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  • Building a ctypes-"based" C library with distutils

    - by Robie Basak
    Following this recommendation, I have written a native C extension library to optimise part of a Python module via ctypes. I chose ctypes over writing a CPython-native library because it was quicker and easier (just a few functions with all tight loops inside). I've now hit a snag. If I want my work to be easily installable using distutils using python setup.py install, then distutils needs to be able to build my shared library and install it (presumably into /usr/lib/myproject). However, this not a Python extension module, and so as far as I can tell, distutils cannot do this. I've found a few references to people other people with this problem: Someone on numpy-discussion with a hack back in 2006. Somebody asking on distutils-sig and not getting an answer. Somebody asking on the main python list and being pointed to the innards of an existing project. I am aware that I can do something native and not use distutils for the shared library, or indeed use my distribution's packaging system. My concern is that this will limit usability as not everyone will be able to install it easily. So my question is: what is the current best way of distributing a shared library with distutils that will be used by ctypes but otherwise is OS-native and not a Python extension module? Feel free to answer with one of the hacks linked to above if you can expand on it and justify why that is the best way. If there is nothing better, at least all the information will be in one place.

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  • bin-deploying DLLs banned in leiu of GAC on shared IIS 6 servers

    - by craigmoliver
    I need to solicit feedback about a recent security policy change at an organization I work with. They have recently banned the bin-deployment of DLLs to shared IIS 6 application servers. These servers host many isolated web application pools. The new rules require all DLLs to be installed in GAC. The is a problem for me because I bin-deploy several dlls including the ASP.NET MVC Framework, HTML Agility Pack, ELMAH, and my own shared class libraries. I do this because: Eliminates web application server dependencies to the Global Assembly Cache. Allows me (the developer) to have control of what goes on inside my application. Enables the application to deployed as a "package". Removes application deployment burden from the server administrators. Now, here are my questions. From a security perspective what are the advantages to using the GAC vs. bin-deployment? Is it possible to host multiple versions of the same DLL in the GAC? Has anyone run into similar restrictions?

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  • How Does One Make Scala Control Abstraction in Repeat Until?

    - by peter_pilgrim
    Hi I am Peter Pilgrim. I watched Martin Odersky create a control abstraction in Scala. However I can not yet seem to repeat it inside IntelliJ IDEA 9. Is it the IDE? package demo class Control { def repeatLoop ( body: = Unit ) = new Until( body ) class Until( body: = Unit ) { def until( cond: = Boolean ) { body; val value: Boolean = cond; println("value="+value) if ( value ) repeatLoop(body).until(cond) // if (cond) until(cond) } } def doTest2(): Unit = { var y: Int = 1 println("testing ... repeatUntil() control structure") repeatLoop { println("found y="+y) y = y + 1 } { until ( y < 10 ) } } } The error message reads: Information:Compilation completed with 1 error and 0 warnings Information:1 error Information:0 warnings C:\Users\Peter\IdeaProjects\HelloWord\src\demo\Control.scala Error:Error:line (57)error: Control.this.repeatLoop({ scala.this.Predef.println("found y=".+(y)); y = y.+(1) }) of type Control.this.Until does not take parameters repeatLoop { In the curried function the body can be thought to return an expression (the value of y+1) however the declaration body parameter of repeatUntil clearly says this can be ignored or not? What does the error mean?

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  • Best practice way to handle variable content margin?

    - by Aithne
    Ok, so a quick site that I am throwing together for a friend has about 20 static pages. Each one with a small amount of content. the div Container contains, well, the div Content, and the div Content contains, obviously, the content that changes on each page. Now, depending on the length of the content, I want a different margin at the top. The less content, then the larger the margin. Simply an aesthetic choice. For example, if the content almost fills the static sized container, there is less padding, but a 1 line page of content might be 1/3 of the way down the static container. Centering the content in the div wont do, as that creates too large of a margin. Whats the best way to handle this? A new class for each content with a different margin? A new Id, so that it is in its own special div positioned or margined differently? Inline css on each page to override the standard css for div Content? A differnt spacer div inside Container before Content on each page? Some sort of scripting along the lines of margin of Content = (ContainerHeight - ContentHeight) / 3? Whats the acceptable way of doing this? I don't want to get into bad habits.

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  • ASP.NET ListView, custom DataSources, and editing items

    - by Andrew Shepherd
    The MSDN walkthroughs provide a number of examples where you can drag a DataSource from the toolbox, run through some simple configuration steps, then drag a ListView onto the screen, point it at the DataSource, and hey - you've got full table editing. Now I'm trying to write my own DataSource class (a class that implements System.Web.UI.IDataSource) and my own DataSourceView class. I now assign an instance of this custom DataSource class to the ListView.DataSource propery. The display of all the items is working well. However, updating, inserting and deleting just is not working. I'm overriding every function I can in my DataSourceView class, and they just aren't being called. This is such a huge topic, I'll focus this question on one simple example: When you press the "Edit" button (the button inside the ItemTemplate with a CommandName of "Edit", you expect the ItemTemplate to be replaced by an EditItemTemplate. This did not happen. The only way I could get it to happen was to handle the onitemediting event. protected void _listViewPublicHolidays_ItemEditing(object sender, ListViewEditEventArgs e) { _listViewPublicHolidays.EditIndex = e.NewEditIndex; _listViewPublicHolidays.DataBind(); } This is hardly a problem, but how come I had to do it at all? In the MSDN walkthroughs where I attach a ListView to a LinqDataSource, this code doesn't have to be written. Can someone who's been here before hazard a guess as to what would be different or missing in my custom datasource?

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  • Pointer incrementing query

    - by Craig
    I have been looking at this piece of code, and it is not doing what I expect. I have 3 globals. int x, y, *pointer, z; Inside of main I declare them. x = 10; y = 25; pointer = &x; now at this point &x is 0x004A144 &y is 0x004A138 pointer is pointing to 0x004A144 Now when I increment: y = *++pointer; it points to 0x004A148, this is the address y should be at shouldn't it? The idea is that incrementing the pointer to 'x' should increment it to point at y, but it doesn't seem to want to declare them in in order like I expect. If this a VS2005 / 2008 problem? Or maybe an Express problem? This isn't really homework, as I have done it a couple of years ago but I was revising on my pointer stuff and I tried this again. But this time I am getting unexpected results. Does anyone have opinions on this? *UPDATE sorry should be more clear, 'thought' on declaration 'y' should be at 148, and that incrementing the pointer pointing to x should increment 'pointer' to 148 (which it does), but that isn't where y is. Why isn't y declaring where it should be.

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  • How to Create a Folder in the Current Document Library if it's not already present?

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • JavaScript: Double script tags in Google Analytics tracking code

    - by Tom
    This is more a curiosity question than anything else... Google instructs to add the analytics tracking code as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try{ var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-xxxxxx-x"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {} </script> I'm wondering some JS guru here could tell me why they're separating it into two script tags instead of sticking it all inside one. I know that the top part could be put in the header and the bottom part just before body tag to ensure the page loaded before it's tracked, but I'm wondering if there's something more to it. Anyone who'd know that would likely know how to separate the code into two tags anyway. I'm only asking as this is coming from the Goog and is being used by millions of sites... Thanks

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  • Remove pointer object whose reference is mantained in three different lists

    - by brainydexter
    I am not sure how to approach this problem: 'Player' class mantains a list of Bullet* objects: class Player { protected: std::list< Bullet* > m_pBullet_list; } When the player fires a Bullet, it is added to this list. Also, inside the constructor of bullet, a reference of the same object is updated in CollisionMgr, where CollisionMgr also mantains a list of Bullet*. Bullet::Bullet(GameGL*a_pGameGL, Player*a_pPlayer) : GameObject( a_pGameGL ) { m_pPlayer = a_pPlayer; m_pGameGL->GetCollisionMgr()->AddBullet(this); } class CollisionMgr { void AddBullet(Bullet* a_pBullet); protected: std::list< Bullet*> m_BulletPList; } In CollisionMgr.Update(); based on some conditions, I populate class Cell which again contain a list of Bullet*. Finally, certain conditions qualify a Bullet to be deleted. Now, these conditions are tested upon while iterating through a Cell's list. So, if I have to delete the Bullet object, from all these places, how should I do it so that there are no more dangling references to it? std::list< Bullet*>::iterator bullet_it; for( bullet_it = (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).begin(); bullet_it != (a_pCell->m_BulletPList).end(); bullet_it++) { bool l_Bullet_trash = false; Bullet* bullet1 = *bullet_it; // conditions would set this to true if ( l_Bullet_Trash ) // TrashBullet( bullet1 ); continue; } Also, I was reading about list::remove, and it mentions that it calls the destructor of the object we are trying to delete. Given this info, if I delete from one list, the object does not exist, but the list would still contain a reference to it..How do I handle all these problems ? Can someone please help me here ? Thanks PS: If you want me to post more code or provide explanation, please do let me know.

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  • how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

    - by Jean-Denis Muys
    My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

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  • Stop Child Elements from Inheriting Parent Style, Broken Tabs Javascript

    - by WillingLearner
    I am using the flowplayer jquery tabs plugin: http://flowplayer.org/tools/tabs/index.html Im having mucho difficulty when placing my child elements inside the panes divs, and stopping them from inheriting the style of the container pane div. Its breaking my layout to pieces and i need to know how to override the style and just keep the container panes div only to itself. Also, im having a devil of a time trying to call 2 different sets of tabs and panes. Im not getting the classes and IDs right, the javascript, or something along those lines. How would i set this up so i can call (tabs A / panes A) and then (tabs B / panes B), css wise, and javascript wise? My current javascript is: <!-- This JavaScript snippet activates the tabs --> <script> // perform JavaScript after the document is scriptable. $(function() { // setup ul.tabs to work as tabs for each div directly under div.panes $("ul.tabs").tabs("div.panes1 > div"); //$("ul.tabs.myprofile").tabs("div.panes > div"); }); </script> This only works for 1 set of tabs and panes on a page. Dosent help me much if i want to call 2 totally different sets. Ive gone over the documentation many times but im still not getting it. Please help me find a solution to BOTH of my problems. Thanks.

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  • How do you detect when the Flowplayer has started playing the video?

    - by Alex
    Hi. I'm using the Flowplayer Flash video player to play MP4 videos inside an AnythingSlider. I need to detect when the user has clicked the start button on the video so to stop the slideshow and allow the user to view the video. I've tried using this code just to get an alert box but it doesn't do anything (the code is at the end of the page, before the closing </body> tag): <script type="text/javascript"> $f("player","global/js/flowplayer/flowplayer-3.1.5.swf",{ onStart: function(clip) { alert('player started'); } }); </script> The Flowplayer is implemented as part of the html5media library, which automatically detects whether the browser can handle the <video> tag; if not, it replaces the anchor tag below with the Flowplayer: <video id="vid" width="372" height="209" poster="global/vid/bbq-poster.jpg" controls preload> <source id="videoSource" src="global/vid/BBQ_Festival.mp4" type='video/mp4; codecs="avc1.42E01E, mp4a.40.2"' onerror="fallback(this.parentNode)" ></source> <a href="global/vid/BBQ_Festival.mp4" style="display:block;width:372px;height:209px; padding-left:5px; " id="player"> </a> </video> So the $f() function call is in a JavaScript block at the end of the page, to give the player a chance to load correctly. What am I doing wrong? Thanks.

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  • css layout - break down

    - by Luke
    So I am trying to get the effect of having two frames inside a 750px wide frame. .news {width: 750px;} .news1 {width:550px;} .news2 {width:200px;} Very simple css at this stage. The html/php: <div class="news"> <div class="format"><a href='newspiece.php?news=<?echo $id?>'><?echo "$subject\n";?></a></div> <div class="news1"> <? echo "<div class='content'>"; echo nl2br($comment); echo "<a href='newspiece.php?news=$id'>..[read more]..</a>\n"; echo "</div>"; ?> <h5><? echo "Posted by <a href=\"userprofile.php?user=$posted\">$posted</a> on $final_date\n";?></h5> <? echo "<br />\n";?> </div> <div class="news2"> <img src="images/news/<? echo $id?>.jpg" /> </div> </div>] THe problem I am getting is that the image that should be on the right is going underneath. So in effect, news1 is above news2, rather than side by side. Any ideas?

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  • Is there a methode to linarize a Document?

    - by M.R.
    A webservice response with a message which is not linarized. This produces a problem, when trying to access a (as an example) the root element with getSOAPBody().getFirstChlid(). In a linarized document this call would return the first element inside the the body. If the message is not properly formated, you may get the the line break between the soap body and the first element. The problem should be easy to solve with a recursive method, but I was wondering, if there is a method for it? Like normalize etc. Edit: XML Response: ... XMLSchema-instance"><soapenv:Body> <wst:RequestSecurityTokenResponse xmlns:wst="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/ws/200/02/trust">... JAVA CODE: final DocumentBuilderFactory factory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); factory.setNamespaceAware(true); DocumentBuilder db = factory.newDocumentBuilder(); Document result = db.newDocument(); //messResult is the response result.appendChild(result.importNode(messResult.getSOAPBody().getFirstChild(),true)); Error Log: HIERARCHY_REQUEST_ERR: An attempt was made to insert a node where it is not permitted.

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  • Raphael.js: Adding a new custom element

    - by Claudia
    I would like to create a custom Raphael element, with custom properties and functions. This object must also contain predefined Raphael objects. For example, I would have a node class, that would contain a circle with text and some other elements inside it. The problem is to add this new object to a set. These demands are needed because non-Raphael objects cannot be added to sets. As a result, custom objects that can contain Raphael objects cannot be used. The code would look like this: var Node = function (paper) { // Coordinates & Dimensions this.x = 0, this.y = 0, this.radius = 0, this.draw = function () { this.entireSet = paper.set(); var circle = paper.circle(this.x, this.y, this.radius); this.circleObj = circle; this.entireSet.push(circle); var text = paper.text(this.x, this.y, this.text); this.entireSet.push(text); } // other functions } var NodeList = function(paper){ this.nodes = paper.set(), this.populateList = function(){ // in order to add a node to the set // the object must be of type Raphael object // otherwise the set will have no elements this.nodes.push(// new node) } this.nextNode = function(){ // ... } this.previousNode = function(){ // ... } }

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  • MySql: Query multiple identical dynamic tables.

    - by JYelton
    I have a database with 500+ tables, each with identical structure, that contain historical data from sensors. I am trying to come up with a query that will locate, for example, all instances where sensor n exceeds x. The problem is that the tables are dynamic, the query must be able to dynamically obtain the list of tables. I can query information_schema.tables to get a list of the tables, like so: SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_schema = 'database_name'; I can use this to create a loop in the program and then query the database repeatedly, however it seems like there should be a way to have MySql do the multiple table search. I have not been able to make a stored procedure that works, but the examples I can find are generally for searching for a string in any column. I want to specifically find data in a specific column that exists in all tables. I admit I do not understand how to properly use stored procedures nor if they are the appropriate solution to this problem. An example query inside the loop would be: SELECT device_name, sensor_value FROM device_table WHERE sensor_value > 10; Trying the following does not work: SELECT device_name, sensor_value FROM ( SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_schema = 'database_name' ) WHERE sensor_value > 10; It results in an error: "Every derived table must have its own alias." The goal is to have a list of all devices that have had a given sensor value occur anywhere in their log (table). Ultimately, should I just loop in my program once I've obtained a list of tables, or is there a query structure that would be more efficient?

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  • Rtti data manipulation and consistency in Delphi 2010

    - by Coco
    Has anyone an idea, how I can make TValue using a reference to the original data? In my serialization project, I use (as suggested in XML-Serialization) a generic serializer which stores TValues in an internal tree-structure (similar to the MemberMap in the example). This member-tree should also be used to create a dynamic setup form and manipulate the data. My idea was to define a property for the Data: TDataModel <T> = class {...} private FData : TValue; function GetData : T; procedure SetData (Value : T); public property Data : T read GetData write SetData; end; The implementation of the GetData, SetData Methods: procedure TDataModel <T>.SetData (Value : T); begin FData := TValue.From <T> (Value); end; procedure TDataModel <T>.GetData : T; begin Result := FData.AsType <T>; end; Unfortunately, the TValue.From method always makes a copy of the original data. So whenever the application makes changes to the data, the DataModel is not updated and vice versa if I change my DataModel in a dynamic form, the original data is not affected. Sure I could always use the Data property before and after changing anything, but as I use lot of Rtti inside my DataModel, I do not realy want to do this anytime. Perhaps someone has a better suggestion?

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  • Reading same file from multiple threads in C#

    - by Gustavo Rubio
    Hi. I was googling for some advise about this and I found some links. The most obvious was this one but in the end what im wondering is how well my code is implemented. I have basically two classes. One is the Converter and the other is ConverterThread I create an instance of this Converter class that has a property ThreadNumber that tells me how many threads should be run at the same time (this is read from user) since this application will be used on multi-cpu systems (physically, like 8 cpu) so it is suppossed that this will speed up the import The Converter instance reads a file that can range from 100mb to 800mb and each line of this file is a tab-delimitted value record that is imported to another destination like a database. The ConverterThread class simply runs inside the thread (new Thread(ConverterThread.StartThread)) and has event notification so when its work is done it can notify the Converter class and then I can sum up the progress for all these threads and notify the user (in the GUI for example) about how many of these records have been imported and how many bytes have been read. It seems, however that I'm having some trouble because I get random errors about the file not being able to be read or that the sum of the progress (percentage) went above 100% which is not possible and I think that happens because threads are not being well managed and probably the information returned by the event is malformed (since it "travels" from one thread to another) Do you have any advise on better practices of implementation of threads so I can accomplish this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Getting basepath from view in zend framework

    - by mobmad
    Case: you're developing a site with Zend Framework and need relative links to the folder the webapp is deployed in. I.e. mysite.com/folder online and localhost:8080 under development. The following works nice in controllers regardless of deployed location: $this->_helper->redirector->gotoSimple($action, $controller, $module, $params); And the following inside a viewscript, ie. index.phtml: <a href="<?php echo $this->url(array('controller'=>'index', 'action' => 'index'), null, true); ?>"> But how do I get the correct basepath when linking to images or stylesheets? (in a layout.phtml file, for example): <img src='<?php echo WHAT_TO_TYPE_HERE; ?>images/logo.png' /> and $this->headLink()->appendStylesheet( WHAT_TO_TYPE_HERE . 'css/default.css'); WHAT_TO_TYPE_HERE should be replaced with something that gives <img src="/folder/images/logo.png />` on mysite.com and `<img src="/images/logo.png /> on localhost

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  • Loading a gallery of external images with JQuery

    - by pingu
    Hi guys, I'm creating a gallery of images pulled in via a twitter image hosting service, and I want to show a loading graphic before they are displayed, but the logic seems to be failing me. I'm trying to do it the following way: <ul> <li> <div class="holder loading"> </div> </li> <li> <div class="holder loading"> </div> </li> <li>...</li> <li>...</li> </ul> Where there "loading" class has an animated spinner set as it's background image. JQuery: $('.holder').each(function(){ var imgsrc = http://example.com/imgsrc; var img = new Image(); $(img).load(function () { $(this).hide(); $(this).parent('.holder').removeClass('loading'); $(this).parent().append(this); $(this).fadeIn(); }) .error(function () { }).attr('src', imgsrc); }); Which isn't working - I'm not sure that the logic is correct and how to access the "holder" from inside the img.load nested function. What would be the best way to build this gallery so that the images display only after they've been loaded?

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  • How can I convert seconds to minutes in jQuery while updating an element with the current time?

    - by pghtech
    So I see a number of ways to display allot of seconds in a (static) hr/min/sec. However, I am trying to produce a visual count down timer: $('#someelement').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); My counter is reduced inside a SetInterval that triggers ever 1 second: //....... var counter = redirectTimer; jQuery('#WarningDialogMsg').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); //........ SetInternval( function() { counter -= 1; secCounter = Math.floor(counter % 60); minCounter = Math.floor(counter / 60); //....... $('#someelement').html(minCounter + ' minutes ' + ((secCounter == 0) ? '' : (secCounter + ' seconds'))); }, 1000) It is a two minute counter but I don't want to display 120 seconds. I want to display 1 : 59 (and counting down). I have managed to get it to work using the above, but my main question is: is there a more elegant way to accomplish the above? (note: I am redirecting once "counter == 0").

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  • SSIS Transaction with Sql Transaction

    - by Mike
    I started with a package to make sure Transactions are working correctly. The package level transaction is set to Required. I have two Execute Sql Task, one deletes rows from a table and one does 1/0, to throw the error. Both task are set to supported transaction level and Serializable IsolationLevel. That works. Now when I replace my two sql task to two separate procedure calls, the first one, ChargeInterest, runs successful but the second one, PaymentProcess, fails always saying. [Execute SQL Task] Error: Executing the query "Exec [proc_xx_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] ..." failed with the following error: "Uncommittable transaction is detected at the end of the batch. The transaction is rolled back.". Possible failure reasons: Problems with the query, "ResultSet" property not set correctly, parameters not set correctly, or connection not established correctly. PaymentProcess being the second stored procedure. Both procedures have there own BEGIN, COMMIT AND ROLLBACKS inside the SP. I believe that the transactions are being successfully handed in the Charge Interest because I can run the following without issues or the dreaded you started with 0 and now have 1 transaction. EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 --OR GO BEGIN TRAN EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_ChargeInterest] 'NR', 'M', 186, 300 EXEC [proc_XX_NotesReceivable_PaymentProcess] 'NR', 186, 300 ROLLBACK TRAN Now I have noticed that DTC does get kicked off in both instances? Why I am not sure because it is using the same connection. In the live example I can see the transaction get started but disappears if I put a breakpoint on the PreExecute event of the second stored procedure. What is the correct way to mingle SP transactions with SSIS transactions?

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  • How to make += operator keep the object reference?

    - by orloffm
    Say, I have a class: class M { public int val; And also a + operator inside it: public static M operator +(M a, M b) { M c = new M(); c.val = a.val + b.val; return c; } } And I've got a List of the objects of the class: List<M> ms = new List(); M obj = new M(); obj.val = 5; ms.Add(obj); Some other object: M addie = new M(); addie.val = 3; I can do this: ms[0] += addie; and it surely works as I expect - the value in the list is changed. But if I want to do M fromList = ms[0]; fromList += addie; it doesn't change the value in ms for obvious reasons. But intuitively I expect ms[0] to also change after that. Really, I pick the object from the list and then I increase it's value with some other object. So, since I held a reference to ms[0] in fromList before addition, I want still to hold it in fromList after performing it. Are there any ways to achieve that?

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  • Java try finally variations

    - by Petr Gladkikh
    This question nags me for a while but I did not found complete answer to it yet (e.g. this one is for C# http://stackoverflow.com/questions/463029/initializing-disposable-resources-outside-or-inside-try-finally). Consider two following Java code fragments: Closeable in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); try { doSomething(in); } finally { in.close(); } and second variation Closeable in = null; try { in = new FileInputStream("data.txt"); doSomething(in); } finally { if (null != in) in.close(); } The part that worries me is that the thread might be somewhat interrupted between the moment resource is acquired (e.g. file is opened) but resulting value is not assigned to respective local variable. Is there any other scenarios the thread might be interrupted in the point above other than: InterruptedException (e.g. via Thread#interrupt()) or OutOfMemoryError exception is thrown JVM exits (e.g. via kill, System.exit()) Hardware fail (or bug in JVM for complete list :) I have read that second approach is somewhat more "idiomatic" but IMO in the scenario above there's no difference and in all other scenarios they are equal. So the question: What are the differences between the two? Which should I prefer if I do concerned about freeing resources (especially in heavily multi-threading applications)? Why? I would appreciate if anyone points me to parts of Java/JVM specs that support the answers.

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  • PHP/MySQL - Working with two databases, one shared and one local to an instance of application

    - by Extrakun
    The situation: Using a off-the-shelf PHP application, I have to add in a new module for extra functionality. Today, it is made known that eventually four different instances of the application are to be deployed, but the data from the new functionality is to be shared among those 4 instances. Each instance should still have their own database for users, content and etc. So the data for the new functionality goes into a 'shared' database. The data for the application (user login, content, uploads) go into a 'local' database To make things more complex, the new module I am writing will fetch data from the local DB and the shared DB at the same time. A re-write of the base application will take too long. I only have control over the new module which I am writing. The ideal solution: Is there a way to encapsulate 2 databases into one name using MySQL? I do not wish to switch DB connections or specifically name the DB to query from inside my SQL statements. The application uses a DB wrapper, so I am able to change it somehow so I can invisibly attempt to read/write to two different DB. What is the best way to handle this problem?

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