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  • Recommendation for using equals in Entities and avoiding LazyInitializationExceptions?

    - by huxendupsel
    In the beginning there is a problem that wants to be solved. In my case i got an LazyInitializationException while using indexof in a Collection to retrieve an Object for manipulation. Here i start to think about using equals in EntityBeans (OR-Mapper at all). I know there are some discussions about overriding equals in association with OR-Mapper as hibernate like [1] Entities equals(), hashCode() and toString(). How to correctly implement them? [2] To equals and hashcode or not on entity classes, that is the question. [3] Overriding equals and hashCode in Java I currently have some entities which implements the equals but inside the code i could not use equals several times because of the LazyInitializationExceptions. So i had to workaround and use eg. the name property of the object to identify it's equality. From my point of view the whole 'LazyInitializationException-thing' is not really mentioned in this questions. I'd like to know have you got some good patterns or real live recommendations how to avoid such exception in an equal-Method. Shall i use some helper Methodes to distinguish if a Object of a class is already initialized (4) or should i apdicate the use of equals and use helper classes instead (2)? And what is about catching LazyInitializationExceptions in the equals? [Edit]: If you put equals in context with the initialization of the Object then it will gain importance. Sometimes it is nessesary to have the Object fully initialized but sometimes you don't want to. Because you just need the Object itself (name, id, ...) not its Collection-Properties. So just for equalization you have to reattach the Object and load the whole bunch you don't realy need? Are there any other solutions for such a problem?

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  • Regular Expressions, avoiding HTML tags in PHP

    - by Jason Axelrod
    I have actually seen this question quite a bit here, but none of them are exactly what I want... Lets say I have the following phrase: Line 1 - This is a TEST phrase. Line 2 - This is a <img src="TEST" /> image. Line 3 - This is a <a href="somelink/TEST">TEST</a> link. Okay, simple right? I am trying the following code: $linkPin = '#(\b)TEST(\b)(?![^<]*>)#i'; $linkRpl = '$1<a href="newurl">TEST</a>$2'; $html = preg_replace($linkPin, $linkRpl, $html); As you can see, it takes the word TEST, and replaces it with a link to test. The regular expression I am using right now works good to avoid replacing the TEST in line 2, it also avoids replacing the TEST in the href of line 3. However, it still replaces the text encapsulated within the tag on line 3 and I end up with: Line 1 - This is a <a href="newurl">TEST</a> phrase. Line 2 - This is a <img src="TEST" /> image. Line 3 - This is a <a href="somelink/TEST"><a href="newurl">TEST</a></a> link. This I do not want as it creates bad code in line 3. I want to not only ignore matches inside of a tag, but also encapsulated by them. (remember to keep note of the / in line 2)

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  • TV Guide script - getting current date programmes to show

    - by whitstone86
    This is part of my TV guide script: //Connect to the database mysql_connect("localhost","root","PASSWORD"); //Select DB mysql_select_db("mytvguide"); //Select only results for today and future $result = mysql_query("SELECT programme, channel, episode, airdate, expiration, setreminder FROM mediumonair where airdate >= now()"); The episodes show up, so there are no issues there. However, it's getting the database to find data that's the issue. If I add a record for a programme that airs today this should show: Medium showing on TV4 8:30pm "Episode" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 6:25pm "Episode 2" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 10:25pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 19th - 7:30pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 1:25am "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 6:25pm "Episode 4" Set Reminder but this shows instead: Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 6:25pm "Episode 2" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 10:25pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 19th - 7:30pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 1:25am "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 6:25pm "Episode 4" Set Reminder I almost have the SQL working; just not sure what the right code is here, to avoid the second mistake showing - as the record (which indicates a show currently airing) does not seem to work at present. Please can anyone help me with this? Thanks

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  • How to make a piece of WPF content take up the entire application window

    - by Bojin Li
    I'm working on an application that contains a number of content areas. I want to implement a behavior such that in response to user input, any of these content areas can be toggled to fit the entire application window, and optionally back to its original position again. I experimented with several approaches and none of them seem optimal for me. Here's what I tried to do: Use the ClipToBoundsProperty on the content I want to make "Full Screen": Doesn't work because only the CanvasPanel seems to fully respect this property. The application need to be localized so I would really like to avoid the CanvasPanel. Use a Grid and collapse the other content areas, such that only the one I want to see is visible, hence taking up the entire screen: This will probably work but doesn't seem easy to implement nor maintain. The "Full Screen" content area could be several levels deep, for example residing inside a Tabcontrol, so I would have to hide the tab headers too etc. Reconstruct the content area in a separate view and display it while hiding the rest: Seems easy enough to do with DataTemplates and my ViewModel objects, but any GUI/View only states are not preserved using this approach. Somehow "lift" the GUI/View I want to "Full Screen" into the separate view and display it while hiding the rest: I don't know how to do this or even if this is possible. Anyway if anyone knows a better approach I would love to know about it. Thanks a lot!

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  • How do I deal with different requests that map to the same response?

    - by daxim
    I'm designing a Web service. The request is idempotent, so I chose the GET method. The response is relatively expensive to calculate and not small, so I want to get caching (on the protocol level) right. (Don't worry about memoisation at my part, I have that already covered; my question here is actually also paying attention to the Web as a whole.) There's only one mandatory parameter and a number of optional parameter with default values if missing. For example, the following two map to the same representation of the response. (If this is a dumb way to go about it the interface, propose something better.) GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data HTTP/1.1 GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data;optional_parameter=default1;another_optional_parameter=default2;yet_another_optional_parameter=default3 HTTP/1.1 However, I imagine clients do not know this and would treat them separate and therefore waste cache storage. What should I do to avoid violating the golden rule of caching? Make up a canonical form, document it (e.g. all parameters are required after all and need to be sorted in a specific order) and return a client error unless the required form is met? Instead of an error, redirect permanently to the canonical form of a request? Or is it enough to not mind how the request looks like, and just respond with the same ETag for same responses?

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  • How to use CellRenderer for GregorianCalendar?

    - by HansDampf
    So I have been trying to use the example from Tutorial and change it so it fits my program. The getColumnValue method returns the object that holds the information that is supposed to be displayed. Is this the way to go or should it rather return the actual String to be displayed. I guess not because that way I would mix the presentation with the data, which I was trying to avoid. public class IssueTableFormat implements TableFormat<Appointment> { public int getColumnCount() { return 6; } public String getColumnName(int column) { if(column == 0) return "Datum"; else if(column == 1) return "Uhrzeit"; else if(column == 2) return "Nummer"; else if(column == 3) return "Name"; else if(column == 4) return "letzte Aktion"; else if(column == 5) return "Kommentar"; throw new IllegalStateException(); } public Object getColumnValue(Appointment issue, int column) { if(column == 0) return issue.getDate(); else if(column == 1) return issue.getDate(); else if(column == 2) return issue.getSample(); else if(column == 3) return issue.getSample(); else if(column == 4) return issue.getHistory(); else if(column == 5) return issue.getComment(); throw new IllegalStateException(); } } The column 0 and 1 contain a GregorianCalendar object, but I want column 0 to show the date and 1 to show the time. So I know using cellRenderers can help here. This is what I tried. public class DateRenderer extends DefaultTableCellRenderer { public DateRenderer() { super(); } public void setValue(Object value) { GregorianCalendar g =(GregorianCalendar) value; value=g.get(GregorianCalendar.HOUR); } } But the cell doesnt show anything, what is wrong here?

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  • Using a single texture image unit with multiple sampler uniforms

    - by bcrist
    I am writing a batching system which tracks currently bound textures in order to avoid unnecessary glBindTexture() calls. I'm not sure if I need to keep track of which textures have already been used by a particular batch so that if a texture is used twice, it will be bound to a different TIU for the second sampler which requires it. Is it acceptable for an OpenGL application to use the same texture image unit for multiple samplers within the same shader stage? What about samplers in different shader stages? For example: Fragment shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; uniform sampler2D samp2; void main() { ... } Main program: ... glActiveTexture(GL_TEXTURE0); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, tex_id); glUniform1i(samp1_location, 0); glUniform1i(samp2_location, 0); ... I don't see any reason why this shouldn't work, but what about if the shader program also included a vertex shader like this: Vertex shader: ... uniform sampler2D samp1; void main() { ... } In this case, OpenGL is supposed to treat both instances of samp1 as the same variable, and exposes a single location for them. Therefore, the same texture unit is being used in the vertex and fragment shaders. I have read that using the same texture in two different shader stages counts doubly against GL_MAX_COMBINED_TEXTURE_IMAGE_UNITS but this would seem to contradict that. In a quick test on my hardware (HD 6870), all of the following scenarios worked as expected: 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms in same shader stage 1 TIU used for 1 sampler uniform which is used in 2 shader stages 1 TIU used for 2 sampler uniforms, each occurring in a different stage. However, I don't know if this is behavior that I should expect on all hardware/drivers, or if there are performance implications.

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  • How to multi-thread this?

    - by WilliamKF
    I wish to have two threads. The first thread1 occasionally calls the following pseudo function: void waitForThread2() { if (thread2 is not idle) { return; } notifyThread2IamReady(); while (thread2IsExclusive) { } } The second thread2 is forever in the following pseudo loop: for (;;) { Notify thread1 I am idle. while (!thread1IsReady()) { } Notify thread1 I am exclusive. Do some work while thread1 is blocked. Notify thread1 I am busy. Do some work in parallel with thread1. } What is the best way to write this such that both thread1 and thread2 are kept as busy as possible on a machine with multiple cores. I would like to avoid long delays between notification in one thread and detection by the other. I tried using pthread condition variables but found the delay between thread2 doing 'notify thread1 I am busy' and the loop in waitForThread2() on thear2IsExclusive() can be up to almost one second delay. I then tried using a volatile sig_atomic_t shared variable to control the same, but something is going wrong, so I must not be doing it correctly.

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  • Java - multithreaded access to a local value store which is periodically cleared

    - by Telax
    I'm hoping for some advice or suggestions on how best to handle multi threaded access to a value store. My local value storage is designed to hold onto objects which are currently in use. If the object is not in use then it is removed from the store. A value is pumped into my store via thread1, its entry into the store is announced to listeners, and the value is stored. Values coming in on thread1 will either be totally new values or updates for existing values. A timer is used to periodically remove any value from the store which is not currently in use and so all that remains of this value is its ID held locally by an intermediary. Now, an active element on thread2 may wake up and try to access a set of values by passing a set of value IDs which it knows about. Some values will be stored already (great) and some may not (sadface). Those values which are not already stored will be retrieved from an external source. My main issue is that items which have not already been stored and are currently being queried for may arrive in on thread1 before the query is complete. I'd like to try and avoid locking access to the store whilst a query is being made as it may take some time.

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  • Redirecting http to https for a directory, via .htaccess, using mod_alias only

    - by Belinda
    I have the common problem of wanting to redirect requests for a certain restricted access directory from http to https, so that users' login credentials are sent in a secure way. However, I do not have mod_rewrite enabled on my server. I only have mod_alias. This means I have to use the RedirectMatch command. I can't use the usual solutions that use RewriteCond and RewriteRule. (A note on the politics: I am a small-fry subsite maintainer in a very large organisation, so the server admins are unlikely to be willing to change the server config for me!) The following line works, but forms an infinite loop (because the rewritten URL is still caught by the initial regular expression): RedirectMatch permanent ^/intranet(.*)$ https://example.com/intranet$1 One of my internal IT guys has suggested I avoid the infinite loop by moving the files to a new directory with a new name (eg /intranet2/). That seems pretty ugly to me. And people could still accidentally/deliberately revert to an insecure connection by visiting http://example.com/intranet2/ directly. Then I tried this, but it didn't work: RedirectMatch permanent ^http:(.*)/intranet(.*)$ https://example.com/intranet$1 I suspect it didn't work because the first argument must be a file path from the root directory, so it can't start with "http:". So: any better ideas how to do this?

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  • The cross-thread usage of "HttpContext.Current" property and related things

    - by smwikipedia
    I read from < Essential ASP.NET with Examples in C# the following statement: Another useful property to know about is the static Current property of the HttpContext class. This property always points to the current instance of the HttpContext class for the request being serviced. This can be convenient if you are writing helper classes that will be used from pages or other pipeline classes and may need to access the context for whatever reason. By using the static Current property to retrieve the context, you can avoid passing a reference to it to helper classes. For example, the class shown in Listing 4-1 uses the Current property of the context to access the QueryString and print something to the current response buffer. Note that for this static property to be correctly initialized, the caller must be executing on the original request thread, so if you have spawned additional threads to perform work during a request, you must take care to provide access to the context class yourself. I am wondering about the root cause of the bold part, and one thing leads to another, here is my thoughts: We know that a process can have multiple threads. Each of these threads have their own stacks, respectively. These threads also have access to a shared memory area, the heap. The stack then, as I understand it, is kind of where all the context for that thread is stored. For a thread to access something in the heap it must use a pointer, and the pointer is stored on its stack. So when we make some cross-thread calls, we must make sure that all the necessary context info is passed from the caller thread's stack to the callee thread's stack. But I am not quite sure if I made any mistake. Any comments will be deeply appreciated. Thanks. ADD Here the stack is limited to user stack.

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  • Passing huge amounts of data as an hexadecimal (0x123AB...) parameter of a clr stored procedure in s

    - by user193655
    I post this question has followup of This question, since the thread is not recieving more answers. I'm trying to understand if it is possible to pass as a parameter of a CLR stored procedure a large amount of data as "0x5352532F...". This is to avoid to send the data directly to the CLR stored procedure, instead of sending ti to a temporary DB field and from there passing it as varbinary(max) parmeter to the CLR stored procedure. I have a triple question: 1) is it possible, if yes how? Let's say i want to pass a pdf file to the CLR stored procedure (not the path, the full bits that make up the file). Something like: exec MyCLRStoredProcs.dbo.insertfile @file_remote_path ='c:\temp\test_file.txt' , @file_contents=0x4D5A90000300000004000.... --(this long list is the file content) where insertfile is a stored proc that writes to the server path (at file_remote_path) the binary data I pass as (file_contents). 2) is it there corruption risk of adopting this approach (or it is the same approach that sql server uses behind the scenes)? 3) how to convert the content of a file into the "0x23423..." hexadecimal representation

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  • Reference properteries declared in a protocol and implemented in the anonymous category?

    - by Heath Borders
    I have the following protocol: @protocol MyProtocol @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *myProtocolProperty; -(void) myProtocolMethod; @end and I have the following class: @interface MyClass : NSObject { } @end I have a class extension declared, I have to redeclare my protocol properties here or else I can't implement them with the rest of my class. @interface()<MyProtocol> @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *myExtensionProperty; /* * This redeclaration is required or my @synthesize myProtocolProperty fails */ @property (nonatomic, retain) NSObject *myProtocolProperty; - (void) myExtensionMethod; @end @implementation MyClass @synthesize myProtocolProperty = _myProtocolProperty; @synthesize myExtensionProperty = _myExtensionProperty; - (void) myProtocolMethod { } - (void) myExtensionMethod { } @end In a consumer method, I can call my protocol methods and properties just fine. Calling my extension methods and properties produces a warning and an error respectively. - (void) consumeMyClassWithMyProtocol: (MyClass<MyProtocol> *) myClassWithMyProtocol { myClassWithMyProtocol.myProtocolProperty; // works, yay! [myClassWithMyProtocol myProtocolMethod]; // works, yay! myClassWithMyProtocol.myExtensionProperty; // compiler error, yay! [myClassWithMyProtocol myExtensionMethod]; // compiler warning, yay! } Is there any way I can avoid redeclaring the properties in MyProtocol within my class extension in order to implement MyProtocol privately?

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  • Android - How to approach fall detection algorithm

    - by bobby123
    I want to be able to feature a fairly simple fall detection algorithm in my application. At the moment in onSensorChanged(), I am getting the absolute value of the current x,x,z values and subtracting SensorManager.GRAVITY_EARTH (9.8 m/s) from this. The resulting value has to be bigger than a threshold value 10 times in a row to set a flag saying a fall has been detected by the accelerometer, the threshold value is about 8m/s. Also I'm comparing the orientation of the phone as soon as the threshold has been passed and the orienation of it when the threshold is no longer being passed, this sets another flag saying the orientation sensor has detected a fall. When both flags are set, an event occurs to check is user ok, etc etc. My problem is with the threshold, when the phone is held straight up the absolute value of accelerometer is about 9.8 m/s, but when i hold it still at an angle it can be over 15m/s. This is causing other events to trigger the fall detection, and if i increase the threshold to avoid that, it won't detect falls. Can anyone give me some advice here with what possible values i should use or how to even improve my method? Many thanks.

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  • Calculating with a variable outside of its bounds in C

    - by aquanar
    If I make a calculation with a variable where an intermediate part of the calculation goes higher then the bounds of that variable type, is there any hazard that some platforms may not like? This is an example of what I'm asking: int a, b; a=30000; b=(a*32000)/32767; I have compiled this, and it does give the correct answer of 29297 (well, within truncating error, anyway). But the part that worries me is that 30,000*32,000 = 960,000,000, which is a 30-bit number, and thus cannot be stored in a 16-bit int. The end result is well within the bounds of an int, but I was expecting that whatever working part of memory would have the same size allocated as the largest source variables did, so an overflow error would occur. This is just a small example to show my problem, I am trying to avoid using floating points by making the fraction be a fraction of the max amount able to be stored in that variable (in this case, a signed integer, so 32767 on the positive side), because the embedded system I'm using I believe does not have an FPU. So how do most processors handle calculations out of the bounds of the source and destination variables?

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  • EventHandlers saved to databases.

    - by Stacey
    In a database application (using Sql Server right now, in C#, with Entity Framework 4.0) I have a situation where I need to trigger events when some values change. For instance assume a class "Trackable". class Trackable { string Name { get; set; } int Positive { get; set; } int Negative { get; set; } int Total { get; set; } // event OnChanged } Trackable is represented in the database as follows; table Trackables Id | guid name | varchar(32) positive | int negative | int Total is of course, calculated at runtime. When a trackable event changes, I want to inspect its previous value, and then see what it is changing to, and be capable of reacting accordingly. However different trackables need to trigger different events (to avoid a huge, massive cascading switch/if block). If this were just only C# code it would be easy - but they have to be saved to the database. I can't divide up each different trackable into a different table/class, that would be silly - they are all identical, but the event raised is different based on how they are made. So I guess my question is, is there any way to store an event handler in a database such that.. Trackable t1 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable1" OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable1Change) } Trackable t2 = new Trackable() { Name = "Trackable2", OnChange += TrackableChangedEventHandler(OnTrackable2Change) }

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  • How to gracefully handle YouTube thumbnail broken images when videos are taken down?

    - by mrjf
    Our site contains some lists of YouTube videos with their thumbnails linked to the movies themselves. We fetch the thumbnail URLs from the YouTube API, and hotlink to them in situ on YouTube's servers. So our image tags look like: <img src="http://i.ytimg.com/vi/o6CHqSN7O-o/2.jpg" alt="" width="133" height="78" /> The problem is that sometimes a video gets removed -- and so does the thumbnail. We don't know when that might happen, and our thumbnails just turn into broken images. How can we handle this? There are a number of solutions: Download thumbnails and store them locally -- movie won't work, but that's ok, it will explain it was removed, and we avoid the broken image Check periodically with the API to see if the image thumbnail has changed -- if it no longer exists, substitute our own "movie removed" thumbnail. This is pretty heavy on the API calling! Use JavaScript to replace broken images (don't like this one much) Our ideal solution would be to point the img src to a location on YouTube that would display a friendly "move removed" image when a movie goes down. However, that doesn't seem to exist. Anyone else dealt with this? Thanks!

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  • Sanitizing user input before adding it to the DOM in Javascript

    - by I GIVE TERRIBLE ADVICE
    I'm writing the JS for a chat application I'm working on in my free time, and I need to have HTML identifiers that change according to user submitted data. This is usually something conceptually shaky enough that I would not even attempt it, but I don't see myself having much of a choice this time. What I need to do then is to escape the HTML id to make sure it won't allow for XSS or breaking HTML. Here's the code: var user_id = escape(id) var txt = '<div class="chut">'+ '<div class="log" id="chut_'+user_id+'"></div>'+ '<textarea id="chut_'+user_id+'_msg"></textarea>'+ '<label for="chut_'+user_id+'_to">To:</label>'+ '<input type="text" id="chut_'+user_id+'_to" value='+user_id+' readonly="readonly" />'+ '<input type="submit" id="chut_'+user_id+'_send" value="Message"/>'+ '</div>'; What would be the best way to escape id to avoid any kind of problem mentioned above? As you can see, right now I'm using the built-in escape() function, but I'm not sure of how good this is supposed to be compared to other alternatives. I'm mostly used to sanitizing input before it goes in a text node, not an id itself.

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  • Update MySQl table onDrop?

    - by dougvt
    Hi all. I am writing a PHP/MySQL application (using CodeIgniter) that uses some jQuery functionality for dragging table rows. I have a table in which the user can drag rows to the desired order (kind of a queue for which I need to preserve the rank of each row). I've been trying to figure out how to (and whether I should) update the database each time the user drops a row, in order to simplify the UI and avoid a "Save" button. I have the jQuery working and can send a serialized list back to the server onDrop, but is it good design practice to run an update query this often? The table will usually have 30-40 rows max, but if the user drags row 1 far down the list, then potentially all the rows would need to be updated to update the rank field. I've been wondering whether to send a giant query to the server, to loop through the rows in PHP and update each row with its own Update query, to send a small serialized list to a stored procedure to let the server do all the work, or perhaps a better method I haven't considered. I've read that stored procedures in MySQL are not very efficient and use a separate process for each call. Any advice as to the right solution here? Thanks very much for your help!

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  • Show my website's content on other websites. Is iframe only option?

    - by Jashwant
    In my project, I have created a code snippet which can be copied and then put in any website. It shows my content on other websites. What I am using now is : <script type='text/javascript'> var user = 'abc'; var age = '23'; document.write('<iframe src="http://www.mysite.com/page.php?user='+ user + '&age=' + age + '" ></iframe'); </script> In page.php, I do some processing based on user and age and show dynamic content. My approach works fine. But when I look into some good standard ways to do such tasks, I find a different way. Take an example of google adsense code. <script type='text/javascript'> var a = 'somedata'; var b = 'someotherdata'; </script> <script type='text/javascript' src='http://www.google.com/adsenseurl.js'></script> I guess, since a and b are global; adsenseurl.js must be using it and may be finally they are showing it on iframe. So, now the question. What's the advantage in using google's approach and whats wrong in my approach ? p.s. I know I should try to avoid using iframes but I dont see any other way to accomplish this.

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  • Replacing repetitively occuring loops with eval in Javascript - good or bad?

    - by Herc
    Hello stackoverflow! I have a certain loop occurring several times in various functions in my code. To illustrate with an example, it's pretty much along the lines of the following: for (var i=0;i<= 5; i++) { function1(function2(arr[i],i),$('div'+i)); $('span'+i).value = function3(arr[i]); } Where i is the loop counter of course. For the sake of reducing my code size and avoid repeating the loop declaration, I thought I should replace it with the following: function loop(s) { for (var i=0;i<= 5; i++) { eval(s); } } [...] loop("function1(function2(arr[i],i),$('div'+i));$('span'+i).value = function3(arr[i]);"); Or should I? I've heard a lot about eval() slowing code execution and I'd like it to work as fast as a proper loop even in the Nintendo DSi browser, but I'd also like to cut down on code. What would you suggest? Thank you in advance!

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  • Alert Box Methods

    - by Vecta
    I just need a little advice on what may be the best method for handling my situation. I'm in need of placing three buttons in the sidebar of the website I maintain. The website is massive and hard to handle. Currently, it's all HTML files (there are over 10,000 of them believe it or not). We're transitioning to a database website so I don't want to make any sweeping changes that are site-wide, as they may just be scrapped in our re-design process in coming months. However, these buttons are for an application process. When you click on them, an alert box will need to pop up to give you a bit of information and they either allow you to cancel the action or proceed. The buttons are currently located in the left nav which is included on every page of the website. Would it be possible to accomplish this using JS or jQuery? I'd be unable to easily add scripts into the tags on all of the applicable pages, but I'd like to avoid the browser driven "http://www...Says: blah blah" message if possible. Any insight is greatly appreciated! Thank you!

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  • Patterns to deal with with functions that can have different kinds of results.

    - by KaptajnKold
    Suppose you have an method on an object that given the some input alters the objects state if the input validates according to some complex logic. Now suppose that when the input doesn't validate, it can be due to several different things, each of which we would like to be able to deal with in different ways. I'm sure many of you are thinking: That's what exceptions are for! I've thought of this also. But my reservation against using exceptions is that in some cases there is nothing exceptional about the input not validating and I really would like to avoid using exceptions to control what is really just in the expected flow of the program. If there were only one interpretation possible, I could simply choose to return a boolean value indicating whether or not the operation resulted in a state change or not and the respond appropriately when it did not. There is of course also the option to return a status code which the client can then choose to interpret or not. I don't like this much either because there is nothing semantic about status codes. The solution I have so far is to always check for each possible situation which I am able to handle before I call the method which then returns a boolean to inform the client if the object changed state. This leaves me the flexibility to handle as few or as many as the possible situations as I wish depending on the context I am in. It also has the benefit of making the method I am calling simpler to write. The drawback is that there is quite a lot of duplication in the client code wherever I call the method. Which of these solutions do you prefer and why? What other patterns do people use for providing meaningful feedback from functions? I know that some languages support multiple return values, and I if I had that option I would surely prefer it.

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  • Zend Metadata Cache in file

    - by Matthieu
    I set up a metadata cache in Zend Framework because a lot of DESCRIBE queries were executed and it affected the performances. $frontendOptions = array ('automatic_serialization' => true); $backendOptions = array ('cache_dir' => CACHE_PATH . '/db-tables-metadata'); $cache = Zend_Cache::factory( 'Core', 'File', $frontendOptions, $backendOptions ); Zend_Db_Table::setDefaultMetadataCache($cache); I can indeed see the cache files created, and the website works great. However, when I launch unit tests, or a script of the same application that perform DB queries, I end up with an error because Zend couldn't read the cache files. This is because in the website, the cache files are created by the www user, and when I run phpunit or a script, it tries to read them with my user and it fails. Do you see any solution to that? I have some quickfix ideas but I'm looking for a good/stable solution. And I'd rather avoid running phpunit or the scripts as www if possible (for practical reasons).

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  • Set attribute disabled to options NOT containing a certain string

    - by kuswantin
    I know this should be easier if I could only use optgroups. But I am trying to avoid hacking core of my CMS, so jQuery should come to rescue again, hopefully. I have a select with options in a hierarchy sometimes, and I want to put attributes disabled to any of options containing text NOT starting with a dash. I want to code like: Set disabled attributes to selectors with options text NOT starting with a dash ("-"). <select id="options"> <option value="" selected="selected">- Please choose -</option> <option value="1">Parent1</option> <option value="2">-child1</option> <option value="3">-child2</option> <option value="4">-child3</option> <option value="5">-child4</option> <option value="6">Parent2</option> <option value="7">-child5</option> <option value="8">-child6</option> <option value="9">-child7</option> <option value="10">-child8</option> </select> The closest solution is here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2012299/contain-start-by, $.extend($.expr[':'], { startsWith: function(elem,match) { return (elem.textContent || elem.innerText || "").indexOf(match[3]) == 0; } }); But I can't seem to do it right this far. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thank you very much.

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