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  • passing xml to a webservice

    - by Neale
    I have a simple web service that will have one method: DoTransactions(xlm) Now the reason that i am using XML as a parameter is due to the fact that the parameters will often change. So for example it could be: <payload> <userId>1234</userid> <partnerId>ptn654</partnerId> </payload> OR <payload> <partnerId>ptn654</partnerId> <items> <item1> <cost>10</cost> <description>This is item 1</description> </item1> </items> </payload> As you can see the XML string will always change (this is due to a client request) Would it be better to rather pass in a string and parse the XML in the method or should is there a better way to do it. This web service will be used for varios different code languages.

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  • How to find out style of NSUserNotification during run-time? Or force close an alert?

    - by Dmitri Shuralyov
    According to "OS X Mountain Lion Release Notes" (https://developer.apple.com/library/mac/#releasenotes/Cocoa/Foundation.html), "The user has ultimate control over what notifications are displayed, and the style (banner, alert, etc). There is no mechanism to override the user preferences." Even though all I want to do is "downgrade" from alert style to banner style... Fine. But can I at least find out whether a notification is of alert or banner style inside the didActivateNotification method? The reason I want to do that is to respond differently according to notification.activationType. When the alert is a banner (which is what I want), clicking its contents is the only possible action, and this both triggers didActivateNotification method and closes the notification banner. When the user chooses alert-style notifications, clicking the alert contents also generates didActivateNotification with the same value of notification.activationType, but it stays on screen instead of going away (it only goes away when the Action button is pressed). I don't want my app to trigger an action repeatedly for the same alert notification, in case the user clicks the content area of an alert notification. An alternative solution would be to force the alert notification bubble to dismiss when the user clicks its contents. Is this possible?

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  • Replacing XML in File from "Document" in Java

    - by poeschlorn
    Hi, after processing my first steps in working with XML in java I am now at the point where I want to update some data in my XML/GPX file... Reaplacing it in my "Document" data type works great :) How here comes the question: how can I store the changed "document"-model back to my file? Do I have to do this by using the standart file-functions (via steams and so on) oder is the a more elegant way to do this? ;-) Here's the code I already worked out, maybe that could help. (the method getParsedXML is just puting the conversion from the file into an extra method) Document tmpDoc = getParsedXML(currentGPX); //XML Parsind tests: // Access to tag attribute <tag attribut="bla"> System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getAttributes().getNamedItem("lat").getTextContent()); // Access to the value of an child element <a><CHILD>ValueOfChild</CHILD></a> System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getChildNodes().item(5).getTextContent()); // Replacing access to tag attribute tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getAttributes().getNamedItem("lat").setTextContent("139.921055008"); System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getAttributes().getNamedItem("lat").getTextContent()); // Replacing access to child element value tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getChildNodes().item(5).setTextContent("Cala Sant Vicenç - Mallorca 2"); System.out.println(tmpDoc.getElementsByTagName("wpt").item(0).getChildNodes().item(5).getTextContent());

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  • populating an nsarray

    - by MoKaM
    I intend to make a program that does the following: Create an NSArray populated with numbers from 1 to 100,000. Loop over some code that deletes certain elements of the NSArray when certain conditions are met. Store the resultant NSArray. However the above steps will also be looped over many times and so I need a fast way of making this NSArray that has 100,000 number elements. So what is the fastest way of doing it? Is there an alternative to iteratively populating an Array using a for loop? Such as an NSArray method that could do this quickly for me? Or perhaps I could make the NSArray with the 100,000 numbers by any means the first time. And then create every new NSArray (for step 1) by using method arraywithArray? (is it quicker way of doing it?) Or perhaps you have something completely different in mind that will achieve what I want. edit: Replace NSArray with NSMutableArray in this post.

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  • Display TableViews corresponding to segmentedControl in a single tableview without pushing a new view

    - by user1727927
    I have a tableViewController where I have used the Interface Builder to insert a Segmented Controller having two segments. Since by default, first segment is always selected, I am not facing any problem in displaying the tableview corresponding to first segment. However, when I click on the second segment, I want to display another tableView. Here goes the problem. I am calling newTableViewController class on clicking the second segment. Hence, this view is getting pushed instead. Please suggest me a method to have these two tableViews in the main tableView upon clicking the segments. I have used switch case for switching between the segments. Here's the relevant part of the code: This method is in the FirstTableViewController since first segment is by default selected. -(IBAction) segmentedControlChanged { switch(segmentedControl.selectedSegmnentIndex) { case 0: //default first index selected. [tableView setHidden:NO]; break; case 1: NewViewController *controller=[[NewViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"NewViewController" bundle:nil]; self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; break; default: break; } }

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  • C# properties: How are they instantiated?

    - by Pedery
    Hi! This might be a pretty straightforward question, but I'm trying to understand some of the internal workings of the compilation. Very simply put, imagine an arbitrary object being instantiated. This object is then allocated on the heap. The object has a property of type PointF (which is value type), with a get and a set method. Imagine the get and the set method containing a few calculations for doing their work. How and where (stack/heap) and when is this code instantiated? This is the background for this question: I'm writing get and set methods for an object and these methods need to be accessed very frequently. The get and set code in itself is rather massive so I feared that in a worst case scenario the methods would be instantiated as an object or a value type with all internal code for every access of the property. On the other hand the code is probably instantiated when the main object is created and the CPU is simply told to jmp to the property code start. Anyway, this is what I want to have clarified.

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  • Prevent event from parent element to child element in jquery

    - by sonam
    I have binded event as below: $(document).delegate('.budget', 'click', function(e){ if ($(this).hasClass('collapsed')) { $(this).removeClass('collapsed'); $(this).addClass('expanded'); } else if ($(this).hasClass('expanded')) { $(this).removeClass('expanded'); $(this).addClass('collapsed'); } }); Basically this toggles between expand and collapse. I have another event binded as below: $('[id^="tree"]').delegate('.collapsed', 'click', function(e){ var elementId = $(this).attr('id'); hideChildElement(elementId); }); The elements binded by the second event binding are parents of elements binded by first event binding. What happens is that on clicking on the element from the first binding event method also triggers the event binded by second event binding. I want to prevent any events from binding from second event binding to 1st event binding method. If element A is binded to click event from first event binding and B is binded to second event binding (A is inside B or A is child of B), I dont want any event of B to propagate to A. Note I tried e.stopImmediatePropagation(); but did not worked

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  • what's a good technique for building and running many similar unit tests?

    - by jcollum
    I have a test setup where I have many very similar unit tests that I need to run. For example, there are about 40 stored procedures that need to be checked for existence in the target environment. However I'd like all the tests to be grouped by their business unit. So there'd be 40 instances of a very similar TestMethod in 40 separate classes. Kinda lame. One other thing: each group of tests need to be in their own solution. So Business Unit A will have a solution called Tests.BusinessUnitA. I'm thinking that I can set this all up by passing a configuration object (with the name of the stored proc to check, among other things) to a TestRunner class. The problem is that I'm losing the atomicity of my unit tests. I wouldn't be able to run just one of the tests, I'd have to run all the tests in the TestRunner class. This is what the code looks like at this time. Sure, it's nice and compact, but if Test 8 fails, I have no way of running just Test 8. TestRunner runner = new TestRunner(config, this.TestContext); var runnerType = typeof(TestRunner); var methods = runnerType.GetMethods() .Where(x => x.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(TestMethodAttribute), false) .Count() > 0).ToArray(); foreach (var method in methods) { method.Invoke(runner, null); } So I'm looking for suggestions for making a group of unit tests that take in a configuration object but won't require me to generate many many TestMethods. This looks like it might require code-generation, but I'd like to solve it without that.

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  • JPA Problems mapping relationships

    - by Rosen Martev
    Hello. I have a problem when I try to persist my model. An exception is thrown when creating the EntityManagerFactory: Blockquote javax.persistence.PersistenceException: [PersistenceUnit: NIF] Unable to build EntityManagerFactory at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:677) at org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence.createEntityManagerFactory(HibernatePersistence.java:126) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:52) at javax.persistence.Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(Persistence.java:34) at project.serealization.util.PersistentManager.createSession(PersistentManager.java:24) at project.serealization.SerializationTest.testProject(SerializationTest.java:25) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at junit.framework.TestCase.runTest(TestCase.java:168) at junit.framework.TestCase.runBare(TestCase.java:134) at junit.framework.TestResult$1.protect(TestResult.java:110) at junit.framework.TestResult.runProtected(TestResult.java:128) at junit.framework.TestResult.run(TestResult.java:113) at junit.framework.TestCase.run(TestCase.java:124) at junit.framework.TestSuite.runTest(TestSuite.java:232) at junit.framework.TestSuite.run(TestSuite.java:227) at org.junit.internal.runners.JUnit38ClassRunner.run(JUnit38ClassRunner.java:79) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:46) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197) Caused by: org.hibernate.HibernateException: Wrong column type in nif.action_element for column FLOW_ID. Found: double, expected: bigint at org.hibernate.mapping.Table.validateColumns(Table.java:284) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.validateSchema(Configuration.java:1116) at org.hibernate.tool.hbm2ddl.SchemaValidator.validate(SchemaValidator.java:139) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl.(SessionFactoryImpl.java:349) at org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration.buildSessionFactory(Configuration.java:1327) at org.hibernate.cfg.AnnotationConfiguration.buildSessionFactory(AnnotationConfiguration.java:867) at org.hibernate.ejb.Ejb3Configuration.buildEntityManagerFactory(Ejb3Configuration.java:669) ... 24 more The code for SimpleActionElement and SimpleFlow is as follows: @Entity public class SimpleActionElement { @OneToOne(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, targetEntity = SimpleFlow.class) @JoinColumn(name = "FLOW_ID") private SimpleFlow<T> flow; ... } @Entity public class SimpleFlow<T> { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "ELEMENT_ID") private Long element_id; ... }

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  • Refactoring two methods down to one

    - by bflemi3
    I have two methods that almost do the same thing. They get a List<XmlNode> based on state OR state and schoolType and then return a distinct, ordered IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string,string>>. I know they can be refactored but I'm struggling to determine what type the parameter should be for the linq statement in the return of the method (the last line of each method). I thank you for your help in advance. private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getAreaDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(STATE_AND_SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, StateOfInterest, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["idLocation"].Value, x.Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); } private IEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> getStateOfInterestDropDownDataSource() { StateInfoXmlDocument stateInfoXmlDocument = new StateInfoXmlDocument(); string schoolTypeXmlPath = string.Format(SCHOOL_TYPE_XML_PATH, ConnectionsLearningSchoolType); var schoolNodes = new List<XmlNode>(stateInfoXmlDocument.SelectNodes(schoolTypeXmlPath).Cast<XmlNode>()); return schoolNodes.Select(x => new KeyValuePair<string, string>(x.Attributes["stateCode"].Value, x.Attributes["stateName"].Value)).OrderBy(x => x.Key).Distinct(); }

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  • Reload a UITable on the fly when editing a UITextField inside one of the cells

    - by Saze
    I have a UITable containing some customs UITableCells. Those cells contain a few UILabels and a UITextField. The datasource of the table comes from a main controller's property. (This controller is also the delegate and the dataSource for the table). Here's a simplified screenshot of the UI: Now, I need to update "on the fly" the content of all the UILabels when the user edits one of the UITextFields. To do so, at the I am listening to the "Editing Changed" event at the UITextField level. This triggers the following action: - (IBAction) editChangeHandler: (id) sender { MyAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[delegate.viewController.myDataSourceArray objectAtIndex:self.rowIndex] setANumber: [theTextField.text intValue]]; [delegate.viewController reloadRows]; } The reloadRows method in the viewController is as such: - (void) reloadRows { NSLog(@"called reloadRows"); //perform some calculations on the data source objects here... [theUITable reloadData]; } My problem here is that whenever the user changes the value in the field, the reloadRows method is successfully called, so is apparently the reloadData but it also causes the keyboard to be dismissed. So in the end, the user can only touch one key when editing the TextField before the keyboard is dismissed and the table reloaded. Does anybody knows a solution to this or have experienced the same issue?

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  • In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

    - by Irchi
    Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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  • Serialport List Read problem and NullReferenceException?

    - by Plumbum7
    Hello everybody, Using Microsoft VC# 2008 Express (little fact about me : non experience in c#, programskills further very beginnerlevel. This peace op program is to communicate with Zigbee switching walloutlets (switching, status info). and is downloaded from http://plugwiselib.codeplex.com/SourceControl/list/changesets The problem: NullRefferenceException was UnHandled private void port_DataReceived(object sender, SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) {// Event for receiving data string txt = port.ReadExisting(); Console.WriteLine(txt); List<PlugwiseMessage> msg = reader.Read (Regex.Split (txt, "\r\n" )); //Console.WriteLine( msg ); DataReceived(sender, new System.EventArgs(), msg); VC# Marks the last line and says msg is empty. so i looked further. Msg come's from txt text is filled with "000002D200C133E1\r\nPutFifoUnicast 40 : Handle 722 :"< so it goes wrong in or reader.Read or in the List so i looked further: public List<PlugwiseMessage> Read(string[] serialData) { Console.WriteLine(serialData); List<PlugwiseMessage> output = new List<PlugwiseMessage>(); Console.WriteLine(output); Both (serialData) as (output); are empty. So can i assume that the problem is in: Read(string[] serialData) But now the questions, Is Read(string[] serialData) something which is a Windows.Refence or is is from a Method ? and IF this is so is this then reader.READ (how can i find this)? (answered my own question proberly)(method reader)(private PlugwiseReader reader) So why isn't is working trough the serialData ? or is it the List<PlugwiseMessage> part, but i have no idea how it is filled can sombody help me ?

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  • Magento - save quote_address on cart addAction using observer

    - by Byron
    I am writing a custom Magento module that gives rate quotes (based on an external API) on the product page. After I get the response on the product page, it adds some of the info from the response into the product view's form. The goal is to save the address (as well as some other things, but those can be in the session for now). The address needs to be saved to the quote, so that the checkout (onestepcheckout, free version) will automatically fill those values in (city, state, zip, country, shipping method [of which there are 3]) and load the rate quote via ajax (which it's already doing). I have gone about this by using an Observer, and watching for the cart events. I fill in the address and save it. When I end up on the cart page or checkout page ~4/5 times the data is lost, and the sql table shows that the quote_address is getting save with no address info, even though there is an explicit save. The observer method's I've used are: checkout_cart_update_item_complete checkout_cart_product_add_after The code saving is: (I've tried this with the address, quote and cart all not calling save() with the same results, as well as not calling setQuote() $quote->getShippingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->getBillingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->save(); $cart->save(); I imagine there's a good chance this is not the best place to save this info, but I am not quite sure. I was wondering if there is a good place to do this without overriding a whole controller to save the address on the add to cart action. Thanks so much, let me know if I need to clarify

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  • IE8 and below <input type="image"> value work around

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I have a slight problem, I am trying to capture the input of two buttons, one yes, one no, into a database but for some reason the database doesn't always show the value of the button clicked, it just shows up blank. <form action="refer.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" value="yes" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="yes"> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" value="no" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="no" > </div> </form> Apparently anything lower than IE8 will ignore the value attribute of all form inputs. How could I get this to work properly in all browsers? jQuery or Javascript maybe?

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  • Safe way for getting/finding a vertex in a graph with custom properties -> good programming practice

    - by Shadow
    Hi, I am writing a Graph-class using boost-graph-library. I use custom vertex and edge properties and a map to store/find the vertices/edges for a given property. I'm satisfied with how it works, so far. However, I have a small problem, where I'm not sure how to solve it "nicely". The class provides a method Vertex getVertex(Vertexproperties v_prop) and a method bool hasVertex(Vertexproperties v_prop) The question now is, would you judge this as good programming practice in C++? My opinion is, that I have first to check if something is available before I can get it. So, before getting a vertex with a desired property, one has to check if hasVertex() would return true for those properties. However, I would like to make getVertex() a bit more robust. ATM it will segfault when one would directly call getVertex() without prior checking if the graph has a corresponding vertex. A first idea was to return a NULL-pointer or a pointer that points past the last stored vertex. For the latter, I haven't found out how to do this. But even with this "robust" version, one would have to check for correctness after getting a vertex or one would also run into a SegFault when dereferencing that vertex-pointer for example. Therefore I am wondering if it is "ok" to let getVertex() SegFault if one does not check for availability beforehand?

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  • System.Threading.Timer won't trigger

    - by mijatovic
    Hello guys, I am new here... I have one question, if somebody can help me. It is about timers (System.Threading.Timer). I want to break inevitable recursion: I have two columns in datarow and they are mutually dependant (price_without_VAT and price_with_VAT). Setting one of them will definitely cause StackOverflowException. So here's the idea: bool flag = true; void Reset(object state) { flag = true; } Now, wrap the method for changing value of one of the columns: { if(flag) { flag = false; System.Threading.Timer tmr = new System.Threading.Timer(new System.Threading.TimerCallback(Reset), null, 10, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); datarow.other_column = value; } } datarow.other_column.value line will immediately trigger the above method, but there will be no recursion because flag is false. In 10 ms flag should be back to true, and everything is back to normal. Now, when i follow the code in DEBUGGER, everything works fine, but when I start app NORMALLY Reset function simply will not trigger, flag is stuck to false forever and everything false apart. I play around with due_time parameter but nothing seems to help. Any ideas?

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  • Type contraint problem of C#

    - by user351565
    I meet a problem about type contraint of c# now. I wrote a pair of methods that can convert object to string and convert string to object. ex. static string ConvertToString(Type type, object val) { if (type == typeof(string)) return (string)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return val.ToString(); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return ((CodeObject)val).Code; } static T ConvertToObject<T>(string str) { Type type = typeof(T); if (type == typeof(string)) return (T)(object)val; if (type == typeof(int)) return (T)(object)int.Parse(val); if (type.InSubclassOf(typeof(CodeObject))) return Codes.Get<T>(val); } where CodeObject is a base class of Employees, Offices ..., which can fetch by static method Godes.Get where T: CodeObject but the code above cannot be compiled because error #CS0314 the generic type T of method ConvertToObject have no any constraint but Codes.Get request T must be subclass of CodeObject i tried use overloading to solve the problem but not ok. is there any way to clear up the problem? like reflection?

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  • How can I fix my window focus problem?

    - by Ben313
    I have a very frustrating bug in an application I am working on. The routine is supposed to do something in one window, and then return focus to the other at the end of the method, but when I started to use a large data set the other day, the focus stopped returning at the end. I stepped through the code one line at a time, and the errors stopped. so, i figure its a timing issue of some kind. I trace through until i find what i suspect is the culprit. A call to ShellExecute(...), that terminates an image editor i use. (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb762153(VS.85).aspx) Now, if I step past this call, and then continue to run the program, everything works fine, but if I just run past this line, the error occurs. how can this be? I have a call to SetFocus() at the very end of this method. shouldnt the program hit this no matter what? This is all so very frustrating...

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  • php / phpDoc - @return instance of $this class ?

    - by searbe
    How do I mark a method as "returns an instance of the current class" in my phpDoc? In the following example my IDE (Netbeans) will see that setSomething always returns a foo object. But that's not true if I extent the object - it'll return $this, which in the second example is a bar object not a foo object. class foo { protected $_value = null; /** * Set something * * @param string $value the value * @return foo */ public function setSomething($value) { $this->_value = $value; return $this; } } $foo = new foo(); $out = $foo->setSomething(); So fine - setSomething returns a foo - but in the following example, it returns a bar..: class bar extends foo { public function someOtherMethod(){} } $bar = new bar(); $out = $bar->setSomething(); $out->someOtherMethod(); // <-- Here, Netbeans will think $out // is a foo, so doesn't see this other // method in $out's code-completion ... it'd be great to solve this as for me, code completion is a massive speed-boost. Anyone got a clever trick, or even better, a proper way to document this with phpDoc?

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  • Invoking [SKProductsRequest start] hangs on iOS 4.0

    - by figelwump
    Encountering an issue with SKProductsRequest that is specific to iOS 4.0. The problematic code: - (void)requestProductData { NSSet *productIdentifiers = [NSSet setWithObjects:kLimitedDaysUpgradeProductId, kUnlimitedUpgradeProductId, nil]; self.productsRequest = [[SKProductsRequest alloc] initWithProductIdentifiers:productIdentifiers]; self.productsRequest.delegate = self; [self.productsRequest start]; } - (void)productsRequest:(SKProductsRequest *)request didReceiveResponse:(SKProductsResponse *)response { NSLog(@"didReceiveResponse"); } When [SKProductsRequest start] is invoked, the productsRequest:didReceiveResponse: delegate method is never invoked; further, the entire app hangs and is completely unresponsive to input. Obviously, this is a huge issue for our iOS 4.0 users as it not only breaks payments but makes the app completely unusable. Some other things to note: this only happens on iOS 4.0; iOS 4.2, 3.x are fine. Also: if the delegate is not set on the SKProductsRequest (i.e. comment out the line "self.productsRequest.delegate = self;"), the app doesn't hang (but of course in that case we have no way of getting the product info). Also, the problem still reproduces with everything stripped out of the productsRequest:didReceiveResponse: callback (that method never actually gets called). Finally, if the productIdentifiers NSSet object is initialized to an empty set, the hang doesn't occur. Has anybody else experienced this? Any ideas/thoughts on what could be going on here, and how we might be able to work around this?

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  • Java Socket - how to catch Exception of BufferedReader.readline()

    - by Hasan Tahsin
    I have a Thread (let's say T1) which reads data from socket: public void run() { while (running) { try { BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream()) ); String input = reader.readLine(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } Another Thread (lets say T2) try to finish the program in one of its method. Therefore T2 does the following: T1.running = false; socket.close(); Here is this scenario for which i couldn't find a solution: T1 is active and waiting for some input to read i.e. blocking. context switching T2 is active and sets running to false, closes the socket context switching because T1 was blocking and T2 closed the socket, T1 throws an Exception. What i want is to catch this SocketException. i can't put a try/catch(SocketException) in T1.run(). So how can i catch it in T1's running-method? If it's not possible to catch it in T1's running, then how can i catch it elsewhere? PS: "Another question about the Thread Debugging" Normally when i debug the code step by step, i lose the 'active running line' on a context switch. Let's say i'm in line 20 of T1, context switch happens, let's assume the program continues from the 30.line of T2, but the debugger does not go/show to the 30.line of T2, instead the 'active running line' vanishes. So i lose the control over the code. I use Eclipse for Java and Visual Studio for C#. So what is the best way to track the code while debugging on a context switch ?

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  • C# / this. and List<T>

    - by user3533030
    I am having trouble understanding how to initialize a List of objects and use it with methods inside of a class. I understand the mechanics of the List, but not how to initialize it inside a method and use it later. For example, I want to have a class that creates the List when it is constructed. Then, I want to use a method of that class to add elements to the list. The elements in the list are objects defined by the SolidWorks API. So, to construct the List, I used... public class ExportPoints : Exporter { public List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints; public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); } public void createListOfFreePoints() { try { [imagine more code here] this.listOfSketchPoints.Add(pointTest); } catch (Exception e) { Debug.Print(e.ToString()); return; } } This fails during execution as if the listOfSketchPoints was never initialized as a List. So, I tried a hack and this worked: public ExportPoints(SldWorks.SldWorks swApp, string nameSuffix) : base(swApp, nameSuffix) { List<SldWorks.SketchPoint> listOfSketchPoints = new List<SldWorks.SketchPoint>(); this.listOfSketchPoints = listOfSketchPoints; } This approach creates the behavior that I want. However, it seems that I lack some understanding as to why this is necessary. Shouldn't it be possible to "initialize" a List that is a property of your object with a constructor? Why would you need to create the list, then assign the pointer of that new List to your property?

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  • Confusion about pointers and their memory addresses

    - by TimothyTech
    alright, im looking at a code here and the idea is difficult to understand. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class Point { public : int X,Y; Point() : X(0), Y(0) {} }; void MoveUp (Point * p) { p -> Y += 5; } int main() { Point point MoveUp(&point) cout <<point.X << point.Y; return 0; } Alright, so i believe that a class is created and X and Y are declared and they are put inside a constructor a method is created and the argument is Point * p, which means that we are going to stick the constructor's pointer inside the function; now we create an object called point then call our method and put the pointers address inside it? isnt the pointers address just a memory number like 0x255255? and why wasnt p ever declared? (int * p = Y) what is a memory addres exactly? that it can be used as an argument?

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  • What does the Asterisk * mean in Objective-C?

    - by Thanks
    Is it true, that the Asterisk always means "Hey, that is a pointer!" And an Pointer always holds an memory adress? (Yes I know for the exception that a * is used for math operation) For Example: NSString* myString; or SomeClass* thatClass; or (*somePointerToAStruct).myStructComponent = 5; I feel that there is more I need to know about the Asterirsk (*) than that I use it when defining an Variable that is a pointer to a class. Because sometimes I already say in the declaration of an parameter that the Parameter variable is a pointer, and still I have to use the Asterisk in front of the Variable in order to access the value. That recently happened after I wanted to pass a pointer of an struct to a method in a way like [myObj myMethod:&myStruct], I could not access a component value from that structure even though my method declaration already said that there is a parameter (DemoStruct*)myVar which indeed should be already known as a pointer to that demostruct, still I had always to say: "Man, compiler. Listen! It IIISSS a pointer:" and write: (*myVar).myStructComponentX = 5; I really really really do not understand why I have to say that twice. And only in this case. When I use the Asterisk in context of an NSString* myString then I can just access myString however I like, without telling the compiler each time that it's a pointer. i.e. like using *myString = @"yep". It just makes no sense to me.

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