Search Results

Search found 14531 results on 582 pages for 'proxy pass'.

Page 487/582 | < Previous Page | 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494  | Next Page >

• How can we best represent the SDLC process as a board game?

  - by Innogetics

  I recently got interested in financial board games and saw how they can be very useful in educating children about certain concepts. It got me thinking whether it was also possible to represent certain aspects of executing a software project via a boardgame and make it fun. Here are a few things that I have come up so far: human resources and tools / techniques are represented as cards. requirements are also represented as cards, which are dealt equally to each player, and the objective is to move all requirement cards through an "SDLC" board (one per player) that represent a series of squares grouped according to phases (design all the way to deployment) the passage of time is represented in a main square board like monopoly, and completing a trip around the board (passing "Go") allows the player to move each of the requirement cards a number of steps through the SDLC board depending on the capability of the resource cards (senior programmer allows one requirement to move two squares in the dev phase, junior programmer only one, etc.) players will start with play money representing the project budget, and at every pass at "Go" is payday. the player is out of the game if he runs out of funds. the main board also has "chance" / "risk" cards, which represent things that can mess up a project. damage is applied at the roll of a die, and chance modifiers depend on whether the user has "bought" tools / techniques. I haven't implemented this idea yet as I'm still looking at more play elements that can make the game more engaging, as well as soliciting for more ideas. I am planning to release this under Creative Commons license but haven't decided on the exact license yet. Any more game play suggestions are welcome. UPDATE: This was posted in BoardGameGeek and there's now an active discussion thread there. http://www.boardgamegeek.com/article/4436694

  Read the article

• python thread prob after build

  - by Apache

  hi expert, i'm having task to scan wifi at specific interval and send it to the server, i've it in python and its works fine when i run manually, then build it to package and when run there is no progress at all, i already ask this question before at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2735410/python-scritp-problem-once-build-and-package-it, then, i re-modify my code as below, then i found that thread is not functioning once i build, #!/usr/bin/env python import subprocess,threading,... configFile = open('/opt/Jemapoh_Wifi/config.txt', 'r') url = configFile.readline().strip() intervalTime = configFile.readline().strip() status = configFile.readline().strip() print "url "+url print "intervalTime "+intervalTime print "Status "+status.strip() def getMacAddress(): proc = subprocess.Popen('ifconfig -a wlan0 | grep HWaddr | sed \'/^.*HWaddr */!d; s///;q\'', shell=True, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, ) macAddress = proc.communicate()[0].strip() return macAddress def getTimestamp(): from time import strftime timeStamp = strftime("%Y-%m-%d %H:%M:%S") return timeStamp def scanWifi(): try: print "Scanning..." proc = subprocess.Popen('iwlist scan 2>/dev/null', shell=True, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, ) stdout_str = proc.communicate()[0] stdout_list=stdout_str.split('\n') essid=[] rssi=[] preQuality=[] for line in stdout_list: line=line.strip() match=re.search('ESSID:"(\S+)"',line) if match: essid.append(match.group(1)) match=re.search('Quality=(\S+)',line) if match: preQuality.append(match.group(1)) for qualityConversion in preQuality: qualityConversion = qualityConversion.split()[0].split('/') temp = str(int(round(float(qualityConversion[0]) / float(qualityConversion[1]) * 100))).rjust(2) rssi.append(temp) dataToPost = '{"userId":"' + getMacAddress() + '","timestamp":"' + getTimestamp() + '","wifi":[' for no in range(len(essid)): dataToPost += '{"ssid":"' + essid[no] + '","rssi":"' + rssi[no] + '"}' if no+1 == len(essid): pass else: dataToPost += ',' dataToPost += ']}' query_args = {"data":dataToPost} request = urllib2.Request(url) request.add_data(urllib.urlencode(query_args)) request.add_header('Content-Type', 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded') print "Waiting for server response..." print urllib2.urlopen(request).read() print "Data Sent @ " + getTimestamp() print "------------------------------------------------------" t = threading.Timer(int(intervalTime), scanWifi).start() except Exception, e: print e t = threading.Timer(int(intervalTime), scanWifi) t.start() once build, its not reaching the thread, do can anyone help, why the thread is not working after build thanks

  Read the article

• C# Byte[] to Url Friendly String

  - by LorenVS

  Hello, I'm working on a quick captcha generator for a simple site I'm putting together, and I'm hoping to pass an encrypted key in the url of the page. I could probably do this as a query string parameter easy enough, but I'm hoping not too (just because nothing else runs off the query string)... My encryption code produces a byte[], which is then transformed using Convert.ToBase64String(byte[]) into a string. This string, however, is still not quite url friendly, as it can contain things like '/' and '='. Does anyone know of a better function in the .NET framework to convert a byte array to a url friendly string? I know all about System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode() and its equivalents, however, they only work properly with query string parameters. If I url encode an '=' inside of the path, my web server brings back a 400 Bad Request error. Anyways, not a critical issue, but hoping someone can give me a nice solution **EDIT: Just to be absolutely sure exactly what I'm doing with the string, I figured I would supply a little more information. The byte[] that results from my encryption algorithm should be fed through some sort of algorithm to make it into a url friendly string. After this, it becomes the content of an XElement, which is then used as the source document for an XSLT transformation, and is used as a part of the href attribute for an anchor. I don't believe the xslt transformation is causing the issues, since what is coming through on the path appears to be an encoded query string parameter, but causes the HTTP 400 I've also tried HttpUtility.UrlPathEncode() on a base64 string, but that doesn't seem to do the trick either (I still end up with '/'s in my url)**

  Read the article

• AJAX vs ActiveX/Flash for browser-based game

  - by iconiK

  I have been following the usage of JavaScript for the past few years, and with the release of extremely fast scripting engines (V8, SquirrelFish Extrene, TraceMonkey, etc.) the possibilities of JavaScript have increased dramatically. However, the usage share of Internet Explorer coupled with it's total lack of support for recent standards makes me want to drop a bomb on Microsoft's HQ, as it creates a huge amount of problems for any website. The game will need to be pretty dynamic client-side, with animations and other eye-candy things, but not a full-blown game like those that run directly in the OS using DirectX or OpenGL. However, this might be a little stretch for JavaScript and will certainly feel extremely slow in Internet Explorer (given that the current IE engine can be hundreds of times slower than SFX; gotta see what IE9 will bring), would it be better to just do the whole thing in Flash? I know this means requiring the plug-in AND I have no experience whatsoever with Flash (other than browsing YouTube :P). It also means I can't just output directly from PHP, I would have to use XML or some other format to pass data to it (JSON is directly integrated in JS and PHP can deal with it easily). Another idea would be to provide an alternative interface just for IE, though I don't know how (ActiveX maybe? or with Flash, then why not just provide it to all browsers) or totally not supporting it and requiring the use of other browsers, although this is plain stupid from a business perspective. So here am I, wondering what approach to take and thus asking for your advice. How should I build the client-side? AJAX in all browsers, Flash in all browsers or a mix (AJAX for "modern" browsers and something else for the "grandpa": IE).

  Read the article

• Passing data structures to different threads

  - by Robb

  I have an application that will be spawning multiple threads. However, I feel there might be an issue with threads accessing data that they shouldn't be. I'm relatively new to threading so bare with me. Here is the structure of the threaded application (sorry for the crudeness): MainThread / \ / \ / \ Thread A Thread B / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ / \ Thread A_1 Thread A_2 Thread B_1 Thread B_2 Under each lettered thread (which could be many), there will only be two threads and they are fired of sequentially. The issue i'm having is I'm not entirely sure how to pass in a datastructure into these threads. So, the datastructure is created in MainThread, will be modified in the lettered thread (Thread A, etc) specific to that thread and then a member variable from that datastructure is sent to Letter_Numbered threads. Currently, the lettered thread class has a member variable and when the class is constructed, the datastructure from mainthread is passed in by reference, invoking the copy constructor so the lettered thread has it's own copy to play with. The lettered_numbered thread simply takes in a string variable from the data structure within the lettered thread. My question is, is this accceptable? Is there a much better way to ensure each lettered thread gets its own data structure to play with? Sorry for the somewhat poor explanation, please leave comments and i'll try to clarify.

  Read the article

• MSTest unit test passes by itself, fails when other tests are run

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I'm having trouble with some MSTest unit tests that pass when I run them individually but fail when I run the entire unit test class. The tests test some code that SLaks helped me with earlier, and he warned me what I was doing wasn't thread-safe. However, now my code is more complicated and I don't know how to go about making it thread-safe. Here's what I have: public static class DLLConfig { private static string _domain; public static string Domain { get { return _domain = AlwaysReadFromFile ? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG) : _domain ?? readCredentialFromFile(DOMAIN_TAG); } } } And my test is simple: string expected = "the value I know exists in the file"; string actual = DLLConfig.Domain; Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); When I run this test by itself, it passes. When I run it alongside all the other tests in the test class (which perform similar checks on different properties), actual is null and the test fails. I note this is not a problem with a property whose type is a custom Enum type; maybe I'm having this problem with the Domain property because it is a string? Or maybe it's a multi-threaded issue with how MSTest works?

  Read the article

• How to exit grid with ctrl-TAB when grid is on a tabpage (onkeydown works when grid not on tabpage)

  - by Charles Hankey

  winforms .net 3.5 Ultrawingrid 9.2 In my subclass of Ultrawingrid.Ultragrid : Protected Overrides Sub OnKeyDown(ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventArgs) If e.KeyCode = Windows.Forms.Keys.Tab andalso e.control = True then SetFocusToNextControl(True) End if Mybase.OnKeyDown(e) End Sub This works fine. But when the grid is dropped on a TabControl tabpage, the ctrl-tab looks very different to the sub above. e.keycode is seen as controlkey {17} I realize that by default cntrl-Tab moves between tabpages. I need to override this behavior. My thought is I probably need a subclass of the tabControl which will pass the keycombo through just as the form does but I confess to being clueless as to how to accomplish that. I tried to override the onkeydown of a tabcontrol subclass and just issuing a return and not and base call to onkeydown if the ctrl-tab combo was pressed but it seemed to see the e.keycode as controlkey as well. FWIW I tried a different combination like ctrl-E and got pretty much the same result with focus disappearing from the grid but not going anywhere I could detect. The sub still saw the e.control as controlkey. Oddly, ctrl-X, ctrl-A etc all work in the grid and a ctrl-Delete combo I put in the subclass for deleting a row works fine. Once again - grid directly on form and it all works. I'm definitely over my head on this one. Guidance much appreciated. vb or c# fine. TIA

  Read the article

• Error Converting PIL B&W images to Numpy Arrays

  - by Elliot

  I am getting weird errors when I try to convert a black and white PIL image to a numpy array. An example of the code I am working with is below. if image.mode != '1': image = image.convert('1') #convert to B&W data = np.array(image) #convert data to a numpy array n_lines = data.shape[0] #number of raster passes line_range = range(data.shape[1]) for l in range(n_lines): # process one horizontal line of the image line = data[l] for n in line_range: if line[n] == 1: write_line_to(xl, z+scale*n, speed) #conversion to other program code elif line[n] == 0: run_to(xl, z+scale*n) #conversion to other program code I have tried this using both array and asarray for the conversion, and gotten different errors. If I use array, then the data I get out is nothing like what I put in. It looks like several very shrunken partial images side by side, with the remainder of the image space filled in in black. If I use asarray, then the entirety of python crashes during the raster step (on a random line). If I work with a greyscale image ('L'), then neither of these errors occurs for either array or asarray. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong? Is there something odd about the way PIL encodes B&W images, or something special I need to pass numpy to make it convert properly?

  Read the article

• Filling SWT table object using a separated thread class ...

  - by erlord

  Hi all I've got a code snippet by the swt team that does exactly what I need. However, there is a part I want to separate into another class, in particular, the whole inline stuff. In response to my former question, it has been suggested that Callable should be used in order to implement threaded objects. It is suggested to make use of an implementation of runnable or better callable, since I do need some kind of return. However, I don't get it. My problems are: In the original code, within the inline implementation of the method run, some of the parents objects are called. How would I do this when the thread is separated? Pass the object via the C'tor's parameter? In the original code, another runnable object is nested within the runnable implementation. What is it good for? How to implement this when having separated the code? Furthermore, this nested runnable again calls objects created by the main method. Please, have mercy with me, but I am still quite a beginner and my brain is near collapsing :-( All I want is to separate all the threaded stuff into another class and make the program do just the same thing as it already does. Help please! Again thank you very much in advance for any useful suggestions, hints, examples etc... Regs Me

  Read the article

• Separating columnName and Value in C#

  - by KungfuPanda

  hi, I have a employee object as shown below class emp { public int EmpID { get; set; } public string EmpName { get; set; } public int deptID { get; set; } } I need to create a mapping either in this class or a different class to map the properties with column name of my SQL for eg. EmpdID="employeeID" EmpName="EmployeeName" deptID="DepartmentID" When from my asp.net page when I create the employee class and pass it to a function: for eg: emp e=new emp(); e.EmpID=1; e.EmpName="tommy"; e.deptID=10; When the emp object is populated and passed to the buildValues function it should return array of ComumnName(e.g.employeeID):Value(e.g.1),EmployeeName:tommy,DepartmentID:10) string[] values=buildValues(emp); public string[] buildValues(emp e) { string[] values=null; return values; } I have 2 questions: 1. Where do I specify the mappings 2. How do I use the mappings in my buildValues function shown above and build the values string array. I would really appreciate if you can help me with this

  Read the article

• [Cocoa] Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

  - by ndg

  I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but is extremely patch. On occasion, clicking to edit a row will cause its value to nullify. On other occasions, the value you enter on one row will populate other rows within the table. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• new Facebook Like button for Blogger

  - by David

  I want to add the new facebook like button to my blogger website. http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/plugins/like I have to pass the url to the blog posts in the iframe src tag. I can get the blogger posts url from <data:post.url/> but I can't put that in a src string because Bloggers template system is weird. I want to do this:<iframe allowTransparency='true' frameborder='0' scrolling='no' src='http://www.facebook.com/plugins/like.php?href=<data:post.url/>&amp;layout=standard&amp;show-faces=true&amp;width=450&amp;action=like&amp;colorscheme=light' style='border:none; overflow:hidden; width:450px; height:px'/>but blogger complains: "Your template could not be parsed as it is not well-formed. Please make sure all XML elements are closed properly. XML error message: The value of attribute "src" associated with an element type "null" must not contain the '<' character." Anybody have this working yet?

  Read the article

• OOP 101 - quick question.

  - by R Bennett

  I've used procedural for sometime now and trying to get a better understanding of OOP in Php. Starting at square 1 and I have a quick question ot get this to gel. Many of the basic examples show static values ( $bob-name = "Robert";) when assigning a value, but I want to pass values... say from a form ( $name = $_POST['name']; ) class Person { // define properties public $name; public $weight; public $age; public function title() { echo $this->name . " has submitted a request "; } } $bob = new Person; // want to plug the value in here $bob->name = $name; $bob->title(); I guess I'm getting a little hung up in some areas as far as accessing variables from within the class, encapsulation & "rules", etc., can $name = $_POST['name']; reside anywhere outside of the class or am I missing an important point? Thanks

  Read the article

• Rspec Selenium. Test to check certain Ajax functions passes when i expect it to fail.

  - by alokswain

  I am testing a Ajax action using Rspec and Selenium. My story is as follows: it "should create a new User with any input" do @browser.open "/people" @browser.wait_for_page_to_load "2000" @browser.type "user_name", "Alok Swain" @browser.click "user_submit" @browser.text?("Alok Swain").should be_true end The action i am testing is: def add_user @users = User.all User.create(params[:user]) render :update do |page| page.alert "Created User" page.replace_html "users", :partial => '/people/users_list', :locals => {:users => @users} end end The test fails and the error I get is: 'User should create a new User with any input' FAILED expected false to be true. This test should pass right ? I also kept an alert and tried @browser.is_alert_present.should be_true but i got the same error. I tried @browser.is_text_present("test") and this test succeeded. In the test database a record was created for Alok Swain but when I tried the above assertion it passed when i expected it to fail. Is there any thing else to be done here. What am I missing ?

  Read the article

• C# How to perform a live xslt transformation on an in memory object?

  - by JL

  I have a function that takes 2 parameters : 1 = XML file, 2 = XSLT file, then performs a transformation and returns the resulting HTML. Here is the function: /// <summary> /// Will apply an XSLT style to any XML file and return the rendered HTML. /// </summary> /// <param name="xmlFileName"> /// The file name of the XML document. /// </param> /// <param name="xslFileName"> /// The file name of the XSL document. /// </param> /// <returns> /// The rendered HTML. /// </returns> public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } I want to change the function not to accept a file for the XML, but instead just an object. The object is exactly compatible with the xslt, if it was serialized to file. But I don't want to have to serialize it to a file first. So to recap : keep the xslt coming from a file, but the xml input should an object I pass and would like to generate the xml from without any file system interaction.

  Read the article

• Insert MANY key value pairs fast into berkeley db with hash access

  - by Kungi

  Hi, i'm trying to build a hash with berkeley db, which shall contain many tuples (approx 18GB of key value pairs), but in all my tests the performance of the insert operations degrades drastically over time. I've written this script to test the performance: #include<iostream> #include<db_cxx.h> #include<ctime> #define MILLION 1000000 int main () { long long a = 0; long long b = 0; int passes = 0; int i = 0; u_int32_t flags = DB_CREATE; Db* dbp = new Db(NULL,0); dbp->set_cachesize( 0, 1024 * 1024 * 1024, 1 ); int ret = dbp->open( NULL, "test.db", NULL, DB_HASH, flags, 0); time_t time1 = time(NULL); while ( passes < 100 ) { while( i < MILLION ) { Dbt key( &a, sizeof(long long) ); Dbt data( &b, sizeof(long long) ); dbp->put( NULL, &key, &data, 0); a++; b++; i++; } DbEnv* dbep = dbp->get_env(); int tmp; dbep->memp_trickle( 50, &tmp ); i=0; passes++; std::cout << "Inserted one million --> pass: " << passes << " took: " << time(NULL) - time1 << "sec" << std::endl; time1 = time(NULL); } } Perhaps you can tell me why after some time the "put" operation takes increasingly longer and maybe how to fix this. Thanks for your help, Andreas

  Read the article

• Httaccess Rewriting URL issue: how to distinguish Listing and detail page

  - by Asad kamran

  I am developing an commerce site, Where users can post items in any categories( categories can be 2 to 4 levels) I want to generate URL for listing and details pages: Listing page will show list of items in inner category Detail Page will show all information for item in inner category (Inner category means Last Category in hierarchic i.e. in classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/ inner mean "lancer" Here are the Links i want to generate 1) www.example.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/ (for Listing) 2) www.example.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/2011/3/12/lanc er-2002-in-good-condition-14/ (for detail) I want to redirect to ads.php if just 4 categories exist in url and to detail.php if 6 items are passed(4 category name + 2 date and title) I write these rules: listing ads RewriteRule ^(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ ads.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4 [NC,L] Detail pages RewriteRule ^(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ detail.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4&dt=$5&at=$6 [NC,L] But all the sites page redirect to ads.php (Listing page) even home page. I changes the rules as follow: (Even though i donot want to Use Listing and Detail in start of url Why as i see on some site as i want:: dubai.dubizzle.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/2011/3/12/l ancer-2002-in-good-condition-14/) Listing pages RewriteRule ^Listing/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ ads.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4 [NC,L] Detail pages RewriteRule ^Detail/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/(.)/?$ detail.php?c1=$1&c2=$2&c3=$3&c4=$4&dt=$5&at=$6 [NC,L] Now all other pages are fine, but when i pass www.example.com/classified/autos4x4s/mitsubishi/lancer/2011/3/12/lanc er-2002-in-good-condition-14/ it always goes to Listing page (ads.php) not to detail page. Any help would be appreciated.

  Read the article

• jquery: set variable based on one class from an element that has more than one class

  - by John

  Hi I'm trying to make a table who's columns and rows highlight on hover (I realise there are jquery plugins out there that will do this, but I'm trying to learn, so thought I'd have a stab at doing it for myself.) Here's what I've got so far: $('th:not(.features), td:not(.features)').hover(highlight); function highlight(){ $('th.highlightCol, td.highlightCol').removeClass('highlightCol'); var col = $(this).attr('class'); $('.' + col).addClass('highlightCol'); }; $('tr').hover(highlightRowOn, highlightRowOff); function highlightRowOn(){ $(this).children('td:not(.highlightCol)').addClass('highlightRow'); }; function highlightRowOff(){ $(this).children('td:not(.highlightCol)').removeClass('highlightRow'); }; This works fine apart from one problem: Each 'td' has a class specific to it's column (package1, package2, package3, package4). It is this that gets passed to the variable (col) to add the class 'highlightCol' to a column when one of its 'td's are hovered on. However, If you move the cursor to a new column along a highlighted row, the 'td' you land on has two classes (highlightedRow and package* ). These both get passed to the variable and as a result the new column does not receive the correct class to highlight. Is there a way for me to target just the 'package* ' class and pass that to the variable while ignoring the 'highlightedRow' class? I hope that's not too jumbled for someone to make sense of and many thanks for any help offered.

  Read the article

• Use AJAX to reload captcha

  - by arik-so

  Hello! This question may have been asked already - but unfortunately, I could not find any satisfactory answers. I will just ask it for my concrete case and ask the admins not to delete the question for at least a few days so I can try it out... I have a page. It uses a captcha. Like so: <?php session_start(); // the captcha saves the md5 into the session ?> <img src="captcha.php" onclick="this.src = this.src" /> That was my first code. It did not work, because the browser condsidered it useless to reload an image if the source is the same. My current solution is to pass a get parameter: onclick="this.src = 'captcha.php?randomNumber='+ranNum" The JavaScript variable var ranNum is generated randomly every time the onclick event fires. It works fine, still, I don't like the possibility, if the - though improbable - case of two numbers being the same twice in a row. Although the random number varies between -50,000 and 50,000 - I still do not like it. And I don't think the method is right. I would like to know the 'righter' method, by means of AJAX. I know it's possible. I hope you know how it's possible ^^ In that case, please show me. Thanks in advance! By the way - if I spell cap(t)cha differently, never mind, the reference to the PHP file is right in my code: I use randomImage.php

  Read the article

• Zend Framework: Zend_DB Error

  - by Sergio E.

  I'm trying to learn ZF, but got strange error after 20 minutes :) Fatal error: Uncaught exception 'Zend_Db_Adapter_Exception' with message 'Configuration array must have a key for 'dbname' that names the database instance' What does this error mean? I got DB information in my config file: resources.db.adapter=pdo_mysql resources.db.host=localhost resources.db.username=name resources.db.password=pass resources.db.dbname=name Any suggestions? EDIT: This is my model file /app/models/DbTable/Bands.php: class Model_DbTable_Bands extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'zend_bands'; } Index controller action: public function indexAction() { $albums = new Model_DbTable_Bands(); $this->view->albums = $albums->fetchAll(); } EDIT All codes: bootstrap.php protected function _initAutoload() { $autoloader = new Zend_Application_Module_Autoloader(array( 'namespace' => '', 'basePath' => dirname(__FILE__), )); return $autoloader; } protected function _initDoctype() { $this->bootstrap('view'); $view = $this->getResource('view'); $view->doctype('XHTML1_STRICT'); } public static function setupDatabase() { $config = self::$registry->configuration; $db = Zend_Db::factory($config->db); $db->query("SET NAMES 'utf8'"); self::$registry->database = $db; Zend_Db_Table::setDefaultAdapter($db); Zend_Db_Table_Abstract::setDefaultAdapter($db); } IndexController.php class IndexController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function init() { /* Initialize action controller here */ } public function indexAction() { $albums = new Model_DbTable_Bands(); $this->view->albums = $albums->fetchAll(); } } configs/application.ini, changed database and provided password: [development : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 db.adapter = PDO_MYSQL db.params.host = localhost db.params.username = root db.params.password = pedro db.params.dbname = test models/DbTable/Bands.php class Model_DbTable_Bands extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'cakephp_bands'; public function getAlbum($id) { $id = (int)$id; $row = $this->fetchRow('id = ' . $id); if (!$row) { throw new Exception("Count not find row $id"); } return $row->toArray(); } }

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Loading a User Control in a Repeater

  - by user70192

  Hello, I have a Repeater control that loads instances of a custom control I have built. This repeater looks like this: <asp:Repeater ID="myRepeater" runat="server" OnLoad="myRepeater_Load"> <HeaderTemplate> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> </HeaderTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <tr><td><my:CustomControl ID="myControl" runat="server" OnLoad="myControl_Load" /> </td></tr> </ItemTemplate> <FooterTemplate> </table> </FooterTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I bind to the Repeater through the myRepeater_Load event handler. My custom control is used to render an item within the Repeater. Because of this, I am trying to set properties on the custom control during the myControl_Load event handler. However, I do not know how to access the current item during the myControl_Load event. Is there a way I can pass along the current item or access the current item during the myControl_Load event? If so, how? Thank you,

  Read the article

• Inner join and outer join options in Entity Framework 4.0

  - by bigb

  I am using EF 4.0 and I need to implement query with one inner join and with N outer joins I started to implement this using different approaches but get into trouble at some point. Here is two examples how I started of doing this using ObjectQuery<'T' and Linq to Entity 1)Using ObjectQuery<'T' I implement flexible outer join but I don't know how to perform inner join with entity Rules in that case (by default Include("Rules") doing outer join, but i need to inner join by Id). public static IEnumerable<Race> GetRace(List<string> includes, DateTime date) { IRepository repository = new Repository(new BEntities()); ObjectQuery<Race> result = (ObjectQuery<Race>)repository.AsQueryable<Race>(); //perform outer joins with related entities if (includes != null) foreach (string include in includes) result = result.Include(include); //here i need inner join insteard of default outer join result = result.Include("Rules"); return result.ToList(); } 2)Using Linq To Entity I need to have kind of outer join(somethin like in GetRace()) where i may pass a List with entities to include) and also i need to perform correct inner join with entity Rules public static IEnumerable<Race> GetRace2(List<string> includes, DateTime date) { IRepository repository = new Repository(new BEntities()); IEnumerable<Race> result = from o in repository.AsQueryable<Race>() from b in o.RaceBetRules select new { o }); //I need here: // 1. to perform the same way inner joins with related entities like with ObjectQuery above //here i getting List<AnonymousType> which i cant cast to //IEnumerable<Race> when i did try to cast like //(IEnumerable<Race>)result.ToList(); i did get error: //Unable to cast object of type //'System.Collections.Generic.List`1[<>f__AnonymousType0`1[BetsTipster.Entity.Tip.Types.Race]]' //to type //'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[BetsTipster.Entity.Tip.Types.Race]'. return result.ToList(); } May be someone have some ideas about that.

  Read the article

• How to get XML element/attribute name in SQL Server 2005

  - by OG Dude

  Hi, I have a simple procedure in SQL Server 2005 which takes some XML as input. The element attributes correspond to field names in tables. I'd like to be able to determine <elementName>, <attribNameX> dynamically as to avoid having to hardcode them into the procedure. How can I do this? The XML looks like this: <ROOT> <elementName attribName1 = "xxx" attribName2 = "yyy"/> <elementName attribName1 = "aaa" attribName2 = "bbb"/> ... </ROOT> The stored procedure like this: CREATE PROC dbo.myProc ( @XMLInput varchar(1000) ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @XMLDocHandle int EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @XMLDocHandle OUTPUT, @XMLInput SELECT someTable.someCol FROM dbo.someTable JOIN OPENXML (@XMLDocHandle, '/ROOT/elementName',1) WITH (attrib1Name int, attrib2Name int) AS XMLData ON someTable.attribName1 = XMLData.attribName1 AND someTable.attribName2 = XMLData.attribName2 EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @XMLDocHandle END GO The question has been asked here before but maybe there is a cleaner solution. Additionally, I'd like to pass the tablename as a parameter as well - I read some stuff arguing that this is bad style - so what would be a good solution for having a dynamic tablename? Thanks a lot in advance, /David

  Read the article

• Improving field get and set performance with ASM or Javassist

  - by ng

  I would like to avoid reflection in an open source project I am developing. Here I have classes like the following. public class PurchaseOrder { @Property private Customer customer; @Property private String name; } I scan for the @Property annotation to determine what I can set and get from the PurchaseOrder reflectively. There are many such classes all using java.lang.reflect.Field.get() and java.lang.reflect.Field.set(). Ideally I would like to generate for each property an invoker like the following. public interface PropertyAccessor<S, V> { public void set(S source, V value); public V get(S source); } Now when I scan the class I can create a static inner class of PurchaseOrder like so. static class customer_Field implements PropertyAccessor<PurchaseOrder, Customer> { public void set(PurchaseOrder order, Customer customer) { order.customer = customer; } public Customer get(PurchaseOrder order) { return order.customer; } } With these I totally avoid the cost of reflection. I can now set and get from my instances with native performance. Can anyone tell me how I would do this. A code example would be great. I have searched the net for a good example but can find nothing like this. The ASM and Javasist examples are pretty poor also. The key here is that I have an interface that I can pass around. So I can have various implementations, perhaps one with Java Reflection as a default, one with ASM, and one with Javassist? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

  - by davy

  I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 483 484 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494  | Next Page >