handle this situation where I can route a user hitting enter into the location bar to a get method? If this does not explain the problem , please let me know I can share more details/code etc. Thanks!

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  • Getting rejected value null spring validation

    - by Shabarinath
    Hi in my project when I am trying to validate my form its not showing any error messages even if validation fails (Event Form is not submitted and enters into validation fail block) Here is my code /****************** Post Method *************/ @RequestMapping(value="/property", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String saveOrUpdateProperty(@ModelAttribute("property") Property property, BindingResult result, Model model, HttpServletRequest request) throws Exception { try { if(validateFormData(property, result)) { model.addAttribute("property", new Property()); return "property/postProperty"; } } /********* Validate Block *************/ private boolean validateFormData(Property property, BindingResult result) throws DaoException { if (property.getPropertyType() == null || property.getPropertyType().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("propertyType", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } if (property.getTitle() == null || property.getTitle().equals("")) { result.rejectValue("title", "Cannot Be Empty !", "Cannot Be Empty !"); } return (result.hasFieldErrors() || result.hasErrors()); } But when i debug i can see below one org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Field error in object 'property' on field 'title': rejected value [null]; codes [Cannot Be Empty !.property.title,Cannot Be Empty !.title,Cannot Be Empty !.java.lang.String,Cannot Be Empty !]; arguments []; default message [Cannot Be Empty !] and this is how i am displaying in jsp file <div class="control-group"> <div class="controls"> <label class="control-label"><span class="required">* </span>Property Type</label> <div class="controls"> <form:input path="title" placeholder="Pin Code" cssClass="form-control border-radius-4 textField"/> <form:errors path="title" style="color:red;"/> </div> </div> </div> Event though when i see the below one when i debug (1 Error its correct) org.springframework.validation.BeanPropertyBindingResult: 1 errors Why it is not displayed in jsp can any one hep me?

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  • C# / this. and List<T>

    - by user3533030
    I am having trouble understanding how to initialize a List of objects and use it with methods inside of a class. I understand the mechanics of the List, but not how to initialize it inside a method and use it later. For example, I want to have a class that creates the List when it is constructed. Then, I want to use a method of that class to add elements to the list. The elements in the list are objects defined by the SolidWorks API. So, to construct the List, I used... public class ExportPoints : Exporter { public List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints; public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); } public void createListOfFreePoints() { try { [imagine more code here] this.listOfSketchPoints.Add(pointTest); } catch (Exception e) { Debug.Print(e.ToString()); return; } } This fails during execution as if the listOfSketchPoints was never initialized as a List. So, I tried a hack and this worked: public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); this.listOfSketchPoints = listOfSketchPoints; } This approach creates the behavior that I want. However, it seems that I lack some understanding as to why this is necessary. Shouldn't it be possible to "initialize" a List that is a property of your object with a constructor? Why would you need to create the list, then assign the pointer of that new List to your property?

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  • When using a repository is it possible for a type to return a Func that the repository uses to test for existing entities?

    - by Scott Rickman
    For example given a Factory with a method public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t => t.Name == item.Name)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } how do I create a property of Base (say MustNotAlreadyExist) so that I can change the method above to public static T Save<T>(T item) where T : Base, new() { /* item.Id == Guid.Empty therefore item is new */ if (item.Id == Guid.Empty && repository.GetAll<T>(t.MustNotAlreadyExist)) { throw new Exception("Name is not unique"); } } public class Base { ... public virtual Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name); /* <- this clearly doesn't work */ } } and then how can I override MustNotAlreadyExist in Account : Base public class Account : Base { ... public override Expression<Func<T, bool>> MustNotAlreadyExist() { return (b => b.Name == name && b.AccountCode == accountCode); /* <- this doesn't work */ } ... }

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  • How can I fix my window focus problem?

    - by Ben313
    I have a very frustrating bug in an application I am working on. The routine is supposed to do something in one window, and then return focus to the other at the end of the method, but when I started to use a large data set the other day, the focus stopped returning at the end. I stepped through the code one line at a time, and the errors stopped. so, i figure its a timing issue of some kind. I trace through until i find what i suspect is the culprit. A call to ShellExecute(...), that terminates an image editor i use. (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb762153(VS.85).aspx) Now, if I step past this call, and then continue to run the program, everything works fine, but if I just run past this line, the error occurs. how can this be? I have a call to SetFocus() at the very end of this method. shouldnt the program hit this no matter what? This is all so very frustrating...

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  • Validating a phone number in Android PreferenceScreen

    - by djechelon
    I have a PreferenceScreen in which the user is capable, if system can't autodetect it, to enter the device's phone number. I'm still learning this part of Android but I managed to understand a bit of PreferenceScreens by examples provided by Android SDK itself and a few tutorials. What I want is that the user can save the phone number only if null or valid, where by "valid" I mean running a generic validation logic (ie. an anonymous method that returns true or false, that can be reused in any possible situation*) or better, just to simplify things, ^(\+39)?3[0-9]{9}$ For now I have the following XML snip <EditTextPreference android:inputType="phone" android:key="@string/preference_phoneNo" android:selectAllOnFocus="true" android:singleLine="true" android:summary="@string/pref_phoneNumber_description" android:title="@string/pref_phoneNumber" /> and following code by courtesy of Eclipse New Activity wizard: private void setupSimplePreferencesScreen() { if (!isSimplePreferences(this)) { return; } addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.pref_general); bindPreferenceSummaryToValue(findPreference(getString(R.string.preference_phoneNo))); } addPreferenceFromResource is supposed to load the XML node and add the preference to the screen, while binPreferenceSummaryToValue is supposed to make description text change when preference is updated. Just for sake of completeness for those who don't like code courtesy of the IDE, the second method is provided by Eclipse who also provides a private class in the code file that is /** * A preference value change listener that updates the preference's summary * to reflect its new value. */ In the general case, what should I do to perform validation logic before the preference gets saved when I click OK on the preference editor? Where is the validation logic to be put in a PreferenceScreen? *Aren't we all here to learn?

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  • Store data in tableview to NSUserDefaults

    - by Jozef Vrana
    Tricks.h file #import "Tricks.h" @implementation Tricks static NSMutableArray *trickList = nil; +(NSMutableArray *)trickList { if(!trickList){ trickList = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } return trickList; } @end Tricks.m file @interface Tricks : NSObject @property(strong, nonatomic) NSString *trickName; Method for adding objects to array -(IBAction)saveAction:(id)sender { Tricks *trick = [[Tricks alloc]init]; trick.trickName = self.trickLabel.text; [[Tricks trickList]insertObject:trick atIndex:0]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } In .h file of UITabelview class I am making a reference to tricks class, but I am sure there is error on this line. @property (strong, nonatomic) Tricks *tricks; In cellForRow method I am storing data _trick = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:trick,nil]; NSUserDefaults *defaults=[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setObject:_trick forKey:@"numberArray"]; [defaults synchronize]; NSLog(@"%@",_trick); In .m class of UITableview in viewDidLoad I want to retrieve data if([[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"] != nil) { _tricks = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"]; } Thanks for advices

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  • why the exception is not caught?

    - by Álvaro García
    I have the following code: List<MyEntity> lstAllMyRecords = miDbContext.MyEntity.ToList<MyEntity>(); foreach MyEntity iterator in lstMainRecord) { tasks.Add( TaskEx.Run(() => { try { checkData(lstAllMyRecords.Where(n => n.IDReference == iterator.IDReference).ToList<MyEntity>()); } catch CustomRepository ex) { //handle my custom repository } catch (Exception) { throw; } }) ); }//foreach Task.WaitAll(tasks.ToArray()); I get all the records from my data base and in the foreach loop, I group all the records that have the same IDReference. Thenk I check if the data is correct with the method chekData. The checkData method throw a custom exception if something is wrong. I would like to catch this exception to handle it. But the problem is that with this code the exceptions are not caught and all seem to work without errors, but I know that this is not true. I try to check only one group of records that I know that has problems. If I check only one group of registrers, the loop is execute once and then only task is created. In this case the exception is caught, but if I have many groups, then any exception s thrwon. Why when I only have one task the exception is caught and with many groups are not? Thanks.

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