Search Results

Search found 14548 results on 582 pages for 'const reference'.

Page 491/582 | < Previous Page | 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498  | Next Page >

  • Mouse management in JavaScript games

    - by Jakob
    Im using JavaScript, the HTML5 canvas-element and WebGL to make a simple 3D-game in first person view for fun. Ideally, I would like to control my movement by using the keyboard to move and the mouse to look around, like you usually do in FPS-games. As you probably understand, there are some limits to this in the browser, since the mouse cant be captured: When using the onmousemove event, no further movement will be detected when the mouse pointer reaches the border of my screen (which means that I wont be able to run in a circle for example) Seeing the mouse move across the screen is not the end of the world, but it is a little annoying From what I know, it's impossible to hide the mouse as well as setting it's position in JavaScript. Hence, my question is this: If we cant to those things, what can we do in order to get close to the desktop gaming experience when it comes to the mouse in the browser? And I mean right now, using current APIs. Not "what could be changed in some standard to make life easier". Also, I realize that I could use the keyboard to look around, but then we're back in 1995 when Quake were actually played like that. And of course I know that it would be easier to write a desktop application or use Flash at least, but Im trying to push JavaScript's limits here. Apart from those things, what are your suggestions? Any kind of reference, existing game, crazy idea, hack or even browser specific solution would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • how can access public properties of MasterPage from external Class ?

    - by eugeneK
    Why i can't access MasterPage's public property (MessagePlaceholder) from other Class (Errors) ? Error compiler gives me is "Error 1 The type or namespace name 'MyMasterPage' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?)" my master page code behind using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; public partial class MyMasterPage : System.Web.UI.MasterPage { public string MessagePlaceholder { get { return messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml; } set { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = value; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { messagePlaceholder.InnerHtml = Errors.getMessage(); } } } my Errors Class public static string getMessage() { HttpContext c = HttpContext.Current; string messageType = ""; if (c.Session["errorMessage"] != null) { messageType = "errorMessage"; } else if (c.Session["successMessage"] != null) { messageType = "successMessage"; } if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(messageType)) { StringBuilder userMessageSb = new StringBuilder(); userMessageSb.Append(string.Format("<div id=\"{0}\" title=\"{1}\">{2}</div>", messageType, messageType.Replace("Message",string.Empty), c.Session[messageType])); // fix so message will not re-appear c.Session.Remove(messageType); messageType = userMessageSb.ToString(); } return messageType; } public static void setSuccess(string successMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["successMessage"] = successMessage; } public static void setError(string errorMessage, bool isRedirect) { HttpContext.Current.Session["errorMessage"] = errorMessage; if (!isRedirect) { ((HttpContext.Current.CurrentHandler as System.Web.UI.Page).Master as MyMasterPage).MessagePlaceholder = getMessage(); } } this is how i set error if (true) { Errors.setError("this is an error demo", false); return; } or with redirect after error if (true) { Errors.setError("yet another error", true); Response.Redirect("~/error.aspx"); }

    Read the article

  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Updating UI objects in windows forms

    - by P a u l
    Pre .net I was using MFC, ON_UPDATE_COMMAND_UI, and the CCmdUI class to update the state of my windows UI. From the older MFC/Win32 reference: Typically, menu items and toolbar buttons have more than one state. For example, a menu item is grayed (dimmed) if it is unavailable in the present context. Menu items can also be checked or unchecked. A toolbar button can also be disabled if unavailable, or it can be checked. Who updates the state of these items as program conditions change? Logically, if a menu item generates a command that is handled by, say, a document, it makes sense to have the document update the menu item. The document probably contains the information on which the update is based. If a command has multiple user-interface objects (perhaps a menu item and a toolbar button), both are routed to the same handler function. This encapsulates your user-interface update code for all of the equivalent user-interface objects in a single place. The framework provides a convenient interface for automatically updating user-interface objects. You can choose to do the updating in some other way, but the interface provided is efficient and easy to use. What is the guidance for .net Windows Forms? I am using an Application.Idle handler in the main form but am not sure this is the best way to do this. About the time I put all my UI updates in the Idle event handler my app started to show some performance problems, and I don't have the metrics to track this down yet. Not sure if it's related.

    Read the article

  • Getting a gestureoverlayview

    - by Codejoy
    I have been using some nice tutorials on drawing graphics on my android. I wanted to also add in the cool gesture demo found here: http://developer.android.com/resources/articles/gestures.html That takes these lines of code: GestureOverlayView gestures = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures); gestures.addOnGesturePerformedListener(this); This is fine and dandy yet I realize in my demo i'm trying to build using code from "Playing with Graphics in Android". The demos make sense, everything makes sense but I found out by using: setContentView(new Panel(this)); as is required by the Playing With Graphics tutorials, then the findViewById seems to no longer be valid and returns null. At first I was about to post a stupider question as to why this is happening, a quick test of playing with the setContentView made me realize the cause of findViewById returning null, I just do not know how to remedy this issue. Whats the key I am missing here? I realize that the new Panel is doinking some reference up but I am not sure how to make the connection here. The: R.id.gestures is defined right int he main.xml as: (just like the tutorial) <android.gesture.GestureOverlayView android:id="@+id/gestures" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="0dip" android:layout_weight="1.0" /> So I did confirm the setContentView(new Panel(this)) is causing the issue. So I know the issue is that I have to figure out how to add the android.gesture.GestureOverlayView to the panel class somehow, I am just not sure how to go about this. After fighting with this I generally know what I need to do just now how to do it. I think I need either the equivalent of creating a panel in that main.xml OR figuring out how to build whats in main.xml for the gestures in code. I am close because I did this: GestureOverlayView gestures = new GestureOverlayView(this); which gets me a non null gestures now, unfortunately since I am not telling it to fill Parent anywhere I don't think its really showing up, so I am trying hard to figure out layout pa rams. Am I even on the right track?

    Read the article

  • Designing a chain of states

    - by devoured elysium
    I want to model a kind of FSM(Finite State Machine). I have a sequence of states (let's say, from StateA to StateZ). This sequence is called a Chain and is implemented internally as a List. I will add states by the order I want them to run. My purpose is to be able to make a sequence of actions in my computer (for example, mouse clicks). (I know this has been done a zillion times). So a state is defined as a: boolean Precondition() <- Checks to see if for this state, some condition is true. For example, if I want to click in the Record button of a program, in this method I would check if the program's process is running or not. If it is, go to the next state in the chain list, otherwise, go to what was defined as the fail state (generally is the first state of them all). IState GetNextState() <- Returns the next state to evaluate. If Precondition() was sucessful, it should yield the next state in the chain otherwise it should yield the fail state. Run() Simply checks the Precondition() and sets the internal data so GetNextState() works as expected. So, a naive approach to this would be something like this: Chain chain = new Chain(); //chain.AddState(new State(Precondition, FailState, NextState) <- Method structure chain.AddState(new State(new WinampIsOpenCondition(), null, new <problem here, I want to referr to a state that still wasn't defined!>); The big problem is that I want to make a reference to a State that at this point still wasn't defined. I could circumvent the problem by using strings when refrering to states and using an internal hashtable, but isn't there a clearer alternative? I could just pass only the pre-condition and failure states in the constructor, having the chain just before execution put in each state the correct next state in a public property but that seems kind of awkward.

    Read the article

  • return Queryable<T> or List<T> in a Repository<T>

    - by Danny Chen
    Currently I'm building an windows application using sqlite. In the data base there is a table say User, and in my code there is a Repository<User> and a UserManager. I think it's a very common design. In the repository there is a List method: //Repository<User> class public List<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } This brings a problem, if I want to do something complex in UserManager.cs: //UserManager.cs public List<User> ListUsersWithBankAccounts() { var userRep = new UserRepository(); var bankRep = new BankAccountRepository(); var result = //do something complex, say "I want the users live in NY //and have at least two bank accounts in the system } You can see, returning List<User> brings performance issue, becuase the query is executed earlier than expected. Now I need to change it to something like a IQueryable<T>: //Repository<User> class public TableQuery<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } TableQuery<T> is part of the sqlite driver, which is almost equals to IQueryable<T> in EF, which provides a query and won't execute it immediately. But now the problem is: in UserManager.cs, it doesn't know what is a TableQuery<T>, I need to add new reference and import namespaces like using SQLite.Query in the business layer project. It really brings bad code feeling. Why should my business layer know the details of the database? why should the business layer know what's SQLite? What's the correct design then?

    Read the article

  • T4 trouble compiling transformation

    - by John Leidegren
    I can't figure this one out. Why doesn't T4 locate the IEnumerable type? I'm using Visual Studio 2010. And I just hope someone knows why? <#@ template debug="true" hostspecific="false" language="C#" #> <#@ assembly name="System.Data, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" #> <#@ import namespace="System" #> <#@ import namespace="System.Data" #> <#@ import namespace="System.Data.SqlClient" #> <#@ output extension=".cs" #> public static class Tables { <# var q = @" SELECT tbl.name 'table', col.name 'column' FROM sys.tables tbl INNER JOIN sys.columns col ON col.object_id = tbl.object_id "; // var source = Execute(q); #> } <#+ static IEnumerable Execute(string cmdText) { using (var conn = new SqlConnection(@"Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=t4build;Integrated Security=True;")) { conn.Open(); var cmd = new SqlCommand(cmdText, conn); using (var reader = cmd.ExecuteReader()) { while (reader.Read()) { } } } } #> Error 2 Compiling transformation: The type or namespace name 'IEnumerable' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) c:\Projects\T4BuildApp\T4BuildApp\TextTemplate1.tt 26 9

    Read the article

  • Using static variables for Strings

    - by Vivart
    below content is taken from Best practice: Writing efficient code but i didn't understand why private static String x = "example"; faster than private static final String x ="example"; Can anybody explain this. Using static variables for Strings When you define static fields (also called class fields) of type String, you can increase application speed by using static variables (not final) instead of constants (final). The opposite is true for primitive data types, such as int. For example, you might create a String object as follows: private static final String x = "example"; For this static constant (denoted by the final keyword), each time that you use the constant, a temporary String instance is created. The compiler eliminates "x" and replaces it with the string "example" in the bytecode, so that the BlackBerry® Java® Virtual Machine performs a hash table lookup each time that you reference "x". In contrast, for a static variable (no final keyword), the String is created once. The BlackBerry JVM performs the hash table lookup only when it initializes "x", so access is faster. private static String x = "example"; You can use public constants (that is, final fields), but you must mark variables as private.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

    - by user251660
    We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • public class ImageHandler : IHttpHandler

    - by Ken
    cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", new system.Guid (imageid)); What using System reference would this require? Here is the handler: using System; using System.Collections.Specialized; using System.Web; using System.Web.Configuration; using System.Web.Security; using System.Globalization; using System.Configuration; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Data; using System.IO; using System.Web.Profile; using System.Drawing; public class ImageHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string imageid; if (context.Request.QueryString["id"] != null) imageid = (context.Request.QueryString["id"]); else throw new ArgumentException("No parameter specified"); context.Response.ContentType = "image/jpeg"; Stream strm = ShowProfileImage(imageid.ToString()); byte[] buffer = new byte[8192]; int byteSeq = strm.Read(buffer, 0, 8192); while (byteSeq > 0) { context.Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, byteSeq); byteSeq = strm.Read(buffer, 0, 8192); } //context.Response.BinaryWrite(buffer); } public Stream ShowProfileImage(String imageid) { string conn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(conn); string sql = "SELECT image FROM Profile WHERE UserId = @id"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, connection); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", new system.Guid (imageid));//Failing Here!!!! connection.Open(); object img = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); try { return new MemoryStream((byte[])img); } catch { return null; } finally { connection.Close(); } } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } }

    Read the article

  • Eclipse BIRT - Unnecessary inline style with external CSS when rendering HTML

    - by Etienne
    Hello! I am designing a report using external CSS with BIRT 2.5. When BIRT renders the html report, it creates copies of each external style to inline styles (name style_x) in the resulting html. The report.design contains: <list-property name="cssStyleSheets"> <structure> <property name="fileName">… mycss.css</property> <property name="externalCssURI"> http://.../mycss.css </property> </structure> </list-property> The resulting html contains: <style type="text/css"> .style_0 {…} .style_1 {…} …. </style> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="http://.../mycss.css"></link> For each reference of my styles, the rendered html elements use both styles usually like this: <div class="style_x myclass" …. > …. </div> Is there any way to get rid of the useless inline styles when rendering html?

    Read the article

  • Batch insert mode with hibernate and oracle: seems to be dropping back to slow mode silently

    - by Chris
    I'm trying to get a batch insert working with Hibernate into Oracle, according to what i've read here: http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/core/3.3/reference/en/html/batch.html , but with my benchmarking it doesn't seem any faster than before. Can anyone suggest a way to prove whether hibernate is using batch mode or not? I hear that there are numerous reasons why it may silently drop into normal mode (eg associations and generated ids) so is there some way to find out why it has gone non-batch? My hibernate.cfg.xml contains this line which i believe is all i need to enable batch mode: <property name="jdbc.batch_size">50</property> My insert code looks like this: List<LogEntry> entries = ..a list of 100 LogEntry data classes... Session sess = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); for(LogEntry e : entries) { sess.save(e); } sess.flush(); sess.clear(); My 'logentry' class has no associations, the only interesting field is the id: @Entity @Table(name="log_entries") public class LogEntry { @Id @GeneratedValue public Long id; ..other fields - strings and ints... However, since it is oracle, i believe the @GeneratedValue will use the sequence generator. And i believe that only the 'identity' generator will stop bulk inserts. So if anyone can explain why it isn't running in batch mode, or how i can find out for sure if it is or isn't in batch mode, or find out why hibernate is silently dropping back to slow mode, i'd be most grateful. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Web Control added in .master control type not found in child page

    - by turtle
    I have a Web Site project, and within it I have a user Web Control defined in an ascx file. The control is added to the Site.Master, and it shows up correctly on the page and everything is fine. I need to override some of the control's fields on one of the pages that derive from Site.Master. // In OnLoad: MyControlName control = (MyControlName) Page.Master.GetBaseMasterPage().FindControl("controlID")); The issue is that MyControlName doesn't register as a valid Type on the child page. If I add a second instance of the control to the child page directly, the above works as needed, but if the control isn't placed directly on the page, and instead is only defined in the master page, the type is undefined. The control is not in a namespace, and is defined within the project, so I don't know why it is having such an issue location the appropriate type. If I put a breakpoint in the OnLoad, the type listed for the control is ASP.my_control_name_ascx, but using that does not work either. Why can't the child class reference the correct type? Can I fix this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Use a foreign key mapping to get data from the other table using Python and SQLAlchemy.

    - by Az
    Hmm, the title was harder to formulate than I thought. Basically, I've got these simple classes mapped to tables, using SQLAlchemy. I know they're missing a few items but those aren't essential for highlighting the problem. class Customer(object): def __init__(self, uid, name, email): self.uid = uid self.name = name self.email = email def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Cust: %s, Name: %s (Email: %s)" %(self.uid, self.name, self.email) The above is basically a simple customer with an id, name and an email address. class Order(object): def __init__(self, item_id, item_name, customer): self.item_id = item_id self.item_name = item_name self.customer = None def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Item ID %s: %s, has been ordered by customer no. %s" %(self.item_id, self.item_name, self.customer) This is the Orders class that just holds the order information: an id, a name and a reference to a customer. It's initialised to None to indicate that this item doesn't have a customer yet. The code's job will assign the item a customer. The following code maps these classes to respective database tables. # SQLAlchemy database transmutation engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() customers_table = Table('customers', metadata, Column('uid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('email', String) ) orders_table = Table('orders', metadata, Column('item_id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('item_name', String), Column('customer', Integer, ForeignKey('customers.uid')) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Customer, customers_table) mapper(Orders, orders_table) Now if I do something like: for order in session.query(Order): print order I can get a list of orders in this form: Item ID 1001: MX4000 Laser Mouse, has been ordered by customer no. 12 What I want to do is find out customer 12's name and email address (which is why I used the ForeignKey into the Customer table). How would I go about it?

    Read the article

  • What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

    - by Eric Leroy
    I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

    Read the article

  • Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

    - by ropstah
    Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

    Read the article

  • Multiple generic types in one container

    - by Lirik
    I was looking at the answer of this question regarding multiple generic types in one container and I can't really get it to work: the properties of the Metadata class are not visible, since the abstract class doesn't have them. Here is a slightly modified version of the code in the original question: public abstract class Metadata { } public class Metadata<T> : Metadata { // ... some other meta data public T Function{ get; set; } } List<Metadata> metadataObjects; metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<int,double>>()); metadataObjects.Add(new Metadata<Func<double,int>>()); foreach( Metadata md in metadataObjects) { var tmp = md.Function; // <-- Error: does not contain a definition for Function } The exact error is: error CS1061: 'Metadata' does not contain a definition for 'Function' and no extension method 'Function' accepting a first argument of type 'Metadata' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I believe it's because the abstract class does not define the property Function, thus the whole effort is completely useless. Is there a way that we can get the properties?

    Read the article

  • Dictionaries with more than one key per value in Python

    - by nickname
    I am attempting to create a nice interface to access a data set where each value has several possible keys. For example, suppose that I have both a number and a name for each value in the data set. I want to be able to access each value using either the number OR the name. I have considered several possible implementations: Using two separate dictionaries, one for the data values organized by number, and one for the data values organized by name. Simply assigning two keys to the same value in a dictionary. Creating dictionaries mapping each name to the corresponding number, and vice versa Attempting to create a hash function that maps each name to a number, etc. (related to the above) Creating an object to encapsulate all three pieces of data, then using one key to map dictionary keys to the objects and simply searching the dictionary to map the other key to the object. None of these seem ideal. The first seems ugly and unmaintainable. The second also seems fragile. The third/fourth seem plausible, but seem to require either much manual specification or an overly complex implementation. Finally, the fifth loses constant-time performance for one of the lookups. In C/C++, I believe that I would use pointers to reference the same piece of data from different keys. I know that the problem is rather similar to a database lookup problem by a non-key column, however, I would like (if possible), to maintain the approximate O(1) performance of Python dictionaries. What is the most Pythonic way to achieve this data structure?

    Read the article

  • Square Brackets in Python Regular Expressions (re.sub)

    - by user1479984
    I'm migrating wiki pages from the FlexWiki engine to the FOSwiki engine using Python regular expressions to handle the differences between the two engines' markup languages. The FlexWiki markup and the FOSwiki markup, for reference. Most of the conversion works very well, except when I try to convert the renamed links. Both wikis support renamed links in their markup. For example, Flexwiki uses: "Link To Wikipedia":[http://www.wikipedia.org/] FOSwiki uses: [[http://www.wikipedia.org/][Link To Wikipedia]] both of which produce something that looks like I'm using the regular expression renameLink = re.compile ("\"(?P<linkName>[^\"]+)\":\[(?P<linkTarget>[^\[\]]+)\]") to parse out the link elements from the FlexWiki markup, which after running through something like "Link Name":[LinkTarget] is reliably producing groups <linkName> = Link Name <linkTarget = LinkTarget My issue occurs when I try to use re.sub to insert the parsed content into the FOSwiki markup. My experience with regular expressions isn't anything to write home about, but I'm under the impression that, given the groups <linkName> = Link Name <linkTarget = LinkTarget a line like line = renameLink.sub ( "[[\g<linkTarget>][\g<linkName>]]" , line ) should produce [[LinkTarget][Link Name]] However, in the output to the text files I'm getting [[LinkTarget [[Link Name]] which breaks the renamed links. After a little bit of fiddling I managed a workaround, where line = renameLink.sub ( "[[\g<linkTarget>][ [\g<linkName>]]" , line ) produces [[LinkTarget][ [[Link Name]] which, when displayed in FOSwiki looks like <[[Link Name> <--- Which WORKS, but isn't very pretty. I've also tried line = renameLink.sub ( "[[\g<linkTarget>]" + "[\g<linkName>]]" , line ) which is producing [[linkTarget [[linkName]] There are probably thousands of instances of these renamed links in the pages I'm trying to convert, so fixing it by hand isn't any good. For the record I've run the script under Python 2.5.4 and Python 2.7.3, and gotten the same results. Am I missing something really obvious with the syntax? Or is there an easy workaround?

    Read the article

  • Phonegap Android application exiting - but not really - when home button is pressed

    - by Lucas T
    I have created an Phonegap 1.5/Android application. My client reports that, when he leaves the app using the Home button, and then relaunches it using the app icon, the app relaunches from the start instead of resuming. However, when he holds the home button, the app appears in the running apps, and when he accesses the app through this menu, the app resumes in the expected way. I thought this could be linked to the app being automatically closed by the OS due to a lack of memory, but if that was the case the app shouldn't appear in the running apps. I could not reproduce the bug on my Sony Ericsson XPERIA with Android 2.3.4, the client has experienced this behaviour on a Motorola Defy and on another phone (i'll add the reference of the other phone and the OS versions as soon as I get them). The initialization process of the app is declared this way : window.addEventListener('load', function(){ document.addEventListener('deviceready', _onDeviceReady, false); }, false); Could this be fixed by attaching the processes to other events (although I doubt it, the app really seems to be relaunched from the start) ? Is there a declaration to make in the Android Manifest to prevent this behavior ? Is that a known bug in some Android phones/versions ?

    Read the article

  • UIDocumentInteractionController & ARC: [UIPopoverController dealloc] reached while popover is still visible

    - by muffel
    This issue or similar issues have been discussed here before, but I didn't find any working solution for me. I am using the following code to display a UIDocumentInteractionController on an ARC-enabled iOS 7 project: - (void) exportDoc{ // [...] docController = [UIDocumentInteractionController interactionControllerWithURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:path]]; docController.delegate = self; [docController presentOpenInMenuFromBarButtonItem:mainMenuButton animated:YES]; } First I didn't want to create a property that holds the controller reference, but as many people said that there are not alternatives to it. It is defined as @property (strong) UIDocumentInteractionController* docController; exportDoc is run in the main thread using NSOperationQueue. Whenever it is executed, I get the following error message: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSGenericException', reason: '-[UIPopoverController dealloc] reached while popover is still visible.' This is what the backtrace says: (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c97d9, 0x000000019a23c1c0 libobjc.A.dylibobjc_exception_throw, queue = 'com.apple.main-thread', stop reason = breakpoint 2.1 frame #0: 0x000000019a23c1c0 libobjc.A.dylibobjc_exception_throw frame #1: 0x000000018d982e90 CoreFoundation+[NSException raise:format:] + 128 frame #2: 0x0000000190bc348c UIKit-[UIPopoverController dealloc] + 96 frame #3: 0x0000000190e18fc8 UIKit-[UIDocumentInteractionController dealloc] + 168 frame #4: 0x000000019a255474 libobjc.A.dylib(anonymous namespace)::AutoreleasePoolPage::pop(void*) + 524 frame #5: 0x000000018d881988 CoreFoundation_CFAutoreleasePoolPop + 28 frame #6: 0x000000018e42cb18 Foundation-[NSOperationInternal _start:] + 892 frame #7: 0x000000018e4eea38 Foundation__NSOQSchedule_f + 76 frame #8: 0x000000019a813fd4 libdispatch.dylib_dispatch_client_callout + 16 frame #9: 0x000000019a8171dc libdispatch.dylib_dispatch_main_queue_callback_4CF + 336 frame #10: 0x000000018d942c2c CoreFoundation__CFRUNLOOP_IS_SERVICING_THE_MAIN_DISPATCH_QUEUE + 12 frame #11: 0x000000018d940f6c CoreFoundation__CFRunLoopRun + 1452 frame #12: 0x000000018d881c20 CoreFoundationCFRunLoopRunSpecific + 452 frame #13: 0x0000000193511c0c GraphicsServicesGSEventRunModal + 168 frame #14: 0x00000001909b2fdc UIKitUIApplicationMain + 1156 * frame #15: 0x000000010000947c MyApplicationmain(argc=1, argv=0x000000016fdfbc80) + 108 at main.m:16 frame #16: 0x000000019a82faa0 libdyld.dylibstart + 4 As far as I understand the autoreleasepool just releases the controller. Shouldn't this be prevented by using a strong property just as I did? Do you have any idea what the problem can be and how I can solve it?

    Read the article

  • Log session and session changes of a asp.net web user

    - by Johan Wikström
    This is going to be a quite broad question, and any suggestions, examples, links are very welcome! I'm looking for a good way to log my users session, and actions on the site up to a certain point. The site in question is a site for doing bookings. The users start with doing a search, doing a few steps of data gathering and selections and end up with a booking. So what I need to implement is some kind of logging of the current session variables at each step the user takes. And perhaps some other valid information. Logging should preferably be done to the a database. At the end i would like to associate all these session with a booking reference. The goal is to later if something goes wrong with the booking or we need to investigate a situation have all information we need. I understand log4net is a popular choice for logging, and used it a bit myself for simple purposes, but can not find any good examples regarding my situation. This should be a common situation, i'm curious how others do it.

    Read the article

  • Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

    Read the article

  • Best practice for managing changes to 3rd party open source libraries?

    - by Jeff Knecht
    On a recent project, I had to modify an open source library to address a functional deficiency. I followed the SVN best practice of creating a "vendor source" repository and made my changes there. I also submitted the patch to the mailing list of that project. Unfortunately, the project only has a couple of maintainers and they are very slow to commit updates. At some point, I expect the library to be updated, and I expect that my project will want to use the upgraded library. But now I have a potential problem... I don't know whether my patch will have been applied to this future release of the 3rd party library. I also don't know whether my patch will even still be compatible with the internal implementation of the upgraded components. And in all likelihood, someone else will be maintaining my project by that point. Should I name the library in a special way so it is clear that we made special modifications (eg. commons-lang-2.x-for-my-project.jar)? Should I just document the patch and reference the SVN location and a link to the mailing list item in a README? No option that I can think of seems to be fool-proof in an upgrade scenario. What is the best practice for this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 487 488 489 490 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498  | Next Page >