Search Results

Search found 35561 results on 1423 pages for 'value'.

Page 489/1423 | < Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >

  • Adding a Taxonomy Filter to a Custom Post Type

    - by ken
    There is an amazing conversation from about two years ago on the Wordpress Answer site where a number of people came up with good solutions for adding a taxonomy filter to the admin screen for your custom post types (see URL for screen I'm referring to): http://[yoursite.com]/wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=[post-type] Anyway, I loved Michael's awesome contribution but in the end used Somatic's implementation with the hierarchy option from Manny. I wrapped it in a class - cuz that's how I like to do things -- and it ALMOST works. The dropdown appears but the values in the dropdown are all looking in the $_GET property for the taxonomies slug-name that you are filtering by. For some reason I don't get anything. I looked at the HTML of the dropdown and it appears ok to me. Here's a quick screen shot for some context: You can tell from this that my post-type is called "exercise" and that the Taxonomy I'm trying to use as a filter is "actions". Here then is the HTML surrounding the dropdown list: <select name="actions" id="actions" class="postform"> <option value="">Show all Actions</option> <option value="ate-dinner">Ate dinner(1)</option> <option value="went-running">Went running(1)</option> </select> I have also confirmed that all of the form elements are within the part of the DOM. And yet if I choose "Went running" and click on the filter button the URL query string comes back without ANY reference to what i've picked. More explicitly, the page first loads with the following URL: /wp-admin/edit.php?post_type=exercise and after pressing the filter button while having picked "Went Running" as an option from the actions filter: /wp-admin/edit.php?s&post_status=all&post_type=exercise&action=-1&m=0&actions&paged=1&mode=list&action2=-1 actually you can see a reference to an "actions" variable but it's set to nothing and as I now look in detail it appears that the moment I hit "filter" on the page it resets the filter dropdown to the default "Show All Actions". Can anyone help me with this?

    Read the article

  • Cross browser's probelm to highlight option item as bold in form element "select".

    - by Vivek
    Hello All , I am facing one weird cross browsers problem i.e. I want to highlight some of the option items as bold by using CSS class in my form element "select". This all is working fine in firefox only but not in other browsers like safari , chrome and IE .Given below is the code. <html> <head> <title>MAke Heading Bold</title> <style type="text/css"> .mycss {font-weight:bold;} </style> </head> <body> <form name="myform"> <select name="myselect"> <option value="one">one</option> <option value="two" class="mycss">two</option> <option value="three" >Three </option> </select> </form> </body> </html> Please suggest me best possible solution for this . Thanks Vivek

    Read the article

  • Modify post data with a custom MVC extension?

    - by Jaxidian
    So I'm looking into writing some custom MVC extensions and the first one I'm attempting to tackle is a FormattedTextBox to handle things such as currency, dates, and times. I have the rendering of it working perfectly, formatting it, working with strong types and everything all golden. However, the problem I'm now running into is cleaning up the formatted stuff when the page posts the data back. Take for example, a currency format. Let's use USD for these examples. When an object has a property as a decimal, the value would be 79.95. Your edit view would be something like: <%= Html.FormattedTextBox(model => Model.Person.HourlyWage, "{0:C}") %> This is all well and good for the GET request, but upon POST, the value is going to be $79.95, which when you assign to that decimal, gets unhappy very quickly and ends up shoving a 0 in there. So my question is, how do I get code working somewhere to work with that value before the MVC Framework goes and starts shoving it back into my ViewModel? I'd much rather this be done server-side than client-side. Thanks!!

    Read the article

  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Delete throws "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade"

    - by Greg
    I have following model: <class name="Person" table="Person" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="Event" table="Event" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="PersonEventRegistration" table="PersonEventRegistration" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="IsComplete" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> <property name="RegistrationDate" type="DateTime" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person" column="PersonId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_PersonId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> <many-to-one name="Event" class="Event" column="EventId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_EventId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> </class> There are no properties pointing to PersonEventRegistration either in Person nor in Event. When I try to delete an entry from PersonEventRegistration, I get the following error: "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade" The problem is, I don't store this object in any other collection - the delete code looks like this: public bool UnregisterFromEvent(Person person, Event entry) { var registrationEntry = this.session .CreateCriteria<PersonEventRegistration>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Person", person)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Event", entry)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("IsComplete", false)) .UniqueResult<PersonEventRegistration>(); bool result = false; if (null != registrationEntry) { using (ITransaction tx = this.session.BeginTransaction()) { this.session.Delete(registrationEntry); tx.Commit(); result = true; } } return result; } What am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • How do I Data-Bind dual DateTimePicker to a single DateTime object

    - by S.C. Madsen
    Hi, I have a simple form, with two DateTimePicker-controls: One for date, and one for time. The thing is these two controls are supposed to represent a single point in time. Hence I would like to "Bind" them to a single DateTime property on my form (for simplicity). I did the following: // Start is a DateTime property on the form _StartDate.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); _StartTime.DataBindings.Add("Value", this, "Start"); But hooking into "ValueChanged" event, yields mixed results... Sometimes I get exactly what I want, sometimes the updates of the property are "sluggish". I figured this way of splitting into two DateTimePicker's was fairly common. So how to do it? Update: There is possibly multiple questions in there: How do I bind a DateTimePicker (Format: Date) to a DateTime Property on a form? Then, how do I bind yet another DateTimePicker (Format: Time) to the same property? I'm using Visual Studio Express 2008 (.NET 3.5), and I seemingly get ValueChanged events from the DateTimePickers before the value is changed?

    Read the article

  • In JSF - What is the correct way to do this? Two dropdown lists with dependency.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm making two dropdown lists in JSF which are dependent. Specifically, one list has all the languages and the second list contains values that are displayed in the currently selected language. I've implemented this by having the second list use information from a Hash and rebuilding that Hash in the setter of the currently selected language. JSF Code Bit: <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedLanguage}" id="languageSelector"> ... (binding to languages hash) ... <rich:dropDownMenu value="#{bean.currentlySelectedScript}" id="ScriptPullDown"> ... (binding to scripts hash) ... Backing Bean Code Bit: setCurrentlySelectedLanguage(String lang){ this.currentlySelectedLanguage = lang; rebuildScriptNames(lang); } I'm wondering if that's a good way of doing this or if theres a better method that I am not aware of. Thank you! EDIT - Adding info.. I used a a4j:support that with event="onchange" and ReRender="ScriptPullDown" to rerender the script pull down. I could probably add an action expression to run a method when the value changes. But is there a benefit to doing this over using code in the setter function?

    Read the article

  • What is the return type for a anonymous linq query select? What is the best way to send this data ba

    - by punkouter
    This is a basic question. I have the basic SL4/RIA project set up and I want to create a new method in the domain service and return some data from it. I am unsure the proper easiest way to do this.. Should I wrap it up in a ToList()? I am unclear how to handle this anonymous type that was create.. what is the easiest way to return this data? public IQueryable<ApplicationLog> GetApplicationLogsGrouped() { var x = from c in ObjectContext.ApplicationLogs let dt = c.LogDate group c by new { y = dt.Value.Year, m = dt.Value.Month, d = dt.Value.Day } into mygroup select new { aaa = mygroup.Key, ProductCount = mygroup.Count() }; return x; // return this.ObjectContext.ApplicationLogs.Where(r => r.ApplicationID < 50); } Cannot implicitly convert type 'System.Linq.IQueryable<AnonymousType#1>' to 'System.Linq.IQueryable<CapRep4.Web.ApplicationLog>'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) 58 20 CapRep4.Web

    Read the article

  • Update a tableView with a plist took from another table

    - by Pheel
    Background: I have a tab bar application, which has a tableView as the "heart" of the app. It loads data from a plist and, through a button that checks if there are any updates on the remote plist file, updates the local plist with the remote contents. Then, i have another tableView, that should display only those plist items that have a bool value set to YES. Now i want to add a button to the second table that reloads the plist took from the first table. Expected: When i update the local plist from the first table and when i press the button on the second table, the 2nd table is supposed to update and show the cells with that bool value set to YES. (Note: I set YES as default to some items on plist). What happens: The first table updates its content from remote. The second table shows the old items with the value set to YES. When i press the button to refresh data, it reads the plist fine (by logging it, it has the same contents of the first table -only those set to YES-),but it doesn't update data even if i have [self.tableView reloadData];. When i close the app and open it again, the second table is filled with the right items. :\ Code i'm using: //Reading Plist { NSArray *documentPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *plistPath = [[documentPaths lastObject] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPlist.plist"]; NSFileManager *fMgr = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; if (![fMgr fileExistsAtPath:plistPath]) { plistPath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myPlist" ofType:@"plist"]; } NSMutableArray *returnArr = [NSMutableArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:plistPath]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"isFav == YES"]; for (NSDictionary *sect in returnArr) { NSArray *arr = [sect objectForKey:@"Rows"]; [sect setValue:[arr filteredArrayUsingPredicate:predicate] forKey:@"Rows"]; } [self.tableView reloadData]; } //Refresh data button - (void) refreshTable:(id)sender { NSLog(@"plist read"); [self readPlist]; NSLog(@"refreshed plist:%@",[self readPlist]); [self.tableView reloadData]; } Does anyone know why the table is not updating?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET DropDownList posting ""

    - by Daniel
    I am using ASP.NET forms version 3.5 in VB I have a dropdownlist that is filled with data from a DB with a list of countries The code for the dropdown list is <label class="ob_label"> <asp:DropDownList ID="lstCountry" runat="server" CssClass="ob_forminput"> </asp:DropDownList> Country*</label> And the code that the list is Dim selectSQL As String = "exec dbo.*******************" ' Define the ADO.NET objects. Dim con As New SqlConnection(connectionString) Dim cmd As New SqlCommand(selectSQL, con) Dim reader As SqlDataReader ' Try to open database and read information. Try con.Open() reader = cmd.ExecuteReader() ' For each item, add the author name to the displayed ' list box text, and store the unique ID in the Value property. Do While reader.Read() Dim newItem As New ListItem() newItem.Text = reader("AllSites_Countries_Name") newItem.Value = reader("AllSites_Countries_Id") CType(LoginViewCart.FindControl("lstCountry"), DropDownList).Items.Add(newItem) Loop reader.Close() CType(LoginViewCart.FindControl("lstCountry"), DropDownList).SelectedValue = 182 Catch Err As Exception Response.Redirect("~/error-on-page/") MailSender.SendMailMessage("*********************", "", "", OrangeBoxSiteId.SiteName & " Error Catcher", "<p>Error in sub FillCountry</p><p>Error on page:" & HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.AbsoluteUri & "</p><p>Error details: " & Err.Message & "</p>") Response.Redirect("~/error-on-page/") Finally con.Close() End Try When the form is submitted an error occurs which says that the string "" cannot be converted to the datatype integer. For some reason the dropdownlist is posting "" rather than the value for the selected country.

    Read the article

  • how do I insert an hidden token in my form to prevent double posts? (PHP)

    - by jpjp
    I want to prevent users from accidentally posting a comment twice. I use the PRG (post redirect get) method, so that I insert the data on another page then redirect the user back to the page which shows the comment. This allows users to refresh as many times as they want. However this doesn't work when the user goes back and clicks submit again or when they click submit 100 times really fast. I don't want 100 of the same comments. I looked at related questions on SO and found that a token is best. But I am having trouble using it. //makerandomtoken(20) returns a random 20 length char. <form method="post" ... > <input type="text" id="comments" name="comments" class="commentbox" /><br/> <input type="hidden" name="_token" value="<?php echo $token=makerandomtoken(20); ?>" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" name="submit" /> </form> if (isset($_POST['submit']) && !empty($comments)) { $comments= mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc,trim($_POST['comments'])); //how do I make the if-statment to check if the token has been already set once? if ( ____________){ //don't insert comment because already clicked submit } else{ //insert the comment into the database } } So I have the token as a hidden value, but how do I use that to prevent multiple clicking of submit.

    Read the article

  • property names are different from original Object in the silverlight

    - by kwon
    Following is part of service layer which is provided by WCF service : [Serializable] public class WaitInfo { private string roomName; private string pName; private string tagNo; public string RoomName { get { return roomName; } set { this.roomName = value; } } public string PName { get { return pName; } set { this.pName = value; } } public string TagNo { get { return tagNo; } set { this.tagNo = value; } } } public class Service1 : IService1 { public List<WaitInfo> GetWaitingList() { MyDBDataContext db = new MyDBDataContext(); var query = from w in db.WAIT_INFOs select new WaitInfo { TagNo = w.PATIENT_INFO.TAG_NO, RoomName= w.ROOM_INFO.ROOM_NAME, PName= w.PATIENT_INFO.P_NAME }; List<WaitInfo> result = query.ToList(); return result; } And following is codebehind part of UI layer which is provided by Silverlight public MainPage() { InitializeComponent(); Service1Client s = new Service1Client(); s.GetWaitingListCompleted += new EventHandler<GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs>( s_GetWaitingListCompleted); s.GetWaitingListAsync(); } void s_GetWaitingListCompleted(object sender, RadControlsSilverlightApplication1.ServiceReference2.GetWaitingListByCompletedEventArgs e) { GridDataGrid.ItemsSource = e.Result; } And following is xaml code in Silverlight page <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <data:DataGrid x:Name="GridDataGrid"></data:DataGrid> </Grid> Is is very simple code, however what I am thinking weird is property name of object at "e.Result" in the code behind page. In the service layer, although properties' names are surely "RoomName, PName, TagNo", in the silverlight properties' names are "roomName, pName, tagNo" which are private variable name of the WaitingList Object. Did I something wrong? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • problem on running script on different operating system

    - by Praveen kalal
    i run use a javascript code for getting browser information it run fine on microsoft windows xp but it not working on microsoft windows server 2003. my code is folowing. plz help. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function F() { var today = new Date(); var the_date = new Date("December 31, 2012"); var the_cookie_date = the_date.toGMTString(); var the_cookie = screen.width +"x"+ screen.height; var the_cookie = "Screen Resolution:"+the_cookie + ";\nExpires:" + the_cookie_date+";\n Browser CodeName:"+navigator.appCodeName+";\n Browser Name: " + navigator.appName+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+";\n Browser Version: " + navigator.appVersion+"; \n Cookies Enabled: " + navigator.cookieEnabled +";\n Platform: " + navigator.platform+";\n User-agent header: " + navigator.userAgent; / document.getElementById('box-content').value=the_cookie; } </script> </head> <body> <textarea name="box-content" id="box-content" rows="10" cols="70"> </textarea> <br /><br /> <p><input type="button" id="copy" name="copy" value="Copy to Clipboard" /></p> </body> </html> <script type="text/javascript"> //set path ZeroClipboard.setMoviePath('http://192.168.101.135:471/browserinfo/zeroclipboard/ZeroClipboard.swf'); //create client var clip = new ZeroClipboard.Client(); //event clip.addEventListener('mousedown',function() { clip.setText(document.getElementById('box-content').value); }); clip.addEventListener('complete',function(client,text) { alert('text is copied'); }); //glue it to the button clip.glue('copy'); </script>

    Read the article

  • How to prevent linq-to-sql designer undo my changing

    - by anonim.developer
    Dear All, Thanks for your attention in advance, I’ve met an issue with LINQ-2-SQL designer in VS 2008 SP1 which has made me CRAZY. I use Linq2sql as my DAL. It seems Linq2sql speeds up coding in the first step but lots of issues arise in feature specifically with table or object inheritance. In this case I have a class Entity that all other entity classes generated by Linq2sql designer inherit from. public abstract class Entity { public virtual Guid ID { get; protected set; } } public partial class User : monius.Data.Entity { } And the following generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) [Column(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "UniqueIdentifier NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true, UpdateCheck = UpdateCheck.Never)] [DataMember(Order = 1)] public System.Guid ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } When I compile the code VS warns me that Warning 1 'User.ID' hides inherited member 'Entity.ID'. To make the current member override that mplementation, add the override keyword. Otherwise add the new keyword. That warning is obvious and I have to change the code generated by L2S designer (DataModel.designer.cs) to […] public override System.Guid ID { … protected set … } And the code compiled with no error or warning and everyone is happy. But that is not the end of story. As soon as I made changes to entities of the diagram (dbml) or even I open dbml file to view it, any change manually I made to designer has been vanished and POOF! Redo AGAIN. That is a painful job. Now I wonder if there is a way to force L2S designer not changing portions of auto-generated code. I’ll be appreciated if someone kindly helps me with this issue.

    Read the article

  • php mysql parallel array checkboxes

    - by gramware
    I have an array of checkboxes that I edit at once to set up a 'tinyint' field. the problem comes in when i uncheck the checkbox and post the vales to mysql. since it posts an array of checkboxes and another parallel array of values to edit, unchecking a checkbox results in the 0 value been ignored by PHP_POST and hence the checkbox array will be less by the number of unchecked values in the form while the array to be edited will have all the records in the form. here is the submit code while($row=mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $checked = ($row[active]==1) ? 'checked="checked"' : ''; ... echo "<input type='hidden' name='TrID[]' value='$TrID'>"; echo "<input type='checkbox' name='active1[]' value='$row[active]''$checked' >"; ... and the processing php script $userid = ($_POST['TrID']); $checked= ($_POST['active']); $i=0; foreach ($userid as $usid) { if ($checked[$i]==1){ $check = 1; } else{ $check = 0; } $qry1 ="UPDATE `epapers`.`clientelle` SET `active` = '$check' WHERE `clientelle`.`user_id` = '$usid' "; $result = mysql_query($qry1); $i++; }

    Read the article

  • java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap

    - by aelshereay
    I create a simple webapp using tomcat 6, spring 2.5.6 and maven. The problem is when I boot up tomcat, I am getting the following errors: SEVERE: StandardWrapper.Throwable java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/springframework/ui/ModelMap ... Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.ui.ModelMap The ModelMap class does exist in spring-2.5.6.jar and spring-context-2.5.6.jar, I also have some other spring jars. All of them are being deployed to tomcat correctly, when I check the application WEB-INF (deployed to tomcat) I found all those jars there! I have only one @Controller that has a @RequestMapping("/home.htm") showForm(ModelMap model) method. My applicationContext is quite simple: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:dwr="http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-2.5.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-2.5.xsd http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr http://www.directwebremoting.org/schema/spring-dwr-3.0.xsd" default-autowire="byName"> <context:component-scan base-package="org.myapp"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping"/> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.AnnotationMethodHandlerAdapter"/> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView"></property> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/view/"></property> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"></property> </bean> </beans>

    Read the article

  • How to get the actual address of a pointer in C?

    - by Airjoe
    BACKGROUND: I'm writing a single level cache simulator in C for a homework assignment, and I've been given code that I must work from. In our discussions of the cache, we were told that the way a small cache can hold large addresses is by splitting the large address into the position in the cache and an identifying tag. That is, if you had an 8 slot cache but wanted to store something with address larger than 8, you take the 3 (because 2^3=8) rightmost bits and put the data in that position; so if you had address 22 for example, binary 10110, you would take those 3 rightmost bits 110, which is decimal 5, and put it in slot 5 of the cache. You would also store in this position the tag, which is the remaining bits 10. One function, cache_load, takes a single argument, and integer pointer. So effectively, I'm being given this int* addr which is an actual address and points to some value. In order to store this value in the cache, I need to split the addr. However, the compiler doesn't like when I try to work with the pointer directly. So, for example, I try to get the position by doing: npos=addr%num_slots The compiler gets angry and gives me errors. I tried casting to an int, but this actually got me the value that the pointer was pointing to, not the numerical address itself. Any help is appreciated, thanks!

    Read the article

  • spring - constructor injection and overriding parent definition of nested bean

    - by mdma
    I've read the Spring 3 reference on inheriting bean definitions, but I'm confused about what is possible and not possible. For example, a bean that takes a collaborator bean, configured with the value 12 <bean name="beanService12" class="SomeSevice"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean name="beanBaseNested" class="SomeCollaborator"> <constructor-arg index="0" value="12"/> </bean> </constructor-arg> </bean> I'd then like to be able to create similar beans, with slightly different configured collaborators. Can I do something like <bean name="beanService13" parent="beanService12"> <constructor-arg index="0"> <bean> <constructor-arg index="0" value="13"/> </bean> </constructor> </bean> I'm not sure this is possible and, if it were, it feels a bit clunky. Is there a nicer way to override small parts of a large nested bean definition? It seems the child bean has to know quite a lot about the parent, e.g. constructor index. I'd prefer not to change the structure - the parent beans use collaborators to perform their function, but I can add properties and use property injection if that helps. This is a repeated pattern, would creating a custom schema help? Thanks for any advice!

    Read the article

  • How can I SETF an element in a tree by an accessor?

    - by Willi Ballenthin
    We've been using Lisp in my AI course. The assignments I've received have involved searching and generating tree-like structures. For each assignment, I've ended up writing something like: (defun initial-state () (list 0 ; score nil ; children 0 ; value 0)) ; something else and building my functions around these "states", which are really just nested lists with some loosely defined structure. To make the structure more rigid, I've tried to write accessors, such as: (defun state-score ( state ) (nth 2 state)) This works for reading the value (which should be all I need to do in a nicely functional world. However, as time crunches, and I start to madly hack, sometimes I want a mutable structure). I don't seem to be able to SETF the returned ...thing (place? value? pointer?). I get an error with something like: (setf (state-score *state*) 10) Sometimes I seem to have a little more luck writing the accessor/mutator as a macro: (defmacro state-score ( state ) `(nth 2 ,state)) However I don't know why this should be a macro, so I certainly shouldn't write it as a macro (except that sometimes it works. Programming by coincidence is bad). What is an appropriate strategy to build up such structures? More importantly, where can I learn about whats going on here (what operations affect the memory in what way)?

    Read the article

  • Increment non unique field during SQL insert

    - by phill
    I'm not sure how to word this cause I am a little confused at the moment, so bare with me while I attempt to explain, I have a table with the following fields: OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine, and a few other unimportant ones. OrderLineID is the primary key and is always unique(which isn't a problem), OrderID is a foreign key that isn't unique(also not a problem), and OrderLine is a value that is not unique in the table, but should be unique for any OrderIDs that are the same...so if that didn't make sense, perhaps a picture OrderLineID, OrderID, OrderLine 1 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 5 2 2 For all OrderIDs there is a unique OrderLine. I am trying to create an insert statement that gets the max OrderLine value for a specific OrderId so I can increment it, but it's not working so well and I could use a little help. What I have right now is below, I build the sql statement in a program and replace OrderID # with an actual value. I am pretty sure the problem is with the nested select statement, and incrementing the result, but I can't find any examples that do this since my google skills are weak apparently.... INSERT INTO tblOrderLine (OrderID, OrderLine) VALUES (<OrderID #>, (SELECT MAX(OrderLine) FROM tblOrderLine WHERE orderID = <same OrderID #>)+1) any help would be nice.

    Read the article

  • How do I search a NTEXT column for XML attributes and update the values? MS SQL 2005

    - by Alan
    Duplicate: this exact question was asked by the same author in http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1221583/how-do-i-update-a-xml-string-in-an-ntext-column-in-sql-server. Please close this one and answer in the original question. I have a SQL table with 2 columns. ID(int) and Value(ntext) The value rows have all sorts of xml strings in them. ID Value -- ------------------ 1 <ROOT><Type current="TypeA"/></ROOT> 2 <XML><Name current="MyName"/><XML> 3 <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow"/><TYPE> 4 <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow" Size="Large"/><TYPE> 5 <TYPE><Colour current="Blue" Size="Large"/><TYPE> 6 <XML><Name current="Yellow"/><XML> How do I: A. List the rows where <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow", bearing in mind that there is an entry <XML><Name current="Yellow"/><XML> B. Modify the rows that contain <TYPE><Colour current="Yellow" to be <TYPE><Colour current="Purple" Thanks! 4 your help

    Read the article

  • Separating Javascript functions

    - by msharma
    I am wondering how javascripts get included in a jsp - can we put any code which the jsp will recognize and not just javascript code only in the .js file? I have some common javascript code which needs to get executed on different pages, so I decided to place it in its own separate .js file and include it on all jsps which call that function. The js function now refers to a key from a properties file and some other non-javascript code: function openPrivacyStmntWindow(){ var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> newwindow=window.open(url,'Terms','height=600,width=800,left=300,top=100,scrollbars=1'); newwindow.focus(); return false; } This function worked just fine when it was included in the jsp itself. Now that I have separated it into its own file it doesnt, do I need to include the properties bundle in this file. The value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" is referring to a bundle called "urls" which has a key called "url_privacyStatement" Also in Line 1 var url = <h:outputText escape="false" value="\"#{urls.url_privacyStatement}\";" /> the <h:outputText escape="false" ... /> will it cause any issues? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • WCF Fails when using impersonation over 2 machine boundaries (3 machines)

    - by MrTortoise
    These scenarios work in their pieces. Its when i put it all together that it breaks. I have a WCF service using netTCP that uses impersonation to get the callers ID (role based security will be used at this level) on top of this is a WCF service using basicHTTP with TransportCredientialOnly which also uses impersonation I then have a client front end that connects to the basicHttp. the aim of the game is to return the clients username from the netTCP service at the bottom - so ultimatley i can use role based security here. each service is on a different machine - and each service works when you remove any calls they make to other services when you run a client for them both locally and remotley. IE the problem only manifests when you jump accross more than one machine boundary. IE the setup breaks when i connect each part together - but they work fine on their own. I also specify [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] in the method and have IIS setup to only allow windows authentication (actually i have ananymous enabled still, but disabling makes no difference) This impersonation works fine in the scenario where i have a netTCP Service on Machine A with a client with a basicHttp service on machine B with a clinet for the basicHttp service also on machine B ... however if i move that client to any machine C i get the following error: The exception is 'The socket connection was aborted. This could be caused by an error processing your message or a receive timeout being exceeded by the remote host, or an underlying network resource issue. Local socket timeout was '00:10:00'' the inner message is 'An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host' Am beginning to think this is more a network issue than config ... but then im grasping at straws ... the config files are as follows (heading from the client down to the netTCP layer) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttpBindingEndpoint" closeTimeout="00:02:00" openTimeout="00:02:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:02:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://panrelease01/WCFTopWindowsTest/Service1.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttpBindingEndpoint" contract="ServiceReference1.IService1" name="basicHttpBindingEndpoint" behaviorConfiguration="ImpersonationBehaviour" /> </client> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="ImpersonationBehaviour"> <clientCredentials> <windows allowedImpersonationLevel="Impersonation"/> </clientCredentials> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> the service for the client (basicHttp service and the client for the netTCP service) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="netTcpBindingEndpoint" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" transactionFlow="false" transferMode="Buffered" transactionProtocol="OleTransactions" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" listenBacklog="10" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxBufferSize="65536" maxConnections="10" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:10:00" enabled="false" /> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" protectionLevel="EncryptAndSign" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" /> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttpWindows"> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows"></transport> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="net.tcp://5d2x23j.panint.com/netTCPwindows/Service1.svc" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="netTcpBindingEndpoint" contract="ServiceReference1.IService1" name="netTcpBindingEndpoint" behaviorConfiguration="ImpersonationBehaviour"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="ImpersonationBehaviour"> <clientCredentials> <windows allowedImpersonationLevel="Impersonation" allowNtlm="true"/> </clientCredentials> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WCFTopWindowsTest.basicHttpWindowsBehaviour"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="WCFTopWindowsTest.Service1" behaviorConfiguration="WCFTopWindowsTest.basicHttpWindowsBehaviour"> <endpoint address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttpWindows" name ="basicHttpBindingEndpoint" contract ="WCFTopWindowsTest.IService1"> </endpoint> </service> </services> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel> <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> <directoryBrowse enabled="true" /> </system.webServer> </configuration> then finally the service for the netTCP layer <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <configuration> <system.web> <authentication mode="Windows"></authentication> <authorization> <allow roles="*"/> </authorization> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> <identity impersonate="true" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="netTCPwindows"> <security mode="Transport"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows"></transport> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="netTCPwindows.netTCPwindowsBehaviour" name="netTCPwindows.Service1"> <endpoint address="" bindingConfiguration="netTCPwindows" binding="netTcpBinding" name="netTcpBindingEndpoint" contract="netTCPwindows.IService1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mextcp" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:8721/test2" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="netTCPwindows.netTCPwindowsBehaviour"> <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <!-- To receive exception details in faults for debugging purposes, set the value below to true. Set to false before deployment to avoid disclosing exception information --> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel> <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> <directoryBrowse enabled="true" /> </system.webServer> </configuration>

    Read the article

  • How to set WS-SecurityPolicy in an inbound CXF service in Mule?

    - by Brakara
    When configuring the service for handling UsernameToken and signatures, it's setup like this: <service name="serviceName"> <inbound> <cxf:inbound-endpoint address="someUrl" protocolConnector="httpsConnector" > <cxf:inInterceptors> <spring:bean class="org.apache.cxf.binding.soap.saaj.SAAJInInterceptor" /> <spring:bean class="org.apache.cxf.ws.security.wss4j.WSS4JInInterceptor"> <spring:constructor-arg> <spring:map> <spring:entry key="action" value="UsernameToken Timestamp Signature" /> <spring:entry key="passwordCallbackRef" value-ref="serverCallback" /> <spring:entry key="signaturePropFile" value="wssecurity.properties" /> </spring:map> </spring:constructor-arg> </spring:bean> </cxf:inInterceptors> </cxf:inbound-endpoint> </inbound> </service> But how is it possible to create a policy of what algorithms that are allowed, and what parts of the message that should be signed?

    Read the article

  • Hiding Opetions of a Selection with JQuery

    - by Syed Abdul Rahman
    Okay, let's start with an example. <select id = "selection1">     <option value = "1" id = "1">Number 1</option>     <option value = "2" id = "2">Number 2</option>     <option value = "3" id = "3">Number 3</option> </select> Now from here, we have a dropdown with 3 options. What I want to do now is to hide an option. Adding style = "display:none" will not help. The option would not appear in the dropdownlist, but using the arrow keys, you can still select it. Essentially, it does exactly what the code says. It isn't displayed, and it stops there. A JQuery function of $("1").hide() will not work. Plus, I don't only want to hide the option, I want to completely remove it. Any possibility on doing so? Do I have to use parent/sibling/child elements? If so, I'm still not sure how. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 485 486 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496  | Next Page >