Search Results

Search found 35561 results on 1423 pages for 'value'.

Page 489/1423 | < Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >

  • Web application date time localization best practice at 201x

    - by Hieu Lam
    Hi all, I have worked for various web projects but correct date time localization have not been done and considered throroughly so I want to ask this very typical problem here and I want to hear comments from expert in this problem What is the correct strategy for storing a date/time value from client from server As I understand, because of locale and timezone so we have to do the conversion, I have heard about GMT or UTC time and after do some search it seems that UTC is more accurate ? so we will convert from client time - UTC+0 when saving and when we read the value from server to client, we convert from server time back to client time again ? However, I see in some website, at the bottom have the sentence "All times are in UTC", "All times are in GMT" and also "All times are in your local time". So maybe not all the sites do the convertion back and forth ? And in that case the user has to manually do the date/time conversion ? How to display the date/time convenient to user based on his locale and region How to provide personalization on date/time value ? I had one time depends on vbscript to do the display and the format is read from windows regional and format settings automatically. But without vbscript how can we determine a date/time pattern for a user of a specific locale. Do we have to store a mapping between a locale and pattern somewhere and do the conversion at the server side ? Although date/time conversion is needed in most case, there's situation where only date matter for example if my birthday is 2 Feb 1980, it should be the same for all locale and no conversion should be done. How can we address this issue.

    Read the article

  • How do I Data-Bind dual DateTimePicker to a single DateTime object

    - by S.C. Madsen
    Hi, I have a simple form, with two DateTimePicker-controls: One for date, and one for time. The thing is these two controls are supposed to represent a single point in time. Hence I would like to "Bind" them to a single DateTime property on my form (for simplicity). I did the following: // Start is a DateTime property on the form _StartDate.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); _StartTime.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); But hooking into "ValueChanged" event, yields mixed results... Sometimes I get exactly what I want, sometimes the updates of the property are "sluggish". I figured this way of splitting into two DateTimePicker's was fairly common. So how to do it? Update: There is possibly multiple questions in there: How do I bind a DateTimePicker (Format: Date) to a DateTime Property on a form? Then, how do I bind yet another DateTimePicker (Format: Time) to the same property? I'm using Visual Studio Express 2008 (.NET 3.5), and I seemingly get ValueChanged events from the DateTimePickers before the value is changed?

    Read the article

  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

    Read the article

  • How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

    - by anonim.developer
    Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

    Read the article

  • Filling an Area in visual studio C#

    - by lajoo
    I'm drawing a circle in C# and i have divided it into some parts,i want to fill different parts with different colors,is there anyway to do this? and how?i tried using fillpie() but i couldn't get the arguments to work. here is the code: int r = 150; g.DrawEllipse(Pens.Black, 300 - r, 250 - r, 2 * r, 2 * r); if (p != 0) g.DrawLine(Pens.Black, 300, 250, 300 + r, 250); double sum; sum = 0.0; for (int j = 0; j < p; j++) sum += data[j].value; double angle; angle = 0.0; for (int i = 0; i < p; i++) { angle += (double)(data[i].value / sum) * 2.0 * Math.PI; textBox1.Text += sum.ToString() + " : " + angle.ToString() + ":" + Math.Cos(angle).ToString() + "\r\n"; g.DrawLine(Pens.Black, 300, 250, 300 + (int)(Math.Cos(angle) * r), 250 - (int)(Math.Sin(angle) * r)); //g.FillPie(Brushes.Black, 300-r , 250 - r, r, r ,(float)(angle),(float)(angle+ (data[i].value / sum) * 2.0 * Math.PI)); } this actually divides the circle into different parts,i don't know how to fill them the commented line is where i

    Read the article

  • spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

    - by mdma
    I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

    Read the article

  • Modify post data with a custom MVC extension?

    - by Jaxidian
    So I'm looking into writing some custom MVC extensions and the first one I'm attempting to tackle is a FormattedTextBox to handle things such as currency, dates, and times. I have the rendering of it working perfectly, formatting it, working with strong types and everything all golden. However, the problem I'm now running into is cleaning up the formatted stuff when the page posts the data back. Take for example, a currency format. Let's use USD for these examples. When an object has a property as a decimal, the value would be 79.95. Your edit view would be something like: <%= Html.FormattedTextBox(model => Model.Person.HourlyWage, "{0:C}") %> This is all well and good for the GET request, but upon POST, the value is going to be $79.95, which when you assign to that decimal, gets unhappy very quickly and ends up shoving a 0 in there. So my question is, how do I get code working somewhere to work with that value before the MVC Framework goes and starts shoving it back into my ViewModel? I'd much rather this be done server-side than client-side. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET DropDownList posting ""

    - by Daniel
    I am using ASP.NET forms version 3.5 in VB I have a dropdownlist that is filled with data from a DB with a list of countries The code for the dropdown list is <label class="ob_label"> <asp:DropDownList ID="lstCountry" runat="server" CssClass="ob_forminput"> </asp:DropDownList> Country*</label> And the code that the list is Dim selectSQL As String = "exec dbo.*******************" ' Define the ADO.NET objects. Dim con As New SqlConnection(connectionString) Dim cmd As New SqlCommand(selectSQL, con) Dim reader As SqlDataReader ' Try to open database and read information. Try con.Open() reader = cmd.ExecuteReader() ' For each item, add the author name to the displayed ' list box text, and store the unique ID in the Value property. Do While reader.Read() Dim newItem As New ListItem() newItem.Text = reader("AllSites_Countries_Name") newItem.Value = reader("AllSites_Countries_Id") CType(LoginViewCart.FindControl("lstCountry"), DropDownList).Items.Add(newItem) Loop reader.Close() CType(LoginViewCart.FindControl("lstCountry"), DropDownList).SelectedValue = 182 Catch Err As Exception Response.Redirect("~/error-on-page/") MailSender.SendMailMessage("*********************", "", "", OrangeBoxSiteId.SiteName & " Error Catcher", "<p>Error in sub FillCountry</p><p>Error on page:" & HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.AbsoluteUri & "</p><p>Error details: " & Err.Message & "</p>") Response.Redirect("~/error-on-page/") Finally con.Close() End Try When the form is submitted an error occurs which says that the string "" cannot be converted to the datatype integer. For some reason the dropdownlist is posting "" rather than the value for the selected country.

    Read the article

  • Cross browser's probelm to highlight option item as bold in form element "select".

    - by Vivek
    Hello All , I am facing one weird cross browsers problem i.e. I want to highlight some of the option items as bold by using CSS class in my form element "select". This all is working fine in firefox only but not in other browsers like safari , chrome and IE .Given below is the code. <html> <head> <title>MAke Heading Bold</title> <style type="text/css"> .mycss {font-weight:bold;} </style> </head> <body> <form name="myform"> <select name="myselect"> <option value="one">one</option> <option value="two" class="mycss">two</option> <option value="three" >Three </option> </select> </form> </body> </html> Please suggest me best possible solution for this . Thanks Vivek

    Read the article

  • Update a tableView with a plist took from another table

    - by Pheel
    Background: I have a tab bar application, which has a tableView as the "heart" of the app. It loads data from a plist and, through a button that checks if there are any updates on the remote plist file, updates the local plist with the remote contents. Then, i have another tableView, that should display only those plist items that have a bool value set to YES. Now i want to add a button to the second table that reloads the plist took from the first table. Expected: When i update the local plist from the first table and when i press the button on the second table, the 2nd table is supposed to update and show the cells with that bool value set to YES. (Note: I set YES as default to some items on plist). What happens: The first table updates its content from remote. The second table shows the old items with the value set to YES. When i press the button to refresh data, it reads the plist fine (by logging it, it has the same contents of the first table -only those set to YES-),but it doesn't update data even if i have [self.tableView reloadData];. When i close the app and open it again, the second table is filled with the right items. :\ Code i'm using: //Reading Plist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *plistPath = [[documentPaths lastObject] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPlist.plist"]; NSFileManager *fMgr = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; if (![fMgr fileExistsAtPath:plistPath]) { plistPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myPlist" ofType:@"plist"]; } NSMutableArray *returnArr = [NSMutableArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:plistPath]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"isFav == YES"]; for (NSDictionary *sect in returnArr) { NSArray *arr = [sect objectForKey:@"Rows"]; [sect setValue:[arr filteredArrayUsingPredicate:predicate] forKey:@"Rows"]; } [self.tableView reloadData]; } //Refresh data button - (void) refreshTable:(id)sender { NSLog(@"plist read"); [self readPlist]; NSLog(@"refreshed plist:%@",[self readPlist]); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Does anyone know why the table is not updating?

    Read the article

  • php mysql parallel array checkboxes

    - by gramware
    I have an array of checkboxes that I edit at once to set up a 'tinyint' field. the problem comes in when i uncheck the checkbox and post the vales to mysql. since it posts an array of checkboxes and another parallel array of values to edit, unchecking a checkbox results in the 0 value been ignored by PHP_POST and hence the checkbox array will be less by the number of unchecked values in the form while the array to be edited will have all the records in the form. here is the submit code while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $checked = ($row[active]==1) ? 'checked="checked"' : ''; ... echo "<input type='hidden' name='TrID[]' value='$TrID'>"; echo "<input type='checkbox' name='active1[]' value='$row[active]''$checked' >"; ... and the processing php script $userid = ($_POST['TrID']); $checked= ($_POST['active']); $i=0; foreach ($userid as $usid) { if ($checked[$i]==1){ $check = 1; } else{ $check = 0; } $qry1 ="UPDATE `epapers`.`clientelle` SET `active` = '$check' WHERE `clientelle`.`user_id` = '$usid' "; $result = mysql_query($qry1); $i++; }

    Read the article

  • problem on running script on different operating system

    - by Praveen kalal
    i run use a javascript code for getting browser information it run fine on microsoft windows xp but it not working on microsoft windows server 2003. my code is folowing. plz help. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function F() { var today = new Date(); var the_date = new Date("December 31, 2012"); var the_cookie_date = the_date.toGMTString(); var the_cookie = screen.width +"x"+ screen.height; var the_cookie = "Screen Resolution:"+the_cookie + ";\nExpires:" + the_cookie_date+";\n Browser CodeName:"+navigator.appCodeName+";\n Browser Name: " + navigator.appName+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+"; \n Cookies Enabled: " + navigator.cookieEnabled +";\n Platform: " + navigator.platform+";\n User-agent header: " + navigator.userAgent; / document.getElementById('box-content').value=the_cookie; } </script> </head> <body> <textarea name="box-content" id="box-content" rows="10" cols="70"> </textarea> <br /><br /> <p><input type="button" id="copy" name="copy" value="Copy to Clipboard" /></p> </body> </html> <script type="text/javascript"> //set path ZeroClipboard.setMoviePath('http://192.168.101.135:471/browserinfo/zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.swf'); //create client var clip = new ZeroClipboard.Client(); //event clip.addEventListener('mousedown',function() { clip.setText(document.getElementById('box-content').value); }); clip.addEventListener('complete',function(client,text) { alert('text is copied'); }); //glue it to the button clip.glue('copy'); </script>

    Read the article

  • Adding a Taxonomy Filter to a Custom Post Type

    - by ken
    There is an amazing conversation from about two years ago on the Wordpress Answer site where a number of people came up with good solutions for adding a taxonomy filter to the admin screen for your custom post types (see URL for screen I'm referring to): http://[yoursite.com]/wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=[post-type] Anyway, I loved Michael's awesome contribution but in the end used Somatic's implementation with the hierarchy option from Manny. I wrapped it in a class - cuz that's how I like to do things -- and it ALMOST works. The dropdown appears but the values in the dropdown are all looking in the $_GET property for the taxonomies slug-name that you are filtering by. For some reason I don't get anything. I looked at the HTML of the dropdown and it appears ok to me. Here's a quick screen shot for some context: You can tell from this that my post-type is called "exercise" and that the Taxonomy I'm trying to use as a filter is "actions". Here then is the HTML surrounding the dropdown list: <select name="actions" id="actions" class="postform"> <option value="">Show all Actions</option> <option value="ate-dinner">Ate dinner(1)</option> <option value="went-running">Went running(1)</option> </select> I have also confirmed that all of the form elements are within the part of the DOM. And yet if I choose "Went running" and click on the filter button the URL query string comes back without ANY reference to what i've picked. More explicitly, the page first loads with the following URL: /wp-admin/edit.php?post_type=exercise and after pressing the filter button while having picked "Went Running" as an option from the actions filter: /wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=exercise&action=-1&m=0&actions&paged=1&mode=list&action2=-1 actually you can see a reference to an "actions" variable but it's set to nothing and as I now look in detail it appears that the moment I hit "filter" on the page it resets the filter dropdown to the default "Show All Actions". Can anyone help me with this?

    Read the article

  • property names are different from original Object in the silverlight

    - by kwon
    Following is part of service layer which is provided by WCF service : [Serializable] public class WaitInfo { private string roomName; private string pName; private string tagNo; public string RoomName { get { return roomName; } set { this.roomName = value; } } public string PName { get { return pName; } set { this.pName = value; } } public string TagNo { get { return tagNo; } set { this.tagNo = value; } } } public class Service1 : IService1 { public List<WaitInfo> GetWaitingList() { MyDBDataContext db = new MyDBDataContext(); var query = from w in db.WAIT_INFOs select new WaitInfo { TagNo = w.PATIENT_INFO.TAG_NO, RoomName= w.ROOM_INFO.ROOM_NAME, PName= w.PATIENT_INFO.P_NAME }; List<WaitInfo> result = query.ToList(); return result; } And following is codebehind part of UI layer which is provided by Silverlight public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Service1Client s = new Service1Client(); s.GetWaitingListCompleted += new EventHandler<GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs>( s_GetWaitingListCompleted); s.GetWaitingListAsync(); } void s_GetWaitingListCompleted(object sender, RadControlsSilverlightApplication1.ServiceReference2.GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs e) { GridDataGrid.ItemsSource = e.Result; } And following is xaml code in Silverlight page <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <data:DataGrid x:Name="GridDataGrid"></data:DataGrid> </Grid> Is is very simple code, however what I am thinking weird is property name of object at "e.Result" in the code behind page. In the service layer, although properties' names are surely "RoomName, PName, TagNo", in the silverlight properties' names are "roomName, pName, tagNo" which are private variable name of the WaitingList Object. Did I something wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Delete throws "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade"

    - by Greg
    I have following model: <class name="Person" table="Person" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="Event" table="Event" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="PersonEventRegistration" table="PersonEventRegistration" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="IsComplete" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> <property name="RegistrationDate" type="DateTime" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person" column="PersonId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_PersonId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> <many-to-one name="Event" class="Event" column="EventId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_EventId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> </class> There are no properties pointing to PersonEventRegistration either in Person nor in Event. When I try to delete an entry from PersonEventRegistration, I get the following error: "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade" The problem is, I don't store this object in any other collection - the delete code looks like this: public bool UnregisterFromEvent(Person person, Event entry) { var registrationEntry = this.session .CreateCriteria<PersonEventRegistration>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Person", person)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Event", entry)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("IsComplete", false)) .UniqueResult<PersonEventRegistration>(); bool result = false; if (null != registrationEntry) { using (ITransaction tx = this.session.BeginTransaction()) { this.session.Delete(registrationEntry); tx.Commit(); result = true; } } return result; } What am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

    Read the article

  • How to get the actual address of a pointer in C?

    - by Airjoe
    BACKGROUND: I'm writing a single level cache simulator in C for a homework assignment, and I've been given code that I must work from. In our discussions of the cache, we were told that the way a small cache can hold large addresses is by splitting the large address into the position in the cache and an identifying tag. That is, if you had an 8 slot cache but wanted to store something with address larger than 8, you take the 3 (because 2^3=8) rightmost bits and put the data in that position; so if you had address 22 for example, binary 10110, you would take those 3 rightmost bits 110, which is decimal 5, and put it in slot 5 of the cache. You would also store in this position the tag, which is the remaining bits 10. One function, cache_load, takes a single argument, and integer pointer. So effectively, I'm being given this int* addr which is an actual address and points to some value. In order to store this value in the cache, I need to split the addr. However, the compiler doesn't like when I try to work with the pointer directly. So, for example, I try to get the position by doing: npos=addr%num_slots The compiler gets angry and gives me errors. I tried casting to an int, but this actually got me the value that the pointer was pointing to, not the numerical address itself. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

    Read the article

  • Why is this CHOICE element not getting assigned in my SharePoint Field definition schema?

    - by ccornet
    I defined a new field of the type "Choice" for my web application. It will serve basically as a pseudo-lookup as its contents are defined by the value of a Text field in a list. It is initialized with a dummy choice to begin with (I'm under the impression a choice field needs at least one choice when defined), which is replaced with a real choice later on. But for some reason, this dummy choice is never actually added to the choices! Below is the XML Schema for the field in question. <Field ID="{ALICEH-ASFA-KEGU-IDLISTED}" Name="ddlSystems" Group="Lookup Columns" DisplayName="ddlSystems" Type="Choice" Sealed="FALSE" ReadOnly="FALSE" Hidden="FALSE" FillInChoice="TRUE" DisplaceOnUpgrade="TRUE"> <CHOICES> <CHOICE>BLANULL</CHOICE> </CHOICES> <Default>BLANULL</Default> </Field> Initially, I used a default choice of (a single space), but I changed it to BLANULL so that I can parse an actual word instead of a veritably empty string. Now, even after having uninstalled and reinstalled the feature with this field, I have a choice field that has (still a single space) as the only choice. Even more perplexing, BLANULL is actually listed for the default value in both the UI and the object model! What is causing this problem, and how can I circumvent it so that I don't have to manually set this dummy value each time?

    Read the article

  • How can I SETF an element in a tree by an accessor?

    - by Willi Ballenthin
    We've been using Lisp in my AI course. The assignments I've received have involved searching and generating tree-like structures. For each assignment, I've ended up writing something like: (defun initial-state () (list 0 ; score nil ; children 0 ; value 0)) ; something else and building my functions around these "states", which are really just nested lists with some loosely defined structure. To make the structure more rigid, I've tried to write accessors, such as: (defun state-score ( state ) (nth 2 state)) This works for reading the value (which should be all I need to do in a nicely functional world. However, as time crunches, and I start to madly hack, sometimes I want a mutable structure). I don't seem to be able to SETF the returned ...thing (place? value? pointer?). I get an error with something like: (setf (state-score *state*) 10) Sometimes I seem to have a little more luck writing the accessor/mutator as a macro: (defmacro state-score ( state ) `(nth 2 ,state)) However I don't know why this should be a macro, so I certainly shouldn't write it as a macro (except that sometimes it works. Programming by coincidence is bad). What is an appropriate strategy to build up such structures? More importantly, where can I learn about whats going on here (what operations affect the memory in what way)?

    Read the article

  • What is the return type for a anonymous linq query select? What is the best way to send this data ba

    - by punkouter
    This is a basic question. I have the basic SL4/RIA project set up and I want to create a new method in the domain service and return some data from it. I am unsure the proper easiest way to do this.. Should I wrap it up in a ToList()? I am unclear how to handle this anonymous type that was create.. what is the easiest way to return this data? public IQueryable<ApplicationLog> GetApplicationLogsGrouped() { var x = from c in ObjectContext.ApplicationLogs let dt = c.LogDate group c by new { y = dt.Value.Year, m = dt.Value.Month, d = dt.Value.Day } into mygroup select new { aaa = mygroup.Key, ProductCount = mygroup.Count() }; return x; // return this.ObjectContext.ApplicationLogs.Where(r => r.ApplicationID < 50); } Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Linq.IQueryable<AnonymousType#1>' to 'System.Linq.IQueryable<CapRep4.Web.ApplicationLog>'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) 58 20 CapRep4.Web

    Read the article

  • C# parameters by reference and .net garbage collection

    - by Yarko
    I have been trying to figure out the intricacies of the .NET garbage collection system and I have a question related to C# reference parameters. If I understand correctly, variables defined in a method are stored on the stack and are not affected by garbage collection. So, in this example: public class Test { public Test() { } public int DoIt() { int t = 7; Increment(ref t); return t; } private int Increment(ref int p) { p++; } } the return value of DoIt() will be 8. Since the location of t is on the stack, then that memory cannot be garbage collected or compacted and the reference variable in Increment() will always point to the proper contents of t. However, suppose we have: public class Test { private int t = 7; public Test() { } public int DoIt() { Increment(ref t); return t; } private int Increment(ref int p) { p++; } } Now, t is stored on the heap as it is a value of a specific instance of my class. Isn't this possibly a problem if I pass this value as a reference parameter? If I pass t as a reference parameter, p will point to the current location of t. However, if the garbage collector moves this object during a compact, won't that mess up the reference to t in Increment()? Or does the garbage collector update even references created by passing reference parameters? Do I have to worry about this at all? The only mention of worrying about memory being compacted on MSDN (that I can find) is in relation to passing managed references to unmanaged code. Hopefully that's because I don't have to worry about any managed references in managed code. :)

    Read the article

  • Hiding Opetions of a Selection with JQuery

    - by Syed Abdul Rahman
    Okay, let's start with an example. <select id = "selection1">     <option value = "1" id = "1">Number 1</option>     <option value = "2" id = "2">Number 2</option>     <option value = "3" id = "3">Number 3</option> </select> Now from here, we have a dropdown with 3 options. What I want to do now is to hide an option. Adding style = "display:none" will not help. The option would not appear in the dropdownlist, but using the arrow keys, you can still select it. Essentially, it does exactly what the code says. It isn't displayed, and it stops there. A JQuery function of $("1").hide() will not work. Plus, I don't only want to hide the option, I want to completely remove it. Any possibility on doing so? Do I have to use parent/sibling/child elements? If so, I'm still not sure how. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • $.ajax not loading data data everytime from server

    - by Ted
    I have written a simple jQuery.ajax function which loads a user control from the server on click of a button. The first time I click the button, it goes to the server and gets me the user control. But each subsequent click of the same button does not goes to the server to fetch me the user control. Since my user control fetches data from db, I need to reload the user control everytime i hit the button. But if anyhow I get my user control to unload from the page, and re-click the button, it goes to the server and fetches me the user control. Here's the code: $("#btnLoad").click(function() { if ($(this).attr("value") == "Load Control") { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "loadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Unload Control"); } else { $.ajax({ url: "AJAXHandler.ashx", data: { "lt": "unloadcontrol" }, dataType: "html", success: function(data) { content.html(data); } }); $(this).attr("value", "Load Control"); } }); Please let me know if there is any other way I can get my user control loaded from server everytime I click the button.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >