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  • Why does an authorized OAuth request token need to be exchanged for an access token?

    - by Joe Shaw
    I'm wondering what the reasons are for OAuth to require a round-trip to the data provider to exchange an authorized request token for an access token. My understanding of the OAuth workflow is: Requesting site (consumer) gets a request token from the data provider site (service provider). Requesting site asks the data provider site to authenticate the user, passing in a callback. Once the user has been authenticated and authorized the requesting site, the user is directed back to the requesting site (consumer) via the callback provided which passes back the now-authorized request token and a verification code. The requesting site exchanges the request token for an access token. The requesting site uses the access token to get data from the data provider site. Assuming I got that right, why couldn't the callback simply provide the access token to the requesting site directly in step 3, eliminating step 4? Why is the request to exchange the request token for the access token necessary? Does it exist solely for consumers that require users to enter the verification code manually, with the thought that it would be shorter and simpler than the access token itself?

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  • Load page for validation but do not display it to user in ASP.NET

    - by Kevin
    We have a site requiring users pay $2 to view the details of a record. We occasionally get complaints because we send them to the payment page, and once they pay it turns out the record isn't valid, or it was lost, or the data couldn't be generated. So we want to add in a check to ensure the page constructs properly before the user is required to pay for it. However, we don't want the user to have access to the page until they pay for it. Is there anything in ASP.NET 3.5 or just general web design that would allow something like this? The data on the record is real time and computed on a backend server before sent to the client. Occasionally this computation fails for whatever reason. Our alternative is to call all of the loading methods and validate the data, then redirect them to the payment page. The problem is A) this will be a relatively involved process rewriting all of these methods to return validation information, and B) it still doesn't guarentee us the page will load properly. Any thoughts?

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  • JPA returning null for deleted items from a set

    - by Jon
    This may be related to my question from a few days ago, but I'm not even sure how to explain this part. (It's an entirely different parent-child relationship.) In my interface, I have a set of attributes (Attribute) and valid values (ValidValue) for each one in a one-to-many relationship. In the Spring MVC frontend, I have a page for an administrator to edit these values. Once it's submitted, if any of these fields (as <input> tags) are blank, I remove the ValidValue object like so: Set<ValidValue> existingValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(attribute.getValidValues()); Set<ValidValue> finalValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(); for(ValidValue validValue : attribute.getValidValues()) { if(!validValue.getValue().isEmpty()) { finalValues.add(validValue); } } existingValues.removeAll(finalValues); for(ValidValue removedValue : existingValues) { getApplicationDataService().removeValidValue(removedValue); } attribute.setValidValues(finalValues); getApplicationDataService().modifyAttribute(attribute); The problem is that while the database is updated appropriately, the next time I query for the Attribute objects, they're returned with an extra entry in their ValidValue set -- a null, and thus, the next time I iterate through the values to display, it shows an extra blank value in the middle. I've confirmed that this happens at the point of a merge or find, at the point of "Execute query ReadObjectQuery(entity.Attribute). Here's the code I'm using to modify the database (in the ApplicationDataService): public void modifyAttribute(Attribute attribute) { getJpaTemplate().merge(attribute); } public void removeValidValue(ValidValue removedValue) { ValidValue merged = getJpaTemplate().merge(removedValue); getJpaTemplate().remove(merged); } Here are the relevant parts of the entity classes: Entity @Table(name = "attribute") public class Attribute { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "attribute") private Set<ValidValue> validValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(0); } @Entity @Table(name = "valid_value") public class ValidValue { @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "attr_id", nullable = false) private Attribute attribute; }

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  • BufferedImage.getGraphics() resulting in memory leak, is there a fix?

    - by user359202
    Hi friends, I'm having problem with some framework API calling BufferedImage.getGraphics() method and thus causing memory leak. What this method does is that it always calls BufferedImage.createGraphics(). On a windows machine, createGraphics() is handled by Win32GraphicsEnvironment which keeps a listeners list inside its field displayChanger. When I call getGraphics on my BufferedImage someChart, someChart's SurfaceManager(which retains a reference to someChart) is added to the listeners map in Win32GraphicsEnvironment, preventing someChart to be garbage collected. Nothing afterwards removes someChart's SurfaceManager from the listeners map. In general, the summarized path stopping a BufferedImage from being garbage collected, once getGraphics is called, is as follows: GC Root - localGraphicsEnvironment(Win32GraphicsEnvironment) - displayChanger(SunDisplayChanger) - listeners(Map) - key(D3DChachingSurfaceManager) - bImg(BufferedImage) I could have changed the framework's code so that after every called to BufferedImage.getGraphics(), I keep a reference to the BufferedImage's SurfaceManager. Then, I get hold of localGraphicsEnvironment, cast it to Win32GraphicsEnvironment, then call removeDisplayChangedListener() using the reference to the BufferedImage's SurfaceManager. But I don't think this is a proper way to solve the problem. Could someone please help me with this issue? Thanks a lot!

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  • javascript watching for variable change via a timer

    - by DA
    I have a slide show where every 10 seconds the next image loads. Once an image loads, it waits 10 seconds (setTimeout) and then calls a function which fades it out, then calls the function again to fade in the next image. It repeats indefinitely. This works. However, at times, I'm going to want to over-ride this "function1 call - pause - function2 call - function1 call" loop outside of this function (for instance, I may click on a slide # and want to jump directly to that slide and cancel the current pause). One solution seems to be to set up a variable, allow other events to change that variable and then in my original function chain, check for any changes before continuing the loop. I have this set up: var ping = 500; var pausetime = 10000; for(i=0; i<=pausetime; i=i+ping){ setTimeout(function(){ console.log(gocheckthevariable()); console.log(i); pseudoIf('the variable is true AND the timer is done then...do the next thing') },i) } The idea is that I'd like to pause for 10 seconds. During this pause, every half second I'll check to see if this should be stopped. The above will write out to the console the following every half second: true 10000 true 10000 true 10000 etc... But what I want/need is this: true 0 true 500 true 1000 etc... The basic problem is that the for loop executes before each of the set timeouts. While I can check the value of the variable every half second, I can't match that against the current loop index. I'm sure this is a common issue, but I'm at a loss what I should actually be searching for.

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  • Cocoa NSTextField Drag & Drop Requires Subclass... Really?

    - by ipmcc
    Until today, I've never had occasion to use anything other than an NSWindow itself as an NSDraggingDestination. When using a window as a one-size-fits-all drag destination, the NSWindow will pass those messages on to its delegate, allowing you to handle drops without subclassing NSWindow. The docs say: Although NSDraggingDestination is declared as an informal protocol, the NSWindow and NSView subclasses you create to adopt the protocol need only implement those methods that are pertinent. (The NSWindow and NSView classes provide private implementations for all of the methods.) Either a window object or its delegate may implement these methods; however, the delegate’s implementation takes precedence if there are implementations in both places. Today, I had a window with two NSTextFields on it, and I wanted them to have different drop behaviors, and I did not want to allow drops anywhere else in the window. The way I interpret the docs, it seems that I either have to subclass NSTextField, or make some giant spaghetti-conditional drop handlers on the window's delegate that hit-checks the draggingLocation against each view in order to select the different drop-area behaviors for each field. The centralized NSWindow-delegate-based drop handler approach seems like it would be onerous in any case where you had more than a small handful of drop destination views. Likewise, the subclassing approach seems onerous regardless of the case, because now the drop handling code lives in a view class, so once you accept the drop you've got to come up with some way to marshal the dropped data back to the model. The bindings docs warn you off of trying to drive bindings by setting the UI value programmatically. So now you're stuck working your way back around that too. So my question is: "Really!? Are those the only readily available options? Or am I missing something straightforward here?" Thanks.

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  • jQuery validate problem

    - by tohop
    Hi there. I have a jquery dialog box that pops up and takes user data through a form. Once the user is finished s/he clicks the 'ok' button. This dialog box has a few 'tabs' such that when 'ok' is clicked, we want to validate all the data given in each tab. If anything is invalid, we take the user to that tab and tell them what's wrong. However, it takes 2 clicks of 'ok' to achieve this. Here is the offending jquery: if(errors){ // display the tab with the error jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){ alert('we are here'); if(jQuery(this).find('*').not('label').hasClass('invalid')){ jQuery('#recording_tabs').tabs('option','selected', i); return false;// prevent further processing } }); } So what happens in the above code is that when we click 'ok' we get a 'we are here' alert for each div (tab) and then nothing happens. Clicking 'ok' again gives us the 'we are here' alert up until we are taken to the tab with the errors. So obviously the first time round the inner if statement is false for each tab which probably means jQuery hasn't registered the 'invalid' classes in time. So I tried a blank each() statement just before the main one in the hope that it would fix the problem jQuery('#recording_tabs > div').each( function(i){} ); But I got the same result. Can anyone spot anything I am missing?

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  • BASIC Menu-driven program repeates twice after successful completion of first task.

    - by Zazu
    Hello, Im using Plato3 to write C programs. Im creating a menu-driven program but want to test out the basic concept of getting it to work #include<stdio.h> #include<ctype.h> int function1(); main(){ char s; do{ puts("\n choose the following"); puts("(P)rint\n"); puts("(Q)uit\n"); scanf("%c",&s); s=toupper(s); switch (s){ case 'P' : function1(); break; case 'Q' : return -1; break; } }while (function1()==0); } int function1(){ printf("Hello World"); return 0; } The problem is that once function1() returns the value 0, the whole program is echoed ... why ? Example : Running the program gives this : Hello WorldHellow World choose the following (P)rint (Q)uit Hello World choose the following (P)rint (Q)uit -- Any idea why ? Please help, thanks !!!!

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  • How to add a gwt widget to a gwt Composite already visible at runtime using MVP?

    - by mary4pfc
    Hi! I'm building an application whose menus depend on user roles. Once user is logged in and, therefore, her roles are known, I want to create the Hyperlinks related to the user and add them to the menu. I'm using MVP. Here's my code for the presenter: public class AdminMenuAreaPresenter extends WidgetPresenter<AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display> { public interface Display extends WidgetDisplay{ public void addLink(String link); } private DispatchAsync dispatcher; private SessionManager sessionManager; @Inject public AdminMenuAreaPresenter(AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display display, EventBus bus, DispatchAsync dispatcher, SessionManager sessionManager){ super(display, bus); this.dispatcher = dispatcher; this.sessionManager = sessionManager; this.bind(); } @Override protected void onBind() { super.onBind(); registerHandler(eventBus.addHandler(LoginEvent.TYPE, new LoginEventHandler() { @Override public void onLogin(LoginEvent event) { display.addLink("register user"); } })); } @Override protected void onUnbind() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override protected void onRevealDisplay() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } And here's the View: public class AdminMenuAreaView extends Composite implements AdminMenuAreaPresenter.Display{ private VerticalPanel vPanel; private Hyperlink registerUserLink; public AdminMenuAreaView(){ vPanel = new VerticalPanel(); initWidget(vPanel); } @Override public Widget asWidget() { return this; } public void addLink(String s){ registerUserLink = new Hyperlink(s, "this is new target"); this.vPanel.add(registerUserLink); registerUserLink.setVisible(true); } public HasClickHandlers getRegisterUserLink(){ return registerUserLink; } What am I doing wrong? Flow program goes throgh the addLink() method, but nothing is added to the view either dom document. Thank you.

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  • Preallocating memory with C++ in realtime environment

    - by Elazar Leibovich
    I'm having a function which gets an input buffer of n bytes, and needs an auxillary buffer of n bytes in order to process the given input buffer. (I know vector is allocating memory at runtime, let's say that I'm using a vector which uses static preallocated memory. Imagine this is NOT an STL vector.) The usual approach is void processData(vector<T> &vec) { vector<T> &aux = new vector<T>(vec.size()); //dynamically allocate memory // process data } //usage: processData(v) Since I'm working in a real time environment, I wish to preallocate all the memory I'll ever need in advance. The buffer is allocated only once at startup. I want that whenever I'm allocating a vector, I'll automatically allocate auxillary buffer for my processData function. I can do something similar with a template function static void _processData(vector<T> &vec,vector<T> &aux) { // process data } template<size_t sz> void processData(vector<T> &vec) { static aux_buffer[sz]; vector aux(vec.size(),aux_buffer); // use aux_buffer for the vector _processData(vec,aux); } // usage: processData<V_MAX_SIZE>(v); However working alot with templates is not much fun (now let's recompile everything since I changed a comment!), and it forces me to do some bookkeeping whenever I use this function. Are there any nicer designs around this problem?

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  • Custom UITableViewCell trouble with UIAccessibility elements

    - by ojreadmore
    No matter what I try, I can't keep my custom UITableViewCell from acting like it should under the default rules for UIAccessiblity. I don't want this cell to act like an accessibility container (per se), so following this guide I should be able to make all of my subviews accessible, right?! It says to make each element accessible separately and make sure the cell itself is not accessible. - (BOOL)isAccessibilityElement { return NO; } - (NSString *)accessibilityLabel { return nil; } - (NSInteger)accessibilityElementCount { return 0; } - (id)initWithStyle:(UITableViewCellStyle)style reuseIdentifier:(NSString *)reuseIdentifier //cells use this reusage stuff { if (self = [super initWithStyle:style reuseIdentifier:reuseIdentifier]) { [self setIsAccessibilityElement:NO]; sub1 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,1,1)]; [sub1 setAccessibilityLanguage:@"es"]; [sub1 setIsAccessibilityElement:YES]; [sub1 setAccessibilityLabel:sub1.text] sub2 = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0,0,1,1)]; [sub2 setAccessibilityLanguage:@"es"]; [sub2 setIsAccessibilityElement:YES]; [sub2 setAccessibilityLabel:sub2.text] The voice over system reads the contents of the whole cell all at once, even though I'm trying to stop that behavior. I could say [sub2 setIsAccessibilityElement:NO]; but that would would make this element entirely unreadable. I want to keep it readable, but not have the whole cell be treated like a container (and assumed to be the English language). There does not appear to be a lot of information out there on this, so at the very least I'd like to document it.

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  • Problem Routing domains subfolder

    - by hkda150
    Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

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  • What's a good way to parameterize "static" content (e.g. CSS) in a Tomcat webapp?

    - by Steven Huwig
    Some of our CSS files contain parameters that can vary based on the deployment location (dev, QA, prod). For example: background: url(#DOJO_PATH#/dijit/themes...) to avoid hardcoding a path to a particular CDN or locally-hosted Dojo installation. These values are textually substituted with the real values by a deployment script, when it copies the contents of the webapp into the Tomcat webapps directory. That way the same deployment archive file (WAR + TAR file containing other configuration) can be deployed to dev, QA, and prod, with the varying parameters provided by environment-specific configuration files. However, I'd like to make the contents of the WAR (including the templatized CSS files) independent of this in-house deployment script. Since we don't really have control over the deployment script, all I can think to do is configure Tomcat with #DOJO_PATH# etc. as environment variables in the application's context.xml, and use Tomcat to insert those parameters into the CSS at runtime. I could make the CSS files into generated JSPs, but it seems a little ugly to me. Moreover, the substitution only needs to be done once per application deployment, so repeatedly dynamically generating the stylesheets using JSP will be rather wasteful. Does anyone have any alternative ideas or tools to use for this? We're committed to Tomcat and to substituting these parameters at deployment or at runtime (that is, not at build time).

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  • How can I make hundreds of simultaneously running processes communicate with a database through one

    - by Olfan
    Long speech short: How can I make hundreds of simultaneously running processes communicate with a database through one or few permanent sessions? The whole story: I once built a number crunching engine that handles vast amounts of large data files by forking off one child after another giving each a small number of files to work on. File locking, progress monitoring and result propagation happen in an Oracle database which all (sub-)processes access at various times using an application-specific module which encapsulates DBI. This worked well at first, but now with higher volumes of input data, the number of database sessions (one per child, and they can be very short-lived) constantly being opened and closed is becoming an issue. I now want to centralise database access so that there are only one or few fixed database sessions which handle all database access for all the (sub-)processes. The presence of the database abstraction module should make the changes easy because the function calls in the worker instances can stay the same. My problem is that I cannot think of a suitable way to enhance said module in order to establish communication between all the processes and the database connector(s). I thought of message queueing, but couldn't come up with a way of connecting a large herd of requestors with one or few database connectors in a way so that bidirectional communication is possible (for collecting the query result). An asynchronous approach could help here in that all requests are written to the same queue and the database connector servicing the request will "call back" to submit the result. But my mind fails me in generating an image clear enough so that I can paint into code. Threading instead of forking might have given me an easier start, but this would now require massive changes to the code base that I'm not prepared to do to a live system. The more I think of it, the more the base idea looks like a pre-forked web server to me only that it doesn't serve web pages but database queries. Any ideas on what to dig into, and where? Sample (pseudo) code to inspire me, links to possibly related articles, ready solutions on CPAN maybe?

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  • How can I determine when an InnoDB table was last changed?

    - by David M
    I've had success in the past storing the (heavily) processed results of a database query in memcached, using the last update time of the underlying tables(s) as part of the cache key. For MyISAM tables, that last changed time is available in SHOW TABLE STATUS. Unfortunately, that's usually NULL for InnoDB tables. In MySQL 4.1, the ctime for an InnoDB in its SHOW TABLE STATUS line was usually its actual last update time, but that doesn't seem to be true for MySQL 5.1. There is a DATETIME field in the table, but it only shows when a row has been modified - it cannot show the deletion time of a row that's not there anymore! So, I really cannot use MAX(update_time). Here's the really tricky part. I have a number of replicas that I do reads from. Can I figure out the state of the table that doesn't rely on when the changes have actually been applied? My conclusion after working on this for a while is that it's not going to be possible to get this information as cheaply as I'd like. I'm probably going to cache data until the time that I expect the table to change (it's updated once a day), and let the query cache help out where it can.

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  • I need to recover an instance of an activity

    - by Bilthon
    Well.. the title is pretty descriptive, I have a bunch of tab activities (which I implemented myself, didn't want to use the tabviews with activities inside them), so It's basically 5 activities calling each other every time the user clicks on the tabs displayed as a row of LinearLayouts at the bottom of the screen. The thing is that the way I do it now, everytime the user jumps from one activity to another, a new activity is created and launched. Of course, I can see I'm wasting resources this way. So what I would like to do is to create every activity only once; and then if the user wants to go back to the previous (or any one that was already created and is probably paused) just check on some kind of list or array to see if the activity can be recovered and only in the case it can't; to lauch a new one. My question is, how can I check this? should I save the intents? and how to recover the activities afterwards? I'm kind of new with java. Greetings Nelson R. Perez

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  • jQuery: If, Else with buttons error

    - by Wipqozn
    I'm running into an odd error. I'm working in Django 1.2, and have implemented the commenting framework. I'm trying to attach a hide/show button to each comment field, but whenever click on a hide/show button, it behaves as if each hide/show button beneath it on the page was clicked. Here's the jQuery code: <input type="Button" id="hideShow" name="hide/show" value="Hide"></input> <script> $("#hideShow").click(function() { if($(this).val() == "Hide") { $("textarea").hide("fast"); $(this).val("Show"); } else { $("textarea").show("fast"); $(this).val( "Hide"); } }); </script> So, when I click the Hide/show button, it will perform the action for each button beneath the clicked button + once for the button itself. So If I click a button, and there are two buttons beneath it, and value=hide it will first hide the 'textarea', than show the text area, than finally hide it again. I'm new to jQuery (although I do have experience in other languages), and I have an -idea- why it's not working: that whenever an action is performed jQuery jumps to the first one, than continues down the page looking for any other actions performed, and responds to each one. So it comes to my first button, sets it as being clicked, and so when jQuery comes across the other buttons it views them all as being 'clicked' and performs actions accordingly. I've thought of a semi-solution to my problem, putting in a variable which tracks how many times it has gone through, and than acting based on -that- action. But I would rather not do that, since it's not really a solution to the problem at hand but a work around. Any input is appreciated.

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  • Prolog Backtracking

    - by AhmadAssaf
    I am trying to do a word calculator .. read words from a file .. translate them into numbers and then calculate the result .. i managed to do all of that but i think i have two bugs in my program .. I mainly have two functions ... extract(Words), calculate( Words,0). extract will read from the file .. and then return a list of Words .. ex: [one,plus,three] .. now calculate will translate the value for these words into numbers and calculate .. i managed to do that also .. now the bugs are : i must stop reading and terminate if i encounter stop in the file .. so if Words was [stop] End. i tried the following ... execute :- extract(Words), Words = [stop],nl,print('Terminating ...'),!. execute :- extract(Words), calculate( Words,0). it successfully terminates .. but it skips lines as i extract more than once .. i have tried to do .. execute :- extract(Words), Words \= [stop],execute(Words). execute(Words) :- calculate( Words,0). if the Words is not stop .. then go and calculate .. but its not working !! i appreciate the help .. Thank You

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  • Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

    - by James
    Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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  • How long is the time frame between context switches on Windows?

    - by mattcodes
    Reading CLR via C# 2.0 (I dont have 3.0 with me at the moment) Is this still the case: If there is only one CPU in a computer, only one thread can run at any one time. Windows has to keep track of the thread objects, and every so often, Windows has to decide which thread to schedule next to go to the CPU. This is additional code that has to execute once every 20 milliseconds or so. When Windows makes a CPU stop executing one thread's code and start executing another thread's code, we call this a context switch. A context switch is fairly expensive because the operating system has to: So circa CLR via C# 2.0 lets say we are on Pentium 4 2.4ghz 1 core non-HT, XP. Every 20 milliseconds? Where a CLR thread or Java thread is mapped to an OS thread only a maximum of 50 threads per second may get a chance to to run? I've read that context switching is very fast in mircoseconds here on SO, but how often roughly (magnitude style guesses) will say a modest 5 year old server Windows 2003 Pentium Xeon single core give the OS the opportunity to context switch? 20ms in the right area? I dont need exact figures I just want to be sure that's in the right area, seems rather long to me.

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  • mootools event listener disappears after element.innerHTML is changed

    - by baiano
    I putting together a page that will display a set of stored values. I am using mootools and AJAX calls to update the values without needing to refresh the page each time the user selects a new item from the drop down menus. the HTML each line looks something like: <div class="selections"> <input class="checkbox selector" type="checkbox" CHECKED /> <span class="b_name"> <select class="b_n selector"> <!-- options --> </select> </span> <span class="b_level"> <select class="b_l selector"> <!-- options --> </select> </span> <span class="values"> <!-- the values --> </span> In the head I have set up an event listener like: $$('.selector').addEvent('change', function(event){changeValues(this);}); My problem is that when the "b_name" select changes I have to update the list of options in the "b_level" select. I accomplish that by getting a list of the possible options from my database through a php script on another page and replacing "b_level"'s innerHTML. Once I do that, the event listener attached to "b_l selector" no longer works. I tried to resolve this issue by explicitly attaching an event listener to "b_l selector" each time "b_name" changes like so: row.getElement('.b_l').addEvent('change', function(event){changeValues(row.getElement('.b_l'));}); where 'row' is the html element 'div.selections'. It still isn't working and I have no idea what's going on. Can anyone offer a suggestion as to how I can get this resolved? or perhaps a better way to do what I'm doing. Thanks

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  • Use string to store statement (or part of a statement), and then add it to the code

    - by Dean
    I use multidimensional arrays to store product attributes (well Virtuemart does, to be precise). When I tried to echo the sub-arrays value, if the sub-array did not exist PHP threw: Fatal error: Cannot use string offset as an array To get around this, I attempted to create a function to check on every array level if it is an actual array, and if it is empty (when trying on the whole thing at once such as: is_array($array['level1']['level2']['level3']), I got the same error if level1 or level2 are not actual arrays). This is the function ($array contains the array to check, $array_levels is an array containing the names of the sub-arrays, in the order they should apper): function check_md_array($array,$array_levels){ if(is_array($array)){ $dimension = null; //This will store the dimensions string foreach($array_levels as $level){ $dimension .= "['" . $level . "']"; //Add the current dimension to the dimensions string if(!is_array($array/* THE CONTENT OF $dimension SHOULD BE INSERTED HERE*/)){ return false; } } return true; } } How can I take the string contained in $dimensions, and insert it into the code, to be part of the statement?

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  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

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  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

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  • Return lines in input code causing gaps/whitespace between elements in output?

    - by Jenny Zhang
    I am trying to put images next to each other on a webpage. Here is my HTML: <img class="pt" src="Yellow Tulip.jpg" title="Yellow Tulip" alt="Yellow Tulip" /> <img class="pt" src="Pink Tulip.jpg" title="Pink Tulip" alt="Pink Tulip" /> <img class="pt" src="Purple Tulip.jpg" title="Purple Tulip" alt="Purple Tulip" /> However, on my webpage, this shows a gap between each image. I've noticed that once I remove the return line that makes the elements separate and readable and instead just put all the elements on one line, the gaps go away. <img class="pt" src="Yellow Tulip.jpg" title="Yellow Tulip" alt="Yellow Tulip" /><img class="pt" src="Pink Tulip.jpg" title="Pink Tulip" alt="Pink Tulip" /><img class="pt" src="Purple Tulip.jpg" title="Purple Tulip" alt="Purple Tulip" /> Is there anyway I can achieve the output of the latter but still have the code/input look like the former? I really like the readability that the return lines (enter spaces) bring to the code, but I don't want the whitespace it creates on the actual page. If someone could explain why this is and/or how to fix it, I'd be really grateful! :)

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