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  • asp.net mvc client side validation; manually calling validation via javascript for ajax posts

    - by Jopache
    Under the built in client side validation (Microsoft mvc validation in mvc 2) using data annotations, when you try to submit a form and the fields are invalid, you will get the red validation summary next to the fields and the form will not post. However, I am using jquery form plugin to intercept the submit action on that form and doing the post via ajax. This is causing it to ignore validation; the red text shows up; but the form posts anyways. Is there an easy way to manually call the validation via javascript when I'm submitting the form? I am still kind of a javascript n00b. I tried googling it with no results and looking through the js source code makes my head hurt trying to figure it out. Or would you all recommend that I look in to some other validation framework? I liked the idea of jquery validate; but would like to define my validation requirements only in my viewmodel. Any experiences with xval or anything of the sort?

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  • Give back full control to a user on a disk from another computer

    - by Foghorn
    I have my friend's hard drive mounted externally. After messing with the permissions with TAKEOWN so I could fix some viruses, I have full control over their drive. The problem is, now it's stuck in a "autochk not found" reboot sequence. I think the problem is that the boot sector is invisible to the drive now. So my question is, How can I use icacls to give back the full ownership, when the user I am giving it to is not on my machine? I ran the TAKEOWN command from my windows 7 laptop, their machine is a windows xp Professional with three partitions, I only altered the one that has the boot sector. Here is the permissions that icacls shows: (Where my computer is %System% my username is ME, and the drive is E:\ C:\Users\ME icacls E:\* E:\$RECYCLE.BIN %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) Mandatory Label\Low Mandatory Level:(OI)(CI)(IO)(NW) E:\ALLDATAW %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\alrt_200.data %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\AUTOEXEC.BAT %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\AZ Commercial %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\boot.ini %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\Config.Msi %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\CONFIG.SYS %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\Documents and Settings %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\IO.SYS %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\Mitchell1 %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\MSDOS.SYS %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\MSOCache %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\NTDClient.log %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\NTDETECT.COM %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\ntldr %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\pagefile.sys %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\Program Files %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\RECYCLER %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\RHDSetup.log %System%\ME:(OI)(CI)(F) E:\System Volume Information %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) E:\WINDOWS %System%\ME:(I)(OI)(CI)(F) Successfully processed 22 files; Failed processing 0 files C:\Users\ME

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  • sIFR3: controlling a and a:hover styles inside replaced through CSS rather than JS

    - by sneeuwitje
    For graceful degrading and minimal coding for the sIFR feature on my websites I would want to define styles in CSS as much as possible. Here's what I do: Define a H3 tag to be replaced by sIFR3. H3 comes in varying colors by CSS depending on it's container, say body.blue-txt h3{ color: #009CDA; } body.white-txt h3{ color: #FFFFFF; } body.etc... H3 might contain an anchor (I'm aware of semantical issues, but that's just how it is ... sorry) With setting sIFR.useStyleCheck = true; sIFR3 will show replaced normal H3 text with correct color, but when it contains a link, it shows the Flash default #0000FF .... All fine; I can tweak e.g. blue text in sifr-config.js by using the css-parameter for sIFR.replace(): sIFR.replace(futura, { selector: 'body.blue-txt h3', css: 'a {color: #009CDA; }, a:hover { color: #009CDA; text-decoration: underline; }' }); But that would have to be coded for every single text-color in my sIFR replacements in both JS and CSS. So I would want to make the sIFR.useStyleCheck setting just respect the CSS in sifr-config.css like: body.blue-txt h3{ color: #009CDA; } body.blue-txt h3 a{ color: #009CDA; } body.blue-txt h3 a:hover{ color: #009CDA; text-decoration: underline; } Only this doesn't seem to work ... the link text keeps popping up as #0000FF and the hover is not underlined. Is this just Not A Feature (Yet), or am doing something wrong?

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  • WPF Combobox Updates list but not the selected item

    - by JoshReedSchramm
    I have a combo box on a WPF form. On this form the user selects a record from the combo box which populates the rest of the fields on the form so the user can update that record. When they click save I am re-retrieving the combo box source which updates the combo box list. The problem is the selected item keeps the original label even though the data behind it is different. When you expand the combo box the selected item shows the right label. I am using a command binding mechanism. Here is some of the relevant code. private void SaveSalesRep() { BindFromView(); if (_salesRep.Id == 0) SalesRepRepository.AddAndSave(_salesRep); else SalesRepRepository.DataContext.SaveChanges(); int originalId = _salesRep.Id; InitSalesRepDropDown(); SalesRepSelItem = ((List<SalesRep>) SalesRepItems.SourceCollection).Find(x => x.Id == originalId); } private void InitSalesRepDropDown() { var salesRepRepository = IoC.GetRepository<ISalesRepRepository>(); IEnumerable<SalesRep> salesReps = salesRepRepository.GetAll(); _salesRepItems = new CollectionView(salesReps); NotifyPropertyChanged("SalesRepItems"); SalesRepSelItem = SalesRepItems.GetItemAt(0) as SalesRep; } The Selected Item property on the combo box is bound to SalesRepSelItem Property and the ItemsSource is bound to SalesRepItems which is backed by _salesRepItems. THe SalesRepSelItem property called NotifyPropertyChanges("SalesRepSelItem") which raises a PropertyChanged event. All told the binding of new items seems to work and the list updates, but the label on the selected item doesnt. Any ideas? Thanks all.

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  • SQL SERVER 2008 JOIN hints

    - by Nai
    Hi all, Recently, I was trying to optimise this query UPDATE Analytics SET UserID = x.UserID FROM Analytics z INNER JOIN UserDetail x ON x.UserGUID = z.UserGUID Estimated execution plan show 57% on the Table Update and 40% on a Hash Match (Aggregate). I did some snooping around and came across the topic of JOIN hints. So I added a LOOP hint to my inner join and WA-ZHAM! The new execution plan shows 38% on the Table Update and 58% on an Index Seek. So I was about to start applying LOOP hints to all my queries until prudence got the better of me. After some googling, I realised that JOIN hints are not very well covered in BOL. Therefore... Can someone please tell me why applying LOOP hints to all my queries is a bad idea. I read somewhere that a LOOP JOIN is default JOIN method for query optimiser but couldn't verify the validity of the statement? When are JOIN hints used? When the sh*t hits the fan and ghost busters ain't in town? What's the difference between LOOP, HASH and MERGE hints? BOL states that MERGE seems to be the slowest but what is the application of each hint? Thanks for your time and help people! I'm running SQL Server 2008 BTW. The statistics mentioned above are ESTIMATED execution plans.

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  • Crystal reports 11 RDC (COM API) displays printer dialog even when I tell it not to prompt

    - by bdonlan
    I'm using Crystal Reports 11's RDC (COM) API to print. My code looks like this: HRESULT res = m_Report->SelectPrinter(b_driver, b_device, b_port); if (FAILED(res)) return res; // For these calls, the #import wrapper throws on error m_Report->PutPrinterDuplex(dmDuplex); m_Report->PutPaperSize(dmPaperSize); m_Report->PutPaperSource((CRPaperSource)pdlg->GetDevMode()->dmDefaultSource); if (m_Report->GetPaperOrientation() == crDefaultPaperOrientation) m_Report->PutPaperOrientation(crPortrait); VARIANT vfalse; VariantInit(&vfalse); vfalse.vt=VT_BOOL; vfalse.boolVal=0; res = m_Report->PrintOut(vfalse); However, at the end of all this, crystal reports still shows its own printer selection dialog - but only for some reports, it seems. Why does crystal reports show a print dialog even when I pass false for promptUser? And how, then, can I suppress crystal reports' internal printer selection dialog and force it to use my values? Edit: Whoops, CR11, not CR9. Some further information: The reports that work properly (ie, do not show the print dialog) are generated internally using the RDC API; we create a new report object, import subreports into it, then print the result. No problem there. The reports that do not work properly (ie, force the print dialog to open) have been created with a previous version of crystal reports; however, opening and saving the report does not seem to help. Sample reports in the Crystal Reports installation directory show the same problem. I tried reproducing with VBScript; however, the result was that nothing was printed at all (no dialog, no nothing): Set app = CreateObject("CrystalRuntime.Application.11") Set report = app.OpenReport("C:\Program Files\Business Objects\Crystal Reports 11.5\Samples\en\Reports\General Business\Inventory Crosstab.rpt") report.PrintOut(True) rem Testing with a True parameter to force a print dialog - but no printout and nothing appears (no error either though)

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  • Using PHP cURL with an HTTP Debugging Proxy

    - by Kane
    I'm using the app "Fiddler" to debug a GET attempt to a website via PHP cURL. In order to see the cURL traffic I had to specify that the cURL connection use the Fiddler proxy (see code below). $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPPROXYTUNNEL, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_PROXY, '127.0.0.1:8888'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 5); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADERFUNCTION, 'read_header'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_REFERER, "http://domain.com"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, "my_cookies.txt"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, "my_cookies.txt"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://domain.com"); $response = curl_exec($ch); But the problem is that in Fiddler I can only see this: Request (domain.com is just an alias): CONNECT domain.com:80 HTTP/1.1 Response: HTTP/1.1 200 Blind-Connection Established If I manually load the website in a browser Fiddler gives me WAY more information. I can see the cookies, the header information, and what I'm receiving via the GET. Any ideas why Fiddler can't see more useful information from PHP cURL? Edit: I tried turning on the "Enable HTTPS Decryption" option inside Tools / Fiddler Options / HTTPS (which I'm not sure why I'd need to use as I didn't tell cURL to use HTTPS). Unfortunately, by changing this setting I now get a Response of: HTTP/1.1 502 Connection failed Edit: If it helps, the app "Charles" shows me WAY more information than Fiddler, but I really want to figure out Fiddler since I like it better.

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  • JSF Render response programmatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBean holds a reference to parentManaged bean through JSF's managed property facility. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object. I use the managed property of childManagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentManagedBean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean. So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programmatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean? Is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it? Note: I'm using JSF 1.1 EDIT- After following the solution of "resubmit-ing the form" from javascript, I am seeing that the old form is getting resubmitting which overwrites all of my changed values.

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  • Default values for Content Taxonomy fields in Drupal with Hierarchical Select widget

    - by lazysoundsystem
    I'm trying to set the default value for a Content Taxonomy field in a hook_form_alter, but can't pin down the necessary format. I've tried this and many variations: foreach (element_children($form) as $child) { // Set $default_value. if ($form[$child]['tids']) { // This, for Content Taxonomy fields, isn't working: $form[$child]['tids']['#default_value'] = array('value' => $default_value); dsm($form[$child]['tids']['#default_value']); } else { // This, for other fields, is working: $form[$child][0]['#default_value']['value'] = $default_value; } } Can anyone tell me what I'm missing? Edit: In response to Henrik Opel (thanks for getting involved), here is the print out of the relevant field of the form with my changes to the default fields commented out, showing the '#default_value' field I'm trying to influence. It also shows that the option widget I'm using is Hierarchical Select (could this be a factor?). In the dsm() in the code above, the changes to the default value are recognised, but they don't get processed later on. field_name_of_content_taxonomy_field (Array, 3 elements) #tree (Boolean) TRUE #weight (String, 1 characters ) 5 tids (Array, 7 elements) #title (String, 10 characters ) Vocabulary_name #type (String, 19 characters ) hierarchical_select #weight (String, 1 characters ) 5 #config (Array, 15 elements) // 15 elements here #required (String, 1 characters ) 0 #description (String, 0 characters ) #default_value (Array, 0 elements)

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  • Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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  • GAE Task Queue oddness

    - by b3nw
    I have been testing the taskqueue with mixed success. Currently I am using the default queue, in default settings ect ect.... I have a test url setup which inserts about 8 tasks into the queue. With short order, all 8 are completed properly. So far so good. The problem comes up when I re-load that url twice under say a minute. Now watching the task queue, all the tasks are added properly, but only the first batch execute it seems. But the "Run in Last Minute" # shows the right number of tasks being run.... The request logs tell a different story. They show only the first set of 8 running, but all task creation urls working successfully. The oddness of this is that if I wait say a minute between the task creation url requests, it will work fine. Oddly enough changing the bucket_size or execution speed does not seem to help. Only the first batch are executed. I have also reduced the number of requests all the way down to 2, and still found only the first 2 execute. Any others added display the same issues as above. Any suggestions? Thanks

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  • iPhone - Failed to save the videos metadata to the filesystem.

    - by cameron
    My application uses the UIImagePicker to allow the user to use the camera and capture a photo to edit/etc. I am getting the error message below: 2010-02-03 10:41:24.018 LivingRoom[5333:5303] Failed to save the videos metadata to the filesystem. Maybe the information did not conform to a plist. Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. A search in Google brings up a number of threads in various forums, with no ultimate response/root cause/suggestions on how to fix/debug. An example is the thread below with code which is very similar to my app: http://groups.google.com/group/iphonesdkdevelopment/browse_thread/thread/6b7b396c62bef398 The error disappears for a while (10 tests in a row, no errors) if I reboot the iPhone. I have not been able to determine what makes it reoccur after a reboot, but it does. I am not using the video source and the fact that a reboot solves the problem for a while points to some sort of mem leak (perhaps?). The problem always shows up on both the iPhone (even after the reboot) and the simulator when choosing a photo from the album, but the app does not crash on the iPhone or the simulator. The same app with exact code did not have the error message when compiled using SDK 3.0 (last August/September). But 3.1.x has always produced the error message, which means that once a week or so the iPhone needs to be rebooted for the error to disappear. The users are not happy with that solution any longer!! Any suggestion/clues would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Binding WPF ComboBox in XAML - Why is it Empty?

    - by mdiehl13
    I am trying to learn how to bind my simple database (.sdf) to a combobox. I created a dataset with my tables in it. I then dragged a table from the DataSource onto my control. There are no build warnings/errors, and when it runs, the ComboBox is empty. <UserControl x:Class="OurFamilyFinances.TabItems.TransactionTab" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="414" d:DesignWidth="578" xmlns:my="clr-namespace:OurFamilyFinances" Loaded="UserControl_Loaded_1"> <UserControl.Resources> <my:FinancesDataDataSet x:Key="financesDataDataSet" /> <CollectionViewSource x:Key="accountViewSource" Source="{Binding Path=Account, Source={StaticResource financesDataDataSet}}" /> </UserControl.Resources> <Grid> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource accountViewSource}}" Margin="3,141,0,0" Name="accountComboBox" SelectedValuePath="ID" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="120"> <ComboBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ComboBox.ItemsPanel> </ComboBox> </Grid> The paths that is shows are correct, the selectedPath is "ID" and the displaypath is "Name". If I do this in Linq to Sql, the combo box does populate: this.accountComboBox.ItemsSource = from o in db.Account select new { o.ID, o.Name }; But I would like to learn how to do this in XAML. I have dragged datagrids from the DataSource as well, but they are not populated either. Any idea?

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  • Fluent config not generating mapping files

    - by rboarman
    Hello, I am trying to get Fluent nHibernate to generate mappings so I can take a look at the files and the sql. My code is based on this post and on what I can glean from the documentation. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1375146/fluent-mapping-entities-and-classmaps-in-different-assemblies I am using the latest code from git. Here’s my config code: Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); var ft = Fluently.Configure(cfg); //DbConnection by fluent ft.Database ( MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ConnectionString("……") .ShowSql() .UseReflectionOptimizer() ); //get mapping files. ft.Mappings(m => { //set up the mapping locations m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"C:\temp"); m.Apply(cfg); }); I also tried: var sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ShowSql() .ConnectionString(“……")) .Mappings(p => p.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"c:\temp\")) .BuildSessionFactory(); I have verified that the connection string is correct. The issue is that no mapping files show up in the ExportTo folder and no sql code shows up in the output window or in the log file. No errors or exceptions are generated either. I have no idea where to go from here. Thank you in advance. Rick

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  • DateChooser is behaving strangly

    - by Tam
    Hi, I'm writing a Flex application and I came accross what I think is a weird problem. I want to create a text box and a DateChooser as the datefield didn't do what I wanted and it's Halo so I can't skin it easily. I want the DateChooser to show when I click on the text input. Here is except from my code: <s:TextInput id="wholeDate" width="100" mouseOver="stopChangeToNormal();" paddingRight="10" click="date1.visible = true" focusOut="date1.visible = false"/> <s:Button label="Go" width="70" /> </s:Panel> <mx:DateChooser id="date1" visible = "false" change="useDate(event);" mouseOver="changeToNormalState = false;" y="{wholeDate.y + buttonsGroup.y + 20}" x="{wholeDate.x + buttonsGroup.x - 175 }" /> The weird thing is that it work as I wanted if I make it visible = "true" to start but if I have it visible="false" it doesn't work! it shows by the date I select doesn't show in the box as it does if I have it as visible="true" but I don't want it to be visible initially. Any ideas? Thanks, Tam

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  • iPhone offline reading

    - by Andy
    Hi, first of all - I am quite new to iPhone App development (3 months). I am working for a software company that offers a content management system. Our customers are for the main part publishing houses for magazines. They use our software to write articles to their homepages. Now we want to offer iPhone Applications to go with our cms. What I have accomplished so far is an RSS reader that shows newly published articles in a list view. The user selects one article and is redirected to a specially formatted detail view of this article. The next step is to add offline reading capabilities. I have searched the internet up and down but couldn't find anything like a best practice for that. I get it that there are two possibilities in general: Store the contents of the uiwebview locally on the iPhone/iPad (including css, images, js and so on). There would be the need to rework the basic html to use the downloaded css, images and js. Also I would have to somehow edit hyperlinks to following pages in multipage articles - Sounds like a lot of work ;) Create a PDF on the server side and download that to the mobile device. Rework the RSS Source to point to the locally saved pdf instead of the website on the server. My question is - what is the better way to go? Are there any downsides for either of the possibilities? Are there other (simple ;)) ways to implement offline reading features? Are there possibly any howto's that I could've missed? Thanks y'all!

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  • Reasons of getting a java.lang.VerifyError

    - by JeroenWyseur
    I'm investigating the following java.lang.VerifyError java.lang.VerifyError: (class: be/post/ehr/wfm/application/serviceorganization/report/DisplayReportServlet, method: getMonthData signature: (IILjava/util/Collection;Ljava/util/Collection;Ljava/util/HashMap;Ljava/util/Collection;Ljava/util/Locale;Lorg/apache/struts/util/MessageRe˜̴MtÌ´MÚw€mçw€mp:”MŒŒ at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredConstructors0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredConstructors(Class.java:2357) at java.lang.Class.getConstructor0(Class.java:2671) It occurs when the jboss server in which the servlet is deployed is started. It is compiled with jdk-1.5.0_11 and I tried to recompile it with jdk-1.5.0_15 without succes. That is the compilation runs fine but when deployed, the java.lang.VerifyError occurs. When I changed the methodname and got the following error: java.lang.VerifyError: (class: be/post/ehr/wfm/application/serviceorganization/r eport/DisplayReportServlet, method: getMD signature: (IILjava/util/Collection;Lj ava/util/Collection;Ljava/util/HashMap;Ljava/util/Collection;Ljava/util/Locale;L org/apache/struts/util/MessageResources-á+ÿ+àN|+ÿ+àN+Üw-Çm+ºw-ÇmX#+ûM|X+öM at java.lang.Class.getDeclaredConstructors0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredConstructors(Class.java:2357 at java.lang.Class.getConstructor0(Class.java:2671) at java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:321) at java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:303) You can see that more of the method signature is shown. The actual method signature is private PgasePdfTable getMonthData(int month, int year, Collection dayTypes, Collection calendarDays, HashMap bcSpecialDays, Collection activityPeriods, Locale locale, MessageResources resources) throws Exception { I already tried looking to it with javap and that gives the method signature as it should be. When my other colleagues check out the code, compile it and deploy it, they have the same problem. When the build server picks up the code and deploys it on development or testing environments (HPUX), the same error occurs. Also an automated testing machine running ubuntu shows the same error during server startup. The rest of the application runs ok, only that one servlet is out of order. Any ideas where to look would be helpful.

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  • Custom ASPNetMembership FailureInformation always null, OnValidatingPassword issue

    - by bigb
    As stated here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.membershipprovider.onvalidatingpassword.aspx "When the ValidatingPassword event has completed, the properties of the ValidatePasswordEventArgs object supplied as the e parameter can be examined to determine whether the current action should be canceled and if a particular Exception, stored in the FailureInformation property, should be thrown." Here is some details/code which really shows why FailureInformation shouldn't be always null http://forums.asp.net/t/991002.aspx if any password security conditions not matched. According with my Membership settings i should get an exception that password does not match password security conditions, but it is not happened. Then i did try to debug System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll(in .NET 4.0 System.Web.Security located here) Framework Code to see whats really happens there, but i cant step into this assembly, may be because of this [TypeForwardedFrom("System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=Neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a")] public abstract class MembershipProvider : ProviderBase Easily i may step into any another .NET 4.0 assembly, but in this one not. I did check, symbols for System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll loaded. Now i have only one idea how ti fix it - to override method OnValidatingPassword(ValidatePasswordEventArgs e). Thats my story. May be some one may help: 1) Any ideas why OnValidatingPassword not working? 2) Any ideas how to step into it?

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  • Finding source of over release

    - by Benedict Lowndes
    Hi, I'm consistently seeing the same message sent in as a crash report from users of an app. It's clear that an object is being over-released but I'm unable to replicate it and I'm looking for tips on tracing the source of it. The relevant section from the crash report shows this: Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: release Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x90892edb objc_msgSend + 27 1 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec5a40 __CFBasicHashStandardCallback + 384 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec564e __CFBasicHashDrain + 478 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ead6f1 _CFRelease + 353 4 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95eda0ed _CFAutoreleasePoolPop + 253 5 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ecedd6 NSPopAutoreleasePool + 76 6 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ececfe -[NSAutoreleasePool drain] + 130 7 com.apple.AppKit 0x9211255f -[NSApplication run] + 1013 8 com.apple.AppKit 0x9210a535 NSApplicationMain + 574 9 TheApp 0x000020a6 start + 54 I've used zombies and leaks, but haven't seen anything there. I've gone through the code and can't see it. What's the next step? Are there any hints I can discern from this information as to the source of it? Does the fact that this nearly exact same crash report is coming in repeatedly mean that it's the same object that's being over released, or because this is referring to the autorelease pool mean it could be any object? Does the reference to _CFRelease mean it's a Core Foundation object that's being over released?

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  • Starting CLI application programmatically does not work depending on arguments

    - by Daniel Beck
    I try to start plink.exe (PuTTY Link, the command line utility/version of PuTTY) from a C# application to establish an SSH reverse tunnel, but it does no longer work as soon as I pass the correct parameters. What does that mean? The following works as expected: it opens a command line window, displays that I forgot to pass the password for the -pw argument quits, and shows the prompt. I know it got the arguments, since it specifically requests the one thing I did not provide. Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw"; // TODO pwd Process p = Process.Start(info); I tried the same think with calling plink.exe directly instead of cmd.exe /k, but the window closes immediately, which is unfortunate for bug-hunting. BUT when I pass a password in the arguments, plink.exe displays the program help (showing available parameters) and quits: Uri uri = omitted; ProcessStartInfo info = new ProcessStartInfo(); info.FileName = "cmd"; info.Arguments = "/k \"C:\\Program Files (x86)\\PuTTY\\plink.exe\" -R 3389:" + uri.Host + ":" + uri.Port + " -N -l username -pw secretpassword"; Process p = Process.Start(info); No indication of missing parameters. Both the cmd /k and plink.exe variants do not work (the latter closes immediately, so no information regarding different behaviour). When I launch the application from the Windows 7 Start Menu launcher with the identical parameters, it opens a cmd.exe window and establishes the connection as requested. What's wrong? Is there a way plink.exe notices it's not running in a real shell? If yes, how can I circumvent it, like the Start Menu "prompt" does? I hope this question is right on SO, since it, though specifically for a single application, revolves around launching it successfully programmatically.

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  • Setting up a button to trigger both modalPopupExtender and his Click Method

    - by Vitor Reis
    Hey guys, I have this modalPopupExtender, I want it to show a CheckBoxList with some data. I have set up a button to call both the method to fill the CheckBoxes and trigger the modalPopup (TargetControlID). they're all inside an UpdatePanel. with the right triggers. The problem is that when I click the button it shows the modalPopup but doesn't load the method to fill my CheckBoxes... Also, a linkButton inside the poup (linkButtonCheckAll) just closes the popup when clicked. When I remove the modalPopup the code works just fine and the list is loaded dinamically with the UpdatePanel. <asp:UpdatePanel ID="uppLote" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <ajaxToolkit:ModalPopupExtender ID="modalLote" runat="server" BehaviorID="popup" TargetControlID="buttonViewLote" PopupControlID="panelLote" /> <asp:Panel ID="panelLote" runat="server" CssClass="modalpopup"> <asp:LinkButton ID="linkButtonCheckAll" runat="server" Text="Check All Items" onclick="linkButtonCheckAll_Click"></asp:LinkButton> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="checkListLote" runat="server"> </asp:CheckBoxList> </asp:Panel> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="linkButtonViewLote" EventName="Click" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="linkButtonCheckAll" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> If I completely remove the modalPopupExtender, the code works fine, showing me the list I want with the method "linkButonViewLote_Click" (so, the problem is occurring due to the button triggering the modalPopupExtender is the same that I'm using to get my data, right? Any solutions?

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  • Can GWT image sprites using ImageBundle be made to work in IE7 and IE6?

    - by aem
    I'm trying to use a ClientBundle in my GWT application to make multiple images get sent as a single file. I declare the bundle like so: public interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { public static final MyResources INSTANCE = GWT.create(MyResources.class); @Source("icon1.png") ImageResource icon1(); @Source("icon2.png") ImageResource icon2(); } This works great in Firefox and IE8, but in IE7 (and earlier) the whole sprite shows up in place of one of my original images - that is, icon1 is next to icon2 next to icon3, and so on. In IE8's developer tools using IE8-as-IE7 mode or Compatibility View, I can see that it's showing an image with a file name like 26BEFD2399A92A5DDA54277BA550C75B.cache.png, which is what I'd expect. So is there any way to make GWT image sprites work in IE7 and lower? If not, is there any way to gracefully degrade so users of other browsers get the speedup of spriting and IE7 and IE6 users get something that looks right but is slower? Edit: The Client Bundle Developer's Guide has a discussion of using ClientBundle and @sprite, and says "Support for IE6 isn't feasible in this format, because structural changes to the DOM are necessary to implement a "windowing" effect. Once it's possible to distinguish ie6 and ie7 in user.agent, we could revisit support for ie6. In the current implementation, the ie6 code won't render correctly, although is a purely cosmetic issue." Is this what's going on in my case, and is there a way to work around it? Showing all the images is "purely a cosmetic issue", but it's a pretty severe one.

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  • Boost Mersenne Twister: how to seed with more than one value?

    - by Eamon Nerbonne
    I'm using the boost mt19937 implementation for a simulation. The simulation needs to be reproducible, and that means storing and potentially reusing the RNG seeds later. I'm using the windows crypto api to generate the seed values because I need an external source for the seeds and not because of any particular guarantees of randomness. The output of any simulation run will have a note including the RNG seed - so the seed needs to be reasonably short. On the other hand, as part of the analysis of the simulation, I'll be comparing several runs - but to be sure that these runs are actually different, I'll need to use different seeds - so the seed needs to be long enough to avoid accidental collisions. I've determined that 64-bits of seeding should suffice; the chance of a collision will reach 50% after about 2^32 runs - that probability is low enough that the average error caused by it is negligible to me. Using just 32-bits of seed is tricky; the chance of a collision reaches 50% already after 2^16 runs; and that's a little too likely for my tastes. Unfortunately, the boost implementation either seeds with a full state vector - which is far, far too long - or a single 32-bit unsigned long - which isn't ideal. How can I seed the generator with more than 32-bits but less than a full state vector? I tried just padding the vector or repeating the seeds to fill the state vector, but even a cursory glance at the results shows that that generates poor results.

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  • Data Transfer Objects VS Domain/ActiveRecord Entities in the View in RoR

    - by leypascua
    I'm coming from a .NET background, where it is a practice to not bind domain/entity models directly to the view in not-so-basic CRUD-ish applications where the view does not directly project entity fields as-is. I'm wondering what's the practice in RoR, where the default persistence mechanism is ActiveRecord. I would assert that presentation-related info should not be leaked to the entities, not sure though if this is how real RoR heads would do it. If DTOs/model per view is the approach, how will you do it in Rails? Your thoughts? EDIT: Some examples: - A view shows a list of invoices, with the number of unique items in one column. - A list of credit card accounts, where possibly fraudulent transactions were executed. For that, the UI needs to show this row in red. For both scenarios, The lists don't show all of the fields of the entities, just a few to show in the list (like invoice #, transaction date, name of the account, the amount of the transaction) For the invoice example, The invoice entity doesn't have a field "No. of line items" mapped on it. The database has not been denormalized for perf reasons and it will be computed during query time using aggregate functions. For the credit card accounts example, surely the card transaction entity doesn't have a "Show-in-red" or "IsFraudulent" invariant. Yes it may be a business rule, but for this example, that is a presentation concern, so I would like to keep it out of my domain model.

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  • Android SMS API

    - by Schildmeijer
    I know that the SMS content provider is not part of the public API (at least not documented), but if I understand correctly it's still possible to use many of the SMS features as long as you know how to use the API(?). E.g it's pretty straightforward to insert an SMS into your inbox: ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); values.put("address", "+457014921911"); contentResolver.insert(Uri.parse("content://sms"), values); Unfortunately this does not trigger the standard "new-SMS-in-your-inbox" notification. Is it possible to trigger this manually? Edit: AFAIK the "standard mail application (Messaging)" in Android is listening for incoming SMSes using the android.permission.RECEIVE_SMS permission. And then, when a new SMS has arrived, a status bar notification is inserted with a "special" notification id. So one solution to my problem (stated above) could be to find, and send the correct broadcast intent; something like "NEW SMS HAS ARRIVED"-intent. Edit: Downloaded a third party messaging application (chompsms) from Android market. This application satisfies my needs better. When i execute the code above the chompsms notice the new sms and shows the "standard status bar notification". So I would say that the standard Android Messaging application is not detecting sms properly? Or am I wrong?

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