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  • How to build n-layered web architecture with PHP?

    - by Alex
    I have a description and design of a website and I need to redesign it to allow for new requirements. The website's purpose is the offering of government's contracts and bidding opportunities for different businesses.I'm dealing with the 3-tier architecture PHP website comprising of the user-interface tier(client's web browser),business logic layer(Apache web server with PHP engine in it and a couple of applications running within a web server as well) and a database layer(local mysql database). Now,i need to redesign it to su???rt distributed n-tier architecture and specify how I would go about it.After long hours of research i came to this solution: business logic should be separated into presentation and purely business logic tier to allow for n-layer architecture(user-interface,presentation tier,b.logic and data tier).I have decided to use ??? just for the presentation(since the original existing website is in PHP) and use it within apache web server.In the business logic i want to use J2?? implementation technology instead of implementing it in PHP(i.e using Zend app.server and smarty template) cz J2EE can provide much more essential container services which are essential for business logic,its robustness,maintainability and different critical business operations which will be carried out by the g?v?rnment's website.So,particularly,i want to use J??ss app.server with ?J? business objects in it which would provide all the b.logic in java and would interact with the database and so forth.In order to connect PHP on a web server with java on app.server i'm gonna use PHP/Java bridge API (or maybe Quercus or SOAP is better?).Finally,i have my data tier with mysql which will communicate with b.logic via JD??.Payment system application in ???.server is gonna use S??? to talk with credit card company. From your professional point of view,does it sound like a good way of redesigning the original website to allow for n-tier architecture considering the specifics of the website and the criticality of its operations?(payment system is included in it)or u would personally prefer to use PHP business objects for business logic as well instead of J2EE?If you have any wiser recommendation or some alternative,please let me know what is right or wrong in my current solution. H??? to hear your professional advice very s??n (I'm new to the area of web development) Thanks in advance

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  • Updating multiple related tables in SQLite with C#

    - by PerryJ
    Just some background, sorry so long winded. I'm using the System.Data.SQLite ADO.net adapter to create a local sqlite database and this will be the only process hitting the database, so I don't need to worry about concurrency. I'm building the database from various sources and don't want to build this all in memory using datasets or dataadapters or anything like that. I want to do this using SQL (DdCommands). I'm not very good with SQL and complete noob in sqlite. I'm basically using sqlite as a local database / save file structure. The database has a lot of related tables and the data has nothing to do with People or Regions or Districts, but to use a simple analogy, imagine: Region table with auto increment RegionID, RegionName column and various optional columns. District table with auto increment DistrictID, DistrictName, RegionId, and various optional columns Person table with auto increment PersonID, PersonName, DistrictID, and various optional columns So I get some data representing RegionName, DistrictName,PersonName, and other Person related data. The Region, District and/or Person may or may not be created at this point. Once again, not being the greatest with this, my thoughts would be something like: Check to see if Region exists and if so get the RegionID else create it and get RegionID Check to see if District exists and if so get the DistrictID else create it adding in RegionID from above and get DistrictID Check to see if Person exists and if so get the PersonID else create it adding in DistrictID from above and get PersonID Update Person with rest of data. In MS SQL Server I would create a stored procedure to handle all this. Only way I can see to do this with sqlite is a lot of commands. So I'm sure I'm not getting this. I've spent hours looking around on various sites but just don't feel like I'm going down the right road. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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  • SmtpClient.SendAsync - How to ensure my application doesn't finish before callback?

    - by James
    Hi, I need to send emails asychronously through a console application. I need to do some DB updates on the callback but my application is exiting before the callback code gets run! How can I stop this from happening in a nice manner rather than simply guessing how long to wait before exiting. I would imagine the Async calls get placed in some form of thread? Is it possible to check if any are waiting to be called? Sample Code private static void SendCompletedCallback(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { // Get the unique identifier for this asynchronous operation. String token = (string) e.UserState; if (e.Cancelled) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] Send canceled.", token); } if (e.Error != null) { Console.WriteLine("[{0}] {1}", token, e.Error.ToString()); } else { // update DB Console.WriteLine("Message sent."); } } public static void Main(string[] args) { var users = Repository.GetUsers(); SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient("Host"); client.SendCompleted += new SendCompletedEventHandler(SendCompletedCallback); MailAddress from = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "System", Encoding.UTF8); foreach (var user in users) { MailAddress to = new MailAddress(user.Email); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(from, to); message.Body = "This is a test"; message.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; message.Subject = "test message 1" + someArrows; message.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; string userState = String.Format("Message for user id {0}", user.ID); client.SendAsync(message, userState); message.Dispose(); } // need to wait here until I have received a callback for each message // otherwise the application will exit }

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  • WDK build-process hooks: need incremental build with auto-versioning

    - by Mystagogue
    I've previously gotten incremental builds with auto-versioning working in a team build setting for user-mode code, but now I'm dealing with the builds of WDK device drivers. It's a whole new ball-game. I need to know what extension point, or hook, is available in the WDK build that occurs after the driver has been selected to be incrementally built, but before it actually starts building the object files. More specifically, I have a .rc file that contains the version of the device driver. I need to update the version in that file ONLY IF the driver is going to be built anyway. If I bump the value in the .rc file prematurely, it will cause the incremental build to kick-off (that is bad). If I wait too long, then the incremental build won't see that I've changed the .rc file. Either way, I do need the WDK to realize that the new version I've placed into the .rc file needs to be built into a new .res file and linked. How do I do this? What suggested extension points should I play with? Is there a link-tutorial on the WDK build process that is particularly revealing regarding this topic?

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  • imagegrabwindow + https = black screen

    - by earls
    I'm doing something stupid and trying to capture thumbnails, snapshots, images of a html webpages. I'm doing something along the lines of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/443837/how-might-i-obtain-a-snapshot-or-thumbnail-of-a-web-page-using-php DCOM + IE + PHP (imagegrabwindow; example from manual) Everything works PERFECT until I try to capture a HTTPS website... https://mail.google.com for example. imagegrabwindow produces a png, but it only shows the browser. the contents of the browser are black. If I log out of Google, I can capture the browser window and the contents thereof - the second I log in, the contents (not the browser frame) are black screen. Yes, I've increased the timeout (before closing the browser window). IE has clearly loaded the page, it just refuses to render for imagegrabwindow. I've been fighting this long enough I know it's either a permissions problem or a service needs to interact with the desktop. Does anyone have any clue what permissions need to be set or which service needs access? I assumed cryptographic services, but that's run as a network service and trying to change it to interact makes it shout and carry on. This is the last piece of the puzzle, I'd really like to get it working. Thank you!

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  • PHP set timeout for script with system call, set_time_limit not working

    - by tehalive
    I have a command-line PHP script that runs a wget request using each member of an array with foreach. This wget request can sometimes take a long time so I want to be able to set a timeout for killing the script if it goes past 15 seconds for example. I have PHP safemode disabled and tried set_time_limit(15) early in the script, however it continues indefinitely. Update: Thanks to Dor for pointing out this is because set_time_limit() does not respect system() calls. So I was trying to find other ways to kill the script after 15 seconds of execution. However, I'm not sure if it's possible to check the time a script has been running while it's in the middle of a wget request at the same time (a do while loop did not work). Maybe fork a process with a timer and set it to kill the parent after a set amount of time? Thanks for any tips! Update: Below is my relevant code. $url is passed from the command-line and is an array of multiple URLs (sorry for not posting this initially): foreach( $url as $key => $value){ $wget = "wget -r -H -nd -l 999 $value"; system($wget); }

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • wcf callback exception after updating to .net 4.0

    - by James
    I have a wcf service that uses callbacks with DualHttpBindings. The service pushes back a datatable of search results the client (for a long running search) as it finds them. This worked fine in .Net 3.5. Since I updated to .Net 4.0, it bombs out with a System.Runtime.FatalException that actually kills the IIS worker process. I have no idea how to even go about starting to fix this. Any recommendations appreciated. The info from the resulting event log is pasted below. An unhandled exception occurred and the process was terminated. Application ID: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT/CP Process ID: 5284 Exception: System.Runtime.FatalException Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage31(MessageRpc& rpc) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.MessageRpc.Process(Boolean isOperationContextSet) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.DispatchAndReleasePump(RequestContext request, Boolean cleanThread, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.HandleRequest(RequestContext request, OperationContext currentOperationContext) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ChannelHandler.AsyncMessagePump(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.ProcessDuplexMessage(WsrmMessageInfo info) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.HandleReceiveComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableDuplexSessionChannel.OnReceiveCompletedStatic(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.ReliableChannelBinder1.InputAsyncResult1.OnInputComplete(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.Fx.AsyncThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(IAsyncResult result) at System.Runtime.AsyncResult.Complete(Boolean completedSynchronously) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.AsyncQueueReader.Set(Item item) at System.Runtime.InputQueue1.Dispatch() at System.Runtime.IOThreadScheduler.ScheduledOverlapped.IOCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Runtime.Fx.IOCompletionThunk.UnhandledExceptionFrame(UInt32 error, UInt32 bytesRead, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) InnerException: * System.NullReferenceException* Message: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. StackTrace: at System.Web.HttpApplication.ThreadContext.Enter(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.HttpApplication.OnThreadEnterPrivate(Boolean setImpersonationContext) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallbackPossiblyUnderLock(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.Web.AspNetSynchronizationContext.CallCallback(SendOrPostCallback callback, Object state) at System.ServiceModel.Dispatcher.ImmutableDispatchRuntime.ProcessMessage4(MessageRpc& rpc)

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  • Rendering PDF on WebPage

    - by Priyank
    Hi. We are trying to load a pdf file in web browser using pdfobject javascript api. Currently the size of the pdf's that we are trying to display is close to 10MBs. This creates a long delay in displaying a PDF on web page; while the complete PDF gets downloaded. We need to remove this lag by achieving either of the alternatives: Show a progress bar until the PDF is actually displayed. We couldn't find an event which is triggered and can be used to find out if pdf is visible now. This lacking doesn't let us decide when to stop showing progress bar/spinner OR lazy load the PDF such that it gets displayed as soon as first page gets loaded. With that ateast user will have a visual indication as to something is happening. We couldn'find anything in pdf object that lets us do a lazy load. User alternative pdf rendering api; this is a low priority as we already have complete code in place; but in an event of first 2 alternatives not being met; we'd have to consider this option. So please feel free to suggest. Any other ideas as to how user interaction can be made more intuitive or pleasant; would be welcome. Cheers

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  • How to do Grouping using JPA annotation with mapping given field

    - by hemal
    I am using JPA Annotation mapping with the table given below, but having problem that i am doing mapping on same table but on diffrent field given ProductImpl.java @Entity @Table(name = "Product") public class ProductImpl extends SimpleTagGroup implements Product { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private long id = -1; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> tags; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> licenses; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable(name = "ProductTagMapping", joinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "productId"), inverseJoinColumns =@JoinColumn(name = "tagId")) private List<SimpleTag> os; I want to get values like windows and linux in os , GPLv2 and GPLv3 in licenses ,so we are using TagGroup table . but here i got all tagValues in each of the os,licenses and tag fileds,so how could i do group by or some other things with JPA. and ProductTagMapping is the mapping table between Tag and TagGroup TagGroup Table ID TAGGROUPNAME 1 PRODUCTTYPE 2 LICENSE 3 TAGS 4 OS SimpleTag ID TAGVALUE 1 Application 2 Framework 3 Apache2 4 GPLv2 5 GPLv3 6 learning 7 Linux 8 Windows 9 mature

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  • Which of these is pythonic? and Pythonic vs. Speed

    - by Kashyap Nadig
    Hi! I'm new to python and just wrote this module level function: def _interval(patt): """ Converts a string pattern of the form '1y 42d 14h56m' to a timedelta object. y - years (365 days), M - months (30 days), w - weeks, d - days, h - hours, m - minutes, s - seconds""" m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} for (n,q) in m: if q=='y': args['days'] += float(n)*365 elif q=='M': args['days'] += float(n)*30 elif q=='w': args['weeks'] += float(n) elif q=='d': args['days'] += float(n) elif q=='h': args['hours'] += float(n) elif q=='m': args['minutes'] += float(n) elif q=='s': args['seconds'] += float(n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) My issue is with the for loop here i.e the long if elif block, and was wondering if there is a more pythonic way of doing it. So I re-wrote the function as: def _interval2(patt): m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} argsmap = {'y': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*365), 'M': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*30), 'w': ('weeks', lambda x: float(x)), 'd': ('days', lambda x: float(x)), 'h': ('hours', lambda x: float(x)), 'm': ('minutes', lambda x: float(x)), 's': ('seconds', lambda x: float(x))} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += argsmap[q][1](n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) I tested the execution times of both the codes using timeit module and found that the second one took about 5-6 seconds longer (for the default number of repeats). So my question is: 1. Which code is considered more pythonic? 2. Is there still a more pythonic was of writing this function? 3. What about the trade-offs between pythonicity and other aspects (like speed in this case) of programming? p.s. I kinda have an OCD for elegant code. EDITED _interval2 after seeing this answer: argsmap = {'y': ('days', 365), 'M': ('days', 30), 'w': ('weeks', 1), 'd': ('days', 1), 'h': ('hours', 1), 'm': ('minutes', 1), 's': ('seconds', 1)} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += float(n)*argsmap[q][1]

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  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

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  • How to specify selector when CAKeyframeAnimation is finished?

    - by darenchow
    I'm using a CAKeyframeAnimation to animate a view along a CGPath. When the animation is done, I'd like to be able to call some other method to perform another action. Is there a good way to do this? I've looked at using UIView's setAnimationDidStopSelector:, however from the docs this looks like it only applies when used within a UIView animation block (beginAnimations and commitAnimations). I also gave it a try just in case, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's some sample code (this is within a custom UIView sub-class method): // These have no effect since they're not in a UIView Animation Block [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; // Set up path movement CAKeyframeAnimation *pathAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"path"]; pathAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; pathAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; pathAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; pathAnimation.duration = 1.0f; CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, self.center.x, self.center.y); // add all points to the path for (NSValue* value in myPoints) { CGPoint nextPoint = [value CGPointValue]; CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, nextPoint.x, nextPoint.y); } pathAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); [self.layer addAnimation:pathAnimation forKey:@"pathAnimation"]; A workaround I was considering that should work, but doesn't seem like the best way, is to use NSObject's performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:. As long as I set the delay equal to the duration of the animation, then it should be fine. Is there a better way? Thanks!

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  • Changing text of TextView -- old text doesn't go away (Android 4.1.2)

    - by Jason Costabile
    I'm pretty new to Android development. Trying to accomplish something fairly simple -- change some displayed text when a timer ticks. Here's the potentially relevant code: CountDownTimer currentTimer; Resources res; TextView timerText; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.activity_exercise); res = getResources(); timerText = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.timer_text); } @Override protected void onStart() { super.onStart(); //"Get ready" countdown currentTimer = new CountDownTimer(5000, 1000) { @Override public void onTick(long millisUntilFinished) { timerText.setText("" + (int)Math.ceil(millisUntilFinished / 1000.0)); } @Override public void onFinish() { ... } }; currentTimer.start(); } This works fine on an emulated 4.2.2 device, but on a 4.1.2 device (both physical and emulated), the changed TextView appears as such while the countdown proceeds: If you can't tell, that's the numbers 5,4,3 overlayed. So, when I set a new string for the TextView, the new string is displayed but without replacing the old string. Any other TextViews used in my app behave in the same way. Any ideas what the problem is and how to fix it? Edit: From the XML layout file: <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" tools:context=".ExerciseActivity" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:gravity="center" android:keepScreenOn="true" android:orientation="vertical" > ... <TextView android:id="@+id/timer_text" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:textIsSelectable="false" android:hint="@string/timer_default" /> ... </LinearLayout> That's all that could be relevant.

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  • EJB3Unit testing no-tx-datasource

    - by justastefan
    Hello, I am doing tests on an ejb3-project using ejb3unit http://ejb3unit.sourceforge.net/Session-Bean.html for testing. All my Services long for @PersistenceContext (UnitName=bla). I set up the ejb3unit.properties like this: ejb3unit_jndi.1.isSessionBean=true ejb3unit_jndi.1.jndiName=ejb/MyServiceBean ejb3unit_jndi.1.className=com.company.project.MyServiceBean everything works with the in-memory-database. So now i want additionally test another servicebean with @PersistenceContext (UnitName=noTxDatasource) that goes for a defined in my datasources.xml: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> ... </local-tx-datasource> <no-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>noTxDatasource</jndi-name> <connection-url>...</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver</driver-class> <user-name>bla</user-name> <password>bla</password> </no-tx-datasource> </datasources> How do I tell ejb3unit to make this work: Object object = InitialContext.doLookup("java:/noTxDatasource"); if (object instanceof DataSource) { return ((DataSource) object).getConnection(); } else { return null; } Currently it fails saying: javax.NamingException: Cannot find the name (noTxDataSource) in the JNDI tree Current bindings: (ejb/MyServiceBean=com.company.project.MyServiceBean) How can I add this no-tx-datasource to the jndi bindings?

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  • LPX-00607 for ora:contains in java but not sqlplus

    - by Windle
    Hey all, I am trying to doing some sql querys out of Oracle 11g and am having issues using ora:contains. I am using spring's jdbc impl and my code generates the sql statement: select * from view_name where column_a = ? and column_b = ? and existsNode(xmltype(clob_column), 'record/name [ora:contains(text(), "name1") 0]', 'xmlns:ora="http://xmlns.oralce.com/xdb"') = 1 I have removed the actual view / column names obviously, but when I copy that into sqlplus and substitute in random values, the select executes properly. When I try to run it in my DAO code I get this stack trace: org.springframework.jdbc.UncatergorizedSQLException: PreparedStatementCallback; uncatergorizedSQLException for SQL [the big select above]; SQL state [99999]; error code [31011]; ORA-31011: XML parsing failed. ORA-19202: Error occured in XML processing LPX-00607: Invalid reference: 'contains' ;nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: ORA-31011: XML parsing failed ORA-19202: Error occured in XML processing LPX-00607: Invalid reference: 'contains' (continues on like this for awhile....) I think it is worth mentioning that I am using maven and it is possible I am missing some dependency that is required for this. Sorry the post is so long, but I wanted to err on the side of too much info. Thanks for taking the time to read this at least =) -Windle

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  • httprequest handle time delays till having response

    - by bourax webmaster
    I have an application that calls a function to send JSON object to a REST API, my problem is how can I handle time delays and repeat this function till i have a response from the server in case of interrupted network connexion ?? I try to use the Handler but i don't know how to stop it when i get a response !!! here's my function that is called when button clicked : protected void sendJson(final String name, final String email, final String homepage,final Long unixTime,final String bundleId) { Thread t = new Thread() { public void run() { Looper.prepare(); //For Preparing Message Pool for the child Thread HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpConnectionParams.setConnectionTimeout(client.getParams(), 10000); //Timeout Limit HttpResponse response; JSONObject json = new JSONObject(); //creating meta object JSONObject metaJson = new JSONObject(); try { HttpPost post = new HttpPost("http://util.trademob.com:5000/cards"); metaJson.put("time", unixTime); metaJson.put("bundleId", bundleId); json.put("name", name); json.put("email", email); json.put("homepage", homepage); //add the meta in the root object json.put("meta", metaJson); StringEntity se = new StringEntity( json.toString()); se.setContentType(new BasicHeader(HTTP.CONTENT_TYPE, "application/json")); post.setEntity(se); String authorizationString = "Basic " + Base64.encodeToString( ("tester" + ":" + "tm-sdktest").getBytes(), Base64.NO_WRAP); //Base64.NO_WRAP flag post.setHeader("Authorization", authorizationString); response = client.execute(post); String temp = EntityUtils.toString(response.getEntity()); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), temp, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } Looper.loop(); //Loop in the message queue } }; t.start(); }

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  • Can a GeneralPath be modified?

    - by Dov
    java2d is fairly expressive, but requires constructing lots of objects. In contrast, the older API would let you call methods to draw various shapes, but lacks all the new features like transparency, stroke, etc. Java has fairly high costs associated with object creation. For speed, I would like to create a GeneralPath whose structure does not change, but go in and change the x,y points inside. path = new GeneralPath(GeneralPath.WIND_EVEN_ODD, 10); path.moveTo(x,y); path.lineTo(x2, y2); double len = Math.sqrt((x2-x)*(x2-x) + (y2-y)*(y2-y)); double dx = (x-x2) * headLen / len; double dy = (y-y2) * headLen / len; double dx2 = -dy * (headWidth/headLen); double dy2 = dx * (headWidth/headLen); path.lineTo(x2 + dx + dx2, y2 + dy + dy2); path.moveTo(x2 + dx - dx2, y2 + dy - dy2); path.lineTo(x2,y2); This one isn't even that long. Imagine a much longer sequence of commands, and only the ones on the end are changing. I just want to be able to overwrite commands, to have an iterator effectively. Does that exist?

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  • Selectively suppress XML comments?

    - by Mike Post
    We deliver a number of assemblies to external customers, but not all of the public APIs are officially supported. For example, due to less than optimal design choices sometimes a type must be publicly exposed from an assembly for the rest of our code to work, but we don't want customers to use that type. One part of communicating the lack of support is not provide any intellisense in the form of XML comments. Is there a way to selectively suppress XML comments? I'm looking for something other than ignoring warning 1591 since it's a long term maintenance issue. Example: I have an assembly with public classes A and B. A is officially supported and should have XML documentation. B is not intended for external use and should not be documented. I could turn on XML documentation and then suppress warning 1591. But when I later add the officially supported class C, I want the compiler to tell me that I've screwed up and failed to add the XML documentation. This wouldn't occur if I had suppressed 1591 at the project level. I suppose I could #pragma across entire classes, but it seems like there should be a better way to do this.

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  • Slow MySQL Query Breaking my back!

    - by Chris n
    so, I have tried everything I can think of, and can't get this query to happen in less than 3 seconds on my local server. I know the problem has to do with the OR referencing both the owner_id and the person_id. if I run one or the other it happens instantly, but together with an or I can't seem to make it work - I looked into rewriting the code, but the way the app was designed it won't be easy. is there a way I can call an equivalent or that won't take so long? here is the sql: SELECT event_types.name as event_type_name,event_types.id as id, count(events.id) as count,sum(events.estimated_duration) as time_sum FROM events,event_types WHERE event_types.id = events.event_type_id AND events.event_type_id != '4' AND ( events.status!='cancelled') AND events.event_type_id != 64 AND ( events.owner_id = 161 OR events.person_id = 161 ) GROUP BY event_types.name ORDER BY event_types.name DESC; Here's the Explain soup, although I'm guessing it's unnecessary cause there is probably a better way to structure that or that is obvious: thanks so much! chris. +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+-- | 1 | SIMPLE | event_types | range | PRIMARY | PRIMARY | 4 | NULL | 78 | Using where; Using temporary; Using filesort | | 1 | SIMPLE | events | ref | index_events_on_status,index_events_on_event_type_id,index_events_on_person_id,index_events_on_owner_id | index_events_on_event_type_id | 5 | thenumber_production.event_types.id | 907 | Using where | +----+-------------+-------------+-------+---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+-------------------------------+---------+-------------------------------------+------+----------------------------------------------+

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  • rails best practices where to place unobtrusive javascript

    - by nathanvda
    Hi there, my rails applications (all 2.3.5) use a total mix of inline javascript, rjs, prototype and jquery. Let's call it learning or growing pains. Lately i have been more and more infatuated with unobtrusive javascript. It makes your html clean, in the same way css cleaned it up. But most examples i have seen are small examples, and they put all javascript(jquery) inside application.js Now i have a pretty big application, and i am thinking up ways to structure my js. I like somehow that my script is still close to the view, so i am thinking something like orders.html.erb orders.js where orders.js contains the unobtrusive javascript specific to that view. But maybe that's just me being too conservative :) I have read some posts by Yehuda Katz about this very problem here and here, where he tackles this problem. It will go through your js-files and only load those relevant to your view. But alas i can't find a current implementation. So my questions: how do you best structure your unobtrusive javascript; manage your code, how do you make sure that it is obvious from the html what something is supposed to do. I guess good class names go a long way :) how do you arrange your files, load them all in? just a few? do you use content_for :script or javascript_include_tag in your view to load the relevant scripts. Or ... ? do you write very generic functions (like a delete), with parameters (add extra attributes?), or do you write very specific functions (DRY?). I know in Rails 3 there is a standard set, and everything is unobtrusive there. But how to start in Rails 2.3.5? In short: what are the best practices for doing unobtrusive javascript in rails? :)

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  • Issue intercepting property in Silverlight application

    - by joblot
    I am using Ninject as DI container in a Silverlight application. Now I am extending the application to support interception and started integrating DynamicProxy2 extension for Ninject. I am trying to intercept call to properties on a ViewModel and ending up getting following exception: “Attempt to access the method failed: System.Reflection.Emit.DynamicMethod..ctor(System.String, System.Type, System.Type[], System.Reflection.Module, Boolean)” This exception is thrown when invocation.Proceed() method is called. I tried two implementations of the interceptor and they both fail public class NotifyPropertyChangedInterceptor: SimpleInterceptor { protected override void AfterInvoke(IInvocation invocation) { var model = (IAutoNotifyPropertyChanged)invocation.Request.Proxy; model.OnPropertyChanged(invocation.Request.Method.Name.Substring("set_".Length)); } } public class NotifyPropertyChangedInterceptor: IInterceptor { public void Intercept(IInvocation invocation) { invocation.Proceed(); var model = (IAutoNotifyPropertyChanged)invocation.Request.Proxy; model.OnPropertyChanged(invocation.Request.Method.Name.Substring("set_".Length)); } } I want to call OnPropertyChanged method on the ViewModel when property value is set. I am using Attribute based interception. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public class NotifyPropertyChangedAttribute : InterceptAttribute { public override IInterceptor CreateInterceptor(IProxyRequest request) { if(request.Method.Name.StartsWith("set_")) return request.Context.Kernel.Get<NotifyPropertyChangedInterceptor>(); return null; } } I tested the implementation with a Console Application and it works alright. I also noted in Console Application as long as I had Ninject.Extensions.Interception.DynamicProxy2.dll in same folder as Ninject.dll I did not have to explicitly load DynamicProxy2Module into the Kernel, where as I had to explicitly load it for Silverlight application as follows: IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(new DIModules(), new DynamicProxy2Module()); Could someone please help? Thanks

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  • Can SOTI's MobiControl software interfere with an ASP.Net web service?

    - by MusiGenesis
    We have a set of WinMo (5.0) devices running a .NET CF application that talks to an ASP.Net web service running on a server. The devices connect to the network either via ActiveSync through a networked PC or directly to the network via an Ethernet dongle. In our development environment, the communication between devices and web service is 100% reliable. In our production environment, the communications are failing erratically and unpredictably. Sometimes calls to the web service (even to a simple test call that just returns a boolean) begin failing every time on a particular device, with the error message "Could not establish connection to network." This is usually fixed by flip-flopping the selected combo box values on the SETTINGS | NETWORKS screen. Sometimes calls on a particular device begin failing with a generic "WebException" message. The fix for this problem (so far) is either to reset the device (i.e. reinstall the OS) or else it just can't be fixed on some devices. To the best of our knowledge, everything about the DEV and PROD systems are the same (same server and device specs). The most obvious difference to us is that the PROD devices are all controlled by SOTI's MobiControl (which is server-side software that communicates with a SOTI client application installed on each device), whereas our DEV environment does not have SOTI installed anywhere (obviously we should have it there as well - long story). Does anybody have any experience with SOTI MobiControl and/or know of any documented problems where SOTI interferes with other communication mechanisms on a device?

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  • [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified - works

    - by Matt
    Hello, I am developing a java app (with odbc bridge - forgive me - the only paradox driver I have been able to obtain is the microsoft odbc driver) - which works fine while in eclipse, (and netbeans) - connecting and obtaining data from an ancient paradox 5.x database. So long as it is run from inside my IDE - it compiles and runs flawlessly. When I export it to a runable jar, suddenly [code][Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified[/code] occurs. The jar is being run on the same box as my developing IDE - so I am confused about the cause. It is being run via console from a user account, as per the IDE. My connection string is "jdbc:odbc:Driver={Microsoft Paradox Driver (*.db )};DriverID=538; Fil=Paradox 5.X; DefaultDir=C:\paradox\database\location\" - obtained from connectionstrings.com - and as mentioned before, working fine while run from the IDE. The above seems to 'magically' create its own connection, avoiding the setup of a dsn - I am unsure quite how it does - but it works. The only other thing I can think that might be pertinent is that my PC is a 64bit o/s (windows server 2008). Please help, any suggestions or comments will be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Matt

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  • Connecting repeatable and non-repeatble backgrounds without a seam

    - by Stiggler
    I have a 700x300 background repeating seamlessly inside of the main content-div. Now I'd like to attach a div at the bottom of the content-div, containing a different background image that isn't repeatable, connecting seamlessly with the repeatable background above it. Essentially, the non-repeatable image will look like the end piece of the repeatable image. Due to the nature of the pattern, unless the full 300px height of the background image is visible in the last repeat of the content-div's backround, the background in the div below won't seamlessly connect. Basically, I need the content div's height to be a multiple of 300px under all circumstances. What's a good approach to this sort of problem? I've tried resizing the content-div on loading the page, but this only works as long as the content div doesn't contain any resizing, dynamic content, which is not my case: function adjustContentHeight() { // Setting content div's height to nearest upper multiple of column backgrounds height, // forcing it not to be cut-off when repeated. var contentBgHeight = 300; var contentHeight = $("#content").height(); var adjustedHeight = Math.ceil(contentHeight / contentBgHeight); $("#content").height(adjustedHeight * contentBgHeight); } $(document).ready(adjustContentHeight); What I'm looking for there is a way to respond to a div resizing event, but there doesn't seem to be such a thing. Also, please assume I have no access to the JS controlling the resizing of content in the content-div, though this is potentially a way of solving the problem. Another potential solution I was thinking off was to offset the background image in the bottom div by a certain amount depending on the height of the content-div. Again, the missing piece seems to be the ability to respond to a resize event.

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