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• What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

  - by Eric Leroy

  I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

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• WPF & Linq To SQL binding ComboBox to foreign key

  - by ZeroDelta

  I'm having trouble binding a ComboBox to a foreign key in WPF using Linq To SQL. It works fine when displaying records, but if I change the selection on the ComboBox, that change does not seem to affect the property to which it is bound. My SQL Server Compact file has three tables: Players (PK is PlayerID), Events (PK is EventID), and Matches (PK is MatchID). Matches has FKs for the the other two, so that a match is associated with a player and an event. My window for editing a match uses a ComboBox to select the Event, and the ItemsSource is set to the result of a LINQ query to pull all of the Events. And of course the user should be able to select the Event based on EventName, not EventID. Here's the XAML: <ComboBox x:Name="cboEvent" DisplayMemberPath="EventName" SelectedValuePath="EventID" SelectedValue="{Binding Path=EventID, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> And some code-behind from the Loaded event handler: var evt = from ev in db.Events orderby ev.EventName select ev; cboEvent.ItemsSource = evt.ToList(); var mtch = from m in db.Matches where m.PlayerID == ((Player)playerView.CurrentItem).PlayerID select m; matchView = (CollectionView)CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(mtch); this.DataContext = matchView; When displaying matches, this works fine--I can navigate from one match to the next and the EventName is shown correctly. However, if I select a new Event via this ComboBox, the CurrentItem of the CollectionView doesn't seem to change. I feel like I'm missing something stupid! Note: the Player is selected via a ListBox, and that selection filters the matches displayed--this seems to be working fine, so I didn't include that code. That is the reason for the "PlayerID" reference in the LINQ query

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• Using static variables for Strings

  - by Vivart

  below content is taken from Best practice: Writing efficient code but i didn't understand why private static String x = "example"; faster than private static final String x ="example"; Can anybody explain this. Using static variables for Strings When you define static fields (also called class fields) of type String, you can increase application speed by using static variables (not final) instead of constants (final). The opposite is true for primitive data types, such as int. For example, you might create a String object as follows: private static final String x = "example"; For this static constant (denoted by the final keyword), each time that you use the constant, a temporary String instance is created. The compiler eliminates "x" and replaces it with the string "example" in the bytecode, so that the BlackBerry® Java® Virtual Machine performs a hash table lookup each time that you reference "x". In contrast, for a static variable (no final keyword), the String is created once. The BlackBerry JVM performs the hash table lookup only when it initializes "x", so access is faster. private static String x = "example"; You can use public constants (that is, final fields), but you must mark variables as private.

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• Batch insert mode with hibernate and oracle: seems to be dropping back to slow mode silently

  - by Chris

  I'm trying to get a batch insert working with Hibernate into Oracle, according to what i've read here: http://docs.jboss.org/hibernate/core/3.3/reference/en/html/batch.html , but with my benchmarking it doesn't seem any faster than before. Can anyone suggest a way to prove whether hibernate is using batch mode or not? I hear that there are numerous reasons why it may silently drop into normal mode (eg associations and generated ids) so is there some way to find out why it has gone non-batch? My hibernate.cfg.xml contains this line which i believe is all i need to enable batch mode: <property name="jdbc.batch_size">50</property> My insert code looks like this: List<LogEntry> entries = ..a list of 100 LogEntry data classes... Session sess = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); for(LogEntry e : entries) { sess.save(e); } sess.flush(); sess.clear(); My 'logentry' class has no associations, the only interesting field is the id: @Entity @Table(name="log_entries") public class LogEntry { @Id @GeneratedValue public Long id; ..other fields - strings and ints... However, since it is oracle, i believe the @GeneratedValue will use the sequence generator. And i believe that only the 'identity' generator will stop bulk inserts. So if anyone can explain why it isn't running in batch mode, or how i can find out for sure if it is or isn't in batch mode, or find out why hibernate is silently dropping back to slow mode, i'd be most grateful. Thanks

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• Magento layout related basic Questions ?

  - by user197992

  Here is what I think about Magento (plz correct me if I am wrong ) 1)Each module has its own layout.xml stored in /interface/theme/layouts/ folder. 2)Magento loads all these layouts for current theme and creates a big xml file. Now what I am confused at . a)If magento loads /default/default/ (interface & theme) then why all the templates & layouts are inside base/default/ ?? b)what if I create my module name “page” inside my namespace “Jason” i.e Jason_Page , now what will happen to blocks in layout files which are named c)Since all the layouts are loaded and merged into one big xml file , then what happen to all those reference blocks which have same name attribute and are inside “Default” handle tag ? e.g d)what is Local.xml layout for and its use ?? e)wats the relation ship between a module name foo , and its layout name foo.xml ? What will happen to layout.xml if two modules with same name exist in diff namespace ? Thanks in advance .

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• Doctrine: How to traverse from an entity to another 'linked' entity?

  - by ropstah

  I'm loading 3 different tables using a cross-join in Doctrine_RawSql. This brings me back the following object: User -> User class (doctrine base class) Settings -> DoctrineCollection of Setting User_Settings -> DoctrineCollection of User_Setting The object above is the result of a many-to-many relationship between User and Setting where User_Setting acts as a reference table. User_Setting also contains another field named value. This obviously contains the value of the corresponding Setting. All good so far, however the Settings and User_Settings properties of the returned User object are in no way linked to each other (apart from the setting_id field ofcourse). Is there any direct way to traverse directly from the Settings property to the corresponding User_Settings property? This is the corresponding query: $sets = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $sets->select('{us.*}, {s.*}, {uset.*}') ->from('(User us CROSS JOIN Setting s) LEFT JOIN User_Setting uset ON us.user_id = uset.user_id AND s.setting_id = uset.setting_id') ->addComponent('us', 'User us') ->addComponent('uset', 'us.User_Setting uset') ->addComponent('s', 'us.Setting s') ->where('s.category_id = ? AND us.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, 1)); $sets = $sets->execute();

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• Questions on Juval Lowy's IDesign C# Coding Standard

  - by Jan

  We are trying to use the IDesign C# Coding standard. Unfortunately, I found no comprehensive document to explain all the rules that it gives, and also his book does not always help. Here are the open questions that remain for me (from chapter 2, Coding Practices): No. 26: Avoid providing explicit values for enums unless they are integer powers of 2 No. 34: Always explicitly initialize an array of reference types using a for loop No. 50: Avoid events as interface members No. 52: Expose interfaces on class hierarchies No. 73: Do not define method-specific constraints in interfaces No. 74: Do not define constraints in delegates Here's what I think about those: I thought that providing explicit values would be especially useful when adding new enum members at a later point in time. If these members are added between other already existing members, I would provide explicit values to make sure the integer representation of existing members does not change. No idea why I would want to do this. I'd say this totally depends on the logic of my program. I see that there is alternative option of providing "Sink interfaces" (simply providing already all "OnXxxHappened" methods), but what is the reason to prefer one over the other? Unsure what he means here: Could this mean "When implementing an interface explicitly in a non-sealed class, consider providing the implementation in a protected virtual method that can be overridden"? (see Programming .NET Components 2nd Edition, end of chapter “Interfaces and Class Hierarchies”). I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on an interface? I suppose this is about providing a "where" clause when using generics, but why is this bad on a delegate?

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• How to Object Array to List

  - by Peter Black

  (C#) I have 2 classes. 1 is called Employee. The other is my "main". I am trying to take a list and assign each value in list to an array of Employee object. //Inside "Main" class int counter = NameList.Count; Employee[] employee = new Employee[counter]; for (int i = 0; i <= counter; i++) { employee[i].Name = NameList[i]; employee[i].EmpNumber = EmpNumList[i]; employee[i].DateOfHire = DOHList[i]; employee[i].Salary = SalaryList[i]; employee[i].JobDescription = JobDescList[i]; employee[i].Department = DeptList[i]; } This returns the error: An unhandled exception of type 'System.NullReferenceException' occurred in Pgm4.exe Additional information: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I think this means that I am not calling the list properly. Any help would be much appreciated. Thank you.

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• Run code before class instanciation in ActionScript 3

  - by soow.fr

  I need to run code in a class declaration before its instanciation. This would be especially useful to automatically register classes in a factory. See: // Main.as public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main() : void { var o : Object = Factory.make(42); } } // Factory.as public class Factory { private static var _factory : Array = new Array(); public static function registerClass(id : uint, c : Class) : void { _factory[id] = function () : Object { return new c(); }; } public static function make(id : uint) : Object { return _factory[id](); } } // Foo.as public class Foo { // Run this code before instanciating Foo! Factory.registerClass(42, Foo); } AFAIK, the JIT machine for the ActionScript language won't let me do that since no reference to Foo is made in the Main method. The Foo class being generated, I can't (and don't want to) register the classes in Main: I'd like to register all the exported classes in a specific package (or library). Ideally, this would be done through package introspection, which doesn't exist in ActionScript 3. Do you know any fix (or other solution) to my design issue?

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• public class ImageHandler : IHttpHandler

  - by Ken

  cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", new system.Guid (imageid)); What using System reference would this require? Here is the handler: using System; using System.Collections.Specialized; using System.Web; using System.Web.Configuration; using System.Web.Security; using System.Globalization; using System.Configuration; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Data; using System.IO; using System.Web.Profile; using System.Drawing; public class ImageHandler : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { string imageid; if (context.Request.QueryString["id"] != null) imageid = (context.Request.QueryString["id"]); else throw new ArgumentException("No parameter specified"); context.Response.ContentType = "image/jpeg"; Stream strm = ShowProfileImage(imageid.ToString()); byte[] buffer = new byte[8192]; int byteSeq = strm.Read(buffer, 0, 8192); while (byteSeq > 0) { context.Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, byteSeq); byteSeq = strm.Read(buffer, 0, 8192); } //context.Response.BinaryWrite(buffer); } public Stream ShowProfileImage(String imageid) { string conn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["MyConnectionString1"].ConnectionString; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(conn); string sql = "SELECT image FROM Profile WHERE UserId = @id"; SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, connection); cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@id", new system.Guid (imageid));//Failing Here!!!! connection.Open(); object img = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); try { return new MemoryStream((byte[])img); } catch { return null; } finally { connection.Close(); } } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } }

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• IIS 6.0 Rewrite rules for Wordpress (Forward slash not working and other things)

  - by DigitalBlade

  Hi, I am using Wordpress 3.0.4 on IIS 6.0 and Windows Server 2003, hosted by a company. I was having lots of issues using permalinks. I have fixed most, but now I have an issue with a forward-slash not being added to the address. This would be fine on most websites, but not on IIS for some reason. Specifically, if I go to "mysite.com/wp-admin" I can log-in and get to the dashboard, but as soon as I click anything there i am redirected to a broken link. For example: "mysite.com/post-new.php". If I add the slash at the end it's fine. So I tried to have a rewrite rule to automatically add the slash to such address: RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] But it still doesn't work. For your reference, here's the complete file: [ISAPI_Rewrite] RewriteBase / RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # For special WordPress folders (e.g. theme, admin, etc.) RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] RewriteRule /wp-(.*) /wp-$1 [L] RewriteRule /(.*\.(?:jpg|jpeg|gif|css|txt|xml|html|png|js)) /$1 [I,L] # Rules to ensure that normal content gets through RewriteRule /images/(.*) /images/$1 [L] RewriteRule /favicon.ico /favicon.ico [L] RewriteRule /robots.txt /robots.txt [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin/(.*) /phpmyadmin/$1 [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin /phpmyadmin/ [L] # For all WordPress pages RewriteRule ^/$ /index.php [L] RewriteRule /(.*) /index.php/$1 [L] Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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• Click behaviour - Difference in IE and FF ?!

  - by OlliD

  Hey folks, i just came to the conclusion that a project i am currently working on might have a "logical" error in functionality. Currently I'am using server technology with PHP/MySQL and JQuery. Within the page there's a normal link reference with tag <a href="contentpage?page=xxx">next step</a> The pain point now seems to be the given jquery click event on the same element. The intension was to save the (current) content of the page (- form elements) via another php script using the php session command. For any reason, IE can handle the click event of Jquery right before executing the standard html command, that reloads the current page again with the new page parameter. By using FF the behaviour is different. I assume, that FF first execute the html command and afterwards execute the javascript code which handles the click event. Therefore the resultset here is wrong respectivly empty. My question now is whether you made the same experience and how you handled / wordarrounded this problem. I'd be thankful fur any of your tips or further feedback. Maybe you also have a solution on how to rethink about the current architecture. Regards, Oliver

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• ASP.NET 2.0 in Virtual Trying to Use SQL State Server

  - by user251660

  We have IIS 6 running on a W2003 Server. The root web site is running a v1.1 site. Under this site we have a virtual running a v2.0 site (with a separate application pool). The web.config for the root site is using SQL as its state server and has a 1.1 SQL state server database installed. The 2.0 virtual web.config does not need state and its web.config has no reference to a state server. When we attempt to call the virtual we receive this error message. "Unable to use SQL Server because ASP.NET version 2.0 Session State is not installed on the SQL server. Please install ASP.NET Session State SQL Server version 2.0 or above. This issue is currently only occurring on one web server. The rest are able to run the 2.0 virtual application. I also notice that if we call the 2.0 virtual with the IP address it does not generate the error, however if we call it with the host header name it generates the error (this behavior is only on the 1 web server with the error, all the others can be called with either the ip or host header without error). As an additional note the root and virtual are running with SSL. My theory is that the virtual 2.0 application is inheriting the 1.1 web.config state server entry from the root and when it looks at the state server it sees it as a 1.1 version and reports the error that it needs a 2.0 state server. I however cannot understand why the other servers are not behaving in this matter. All of the servers are on the same OS service pack as well as the same version of .net framework. Any ideas? Thanks

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• Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

  - by rsteckly

  Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

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• Dimension Reduction in Categorical Data with missing values

  - by user227290

  I have a regression model in which the dependent variable is continuous but ninety percent of the independent variables are categorical(both ordered and unordered) and around thirty percent of the records have missing values(to make matters worse they are missing randomly without any pattern, that is, more that forty five percent of the data hava at least one missing value). There is no a priori theory to choose the specification of the model so one of the key tasks is dimension reduction before running the regression. While I am aware of several methods for dimension reduction for continuous variables I am not aware of a similar statical literature for categorical data (except, perhaps, as a part of correspondence analysis which is basically a variation of principal component analysis on frequency table). Let me also add that the dataset is of moderate size 500000 observations with 200 variables. I have two questions. Is there a good statistical reference out there for dimension reduction for categorical data along with robust imputation (I think the first issue is imputation and then dimension reduction)? This is linked to implementation of above problem. I have used R extensively earlier and tend to use transcan and impute function heavily for continuous variables and use a variation of tree method to impute categorical values. I have a working knowledge of Python so if something is nice out there for this purpose then I will use it. Any implementation pointers in python or R will be of great help. Thank you.

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• Linq - reuse expression on child property

  - by user175528

  Not sure if what I am trying is possible or not, but I'd like to reuse a linq expression on an objects parent property. With the given classes: class Parent { int Id { get; set; } IList<Child> Children { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } class Child{ int Id { get; set; } Parent Dad { get; set; } string Name { get; set; } } If i then have a helper Expression<Func<Parent,bool> ParentQuery() { Expression<Func<Parent,bool> q = p => p.Name=="foo"; } I then want to use this when querying data out for a child, along the lines of: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Child.Where(c => c.Name=="bar" && c.Dad.Where(ParentQuery)); } I know I can do that on child collections: using(var context=new Entities.Context) { var data=context.Parent.Where(p => p.Name=="foo" && p.Childen.Where(childQuery)); } but cant see any way to do this on a property that isnt a collection. This is just a simplified example, actually the ParentQuery will be more complex and I want to avoid having this repeated in multiple places as rather than just having 2 layers I'll have closer to 5 or 6, but all of them will need to reference the parent query to ensure security.

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• How can I manage building library projects that produce both a static lib and a dll?

  - by Scott Langham

  I've got a large visual studio solution with ~50 projects. There are configurations for StaticDebug, StaticRelease, Debug and Release. Some libraries are needed in both dll and static lib form. To get them, we rebuild the solution with a different configuration. The Configuration Manager window is used to setup which projects need to build in which flavours, static lib, dynamic dll or both. This can by quite tricky to manage and it's a bit annoying to have to build the solution multiple times and select the configurations in the right order. Static versions need building before non-static versions. I'm wondering, instead of this current scheme, might it be simpler to manage if, for the projects I needed to produce both a static lib and dynamc dll, I created two projects. Eg: CoreLib CoreDll I could either make both of these projects reference all the same files and build them twice, or I'm wondering, would it be possible to build CoreLib and then get CoreDll to link it to generate the dll? I guess my question is, do you have any advice on how to structure your projects in this kind of situation? Thanks.

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• @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

  - by ambertch

  I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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• jQuery.data() works in Mac OS WebKit, but not on iPhone OS?

  - by rpj

  I'm playing around with jQTouch for an iPhone OS app that I've been toying with off and on for a while. I wanted to try my hand building it as a web app so I started playing with jQTouch. For reference, here is the page+source (all my code is currently in index.html so you can just "View Source" to see it all): http://rpj.me/doughapp.com/wd/ Essentially, I'm trying to save pertinent JSON objects retrieved from Google Local into DOM objects using the data() method (in this example, obj is the Google Local object): $('#locPane').data('selected', obj); then later (in a different "pane"), retrieving that object to be used: $('#locPane').bind('pageAnimationEnd', function(e, inf) { var selobj = $(this).data('selected'); // use 'selobj' here ... } In Chromium and Safari on the desktop OS (Snow Leopard in my case), this works perfectly (try it out). However, the same code returns undefined for the call to $(this).data('selected') in the second snippet above. I've also tried $('#' + e.target.id).data('selected') and even the naive $('#locPane').data('selected'). All variants return undefined in the iPhone OS version of WebKit, but not on the desktop. Interestingly, the running this on Mobile Safari in the iPhone Simulator fails as well. If you look at the full source, you'll see that I even try to save this object into my global jQTouch object (named jqt in my code). This, too, fails on the mobile platform. Has anyone else ever ran into this? I'll admit to not being a web/javascript programmer by trade, so if I'm making an idiot's error please call me out on it. Thank you in advance for the help! -RPJ Update: I didn't make it clear in the original post, but I'm open to any workaround if it works consistently. Since I'm having trouble storing these objects in general, anything that allows me to keep them around is good enough for now. Thanks!

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• What are the Limitations for Connecting to an Access Query in Excel

  - by thornomad

  I have an Access 2007 database that has a number of tables, some are fairly large (100,000+ records); I have created a union query to pull some of the same types of data from multiple tables into one large query for pivot table manipulation and reporting. For example: SELECT Language FROM Table1 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table2 UNION ALL SELECT Language FROM Table3; This works. I found, quickly, however, that a union query will not show up when connecting to the datasource from Excel 2007. So, I created a second query to reference the union query. Like so: SELECT * FROM [The Above Union Query]; This query works and it, initially, was accessible from Excel. Time passed, I've added more data. Suddenly, when I connect to my Access database from Excel my query referencing the union has disappeared. MS Access shows no signs of an issue (data displays in Access) and my other non-union queries are showing up in Excel 2007 ... but not the one that references the union. What could be going on? Why did it disappear? I noticed if I switch some of the referenced tables in the union query to a smaller table (with less rows) all of sudden the query appears in Excel again. At least, I think that's what the difference is. I really can't put my finger on why some of the union queries won't show up and some will. Am stumped and need some guidance. Thanks.

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• algorithm to find longest non-overlapping sequences

  - by msalvadores

  I am trying to find the best way to solve the following problem. By best way I mean less complex. As an input a list of tuples (start,length) such: [(0,5),(0,1),(1,9),(5,5),(5,7),(10,1)] Each element represets a sequence by its start and length, for example (5,7) is equivalent to the sequence (5,6,7,8,9,10,11) - a list of 7 elements starting with 5. One can assume that the tuples are sorted by the start element. The output should return a non-overlapping combination of tuples that represent the longest continuos sequences(s). This means that, a solution is a subset of ranges with no overlaps and no gaps and is the longest possible - there could be more than one though. For example for the given input the solution is: [(0,5),(5,7)] equivalent to (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11) is it backtracking the best approach to solve this problem ? I'm interested in any different approaches that people could suggest. Also if anyone knows a formal reference of this problem or another one that is similar I'd like to get references. BTW - this is not homework. Edit Just to avoid some mistakes this is another example of expected behaviour for an input like [(0,1),(1,7),(3,20),(8,5)] the right answer is [(3,20)] equivalent to (3,4,5,..,22) with length 20. Some of the answers received would give [(0,1),(1,7),(8,5)] equivalent to (0,1,2,...,11,12) as right answer. But this last answer is not correct because is shorter than [(3,20)].

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• Best practice for managing changes to 3rd party open source libraries?

  - by Jeff Knecht

  On a recent project, I had to modify an open source library to address a functional deficiency. I followed the SVN best practice of creating a "vendor source" repository and made my changes there. I also submitted the patch to the mailing list of that project. Unfortunately, the project only has a couple of maintainers and they are very slow to commit updates. At some point, I expect the library to be updated, and I expect that my project will want to use the upgraded library. But now I have a potential problem... I don't know whether my patch will have been applied to this future release of the 3rd party library. I also don't know whether my patch will even still be compatible with the internal implementation of the upgraded components. And in all likelihood, someone else will be maintaining my project by that point. Should I name the library in a special way so it is clear that we made special modifications (eg. commons-lang-2.x-for-my-project.jar)? Should I just document the patch and reference the SVN location and a link to the mailing list item in a README? No option that I can think of seems to be fool-proof in an upgrade scenario. What is the best practice for this?

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• Getting all the classes in project and their packages from CodeRush extension

  - by drasto

  I've spent some time trying to find a way CodeRush could add using when it finds undeclared element that is in the fact class name with no using added. The solution suggested in this answer to my question (Refactor_resolve) does not work (bugged?). In a process I found out that writing plug-ins for CodeRush is easy, so I decided to code this functionality myself (and share it). I'd only implement a CodeProvider (like in this tutorial). The only thinks I need to do the job are answers to this questions: At the start up of my plugin I need to get a list (set, map, whatever) of all classes and their packages. This means all the classes(interfaces...) and their packages in project, and within all referenced libraries. And I also need to receive updated on this (when user adds reference, creates new class). Can I get this from some CodeRush classes or maybe VS interface available from CodeProvider class? How do I add created CodeProvider to the pop-up that is shown when user hovers over an Issue?

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• Injecting the application TransactionManager into a JPA EntityListener

  - by nodje

  I want to use the JPA EntityListener to support spring security ACLs. On @PostPersist events, I create a permission corresponding to the persisted entity. I need this operation to participate to the current Transaction. For this to happen I need to have a reference to the application TransactionManager in the EntityListener. The problem is, Spring can't manage the EntityListener as it is created automatically when EntityManagerFactory is instantiated. And in a classic Spring app, the EntityManagerFactory is itself created during the TransactioManager instantiation. <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> So I have no way to inject the TransactionManager with the constructor, as it is not yet instantiated. Making the EntityManager a @Component create another instance of the EntityManager. Implementing InitiliazingBean and using afterPropertySet() doesn't work as it's not a Spring managed bean. Any idea would be helpful as I'm stuck and out of ideas.

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• looking for advise on importing excel into mysql with php

  - by Ole Media

  Alright, see if I can pick your brains from you all. I'm currently working on a project where all the information comes from different clients, the only thing in common is that the received data is done with excel. The excel spread sheet that they present is just a bunch of references and codes, and the problem than I'm facing is that I need the references and codes to be entered in certain format in order for the website to work. The perfect situation will be to go to each client and teach how I would need the data, but I can't do that because of the large number of clients, and more importantly I will be interrupting their work flow. Each client has its own codes and reference model and they are not willing to change their process The good news is that there is a standard pattern for the codes, but I'm talking close to 200 thousand codes with a bunch of combination. They way that we are currently solving the problem is that we have a person who checks each excel sheet received, runs a few macros, and manually fixes those codes in which the macro was not able to fix. The person that is doing this, is already burn out and frustrated and I would like to automatize this process with php. Suggestions?

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