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  • Google Docs iphone library error reporting

    - by phil harris
    I'm in the process of adding a Google Docs interface to my iPhone app, and I'm largely following the example in the GoogleDocs.m file from Tom Saxton's example app. The objective-c library I'm using is from http://code.google.com/p/gdata-objectivec-client/wiki/GDataObjCIntroduction The library file used is from gdata-objectivec-client-1.10.0.zip. This service:username:password method is a slight variant of the one found in the Saxton file GoogleDocs.m starting at line 351: - (void)service:(NSString *)username password:(NSString *)password { if(service == nil) { service = [[[GDataServiceGoogleDocs alloc] init] autorelease]; [service setUserAgent:s_strUserAgent]; [service setShouldCacheDatedData:NO]; [service setServiceShouldFollowNextLinks:NO]; (void)[service authenticateWithDelegate:self didAuthenticateSelector:@selector(ticket:authenticatedWithError:)]; } // update the username/password each time the service is requested if (username != nil && [username length] && password != nil && [password length]) [service setUserCredentialsWithUsername:username password:password]; else [service setUserCredentialsWithUsername:nil password:nil]; } // associated callback for service:username:password: method - (void)ticket:(GDataServiceTicket *)ticket authenticatedWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"%@",@"authenticatedWithError called"); if(error == nil) [self selectBackupRestore]; else { NSLog(@"error code(%d)", [error code]); NSLog(@"error domain(%d)", [error domain]); NSLog(@"localizedDescription(%@)", error.localizedDescription); NSLog(@"localizedFailureReason(%@)", error.localizedFailureReason); NSLog(@"localizedRecoveryOptions(%@)", error.localizedRecoveryOptions); NSLog(@"localizedRecoverySuggestion(%@)", error.localizedRecoverySuggestion); } } Please note the service:username:password method and the callback compile and run fine. The problem is that the callback is passing a non-nil NSError object. I added an NSLog() for every error reporting attribute of NSError and the (Xcode) log output of a test run is below. [Session started at 2010-05-27 12:27:16 -0700.] 2010-05-27 12:27:38.778 iFilebox[74596:207] authenticatedWithError called 2010-05-27 12:27:38.779 iFilebox[74596:207] error code(-1) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.780 iFilebox[74596:207] error domain(499324) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.781 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedDescription(Operation could not be completed. (com.google.GDataServiceDomain error -1.)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.782 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedFailureReason((null)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.782 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedRecoveryOptions((null)) 2010-05-27 12:27:38.783 iFilebox[74596:207] localizedRecoverySuggestion((null)) My essential question is in the error reporting. I was hoping the localizedDescription would be more specific of the error. All I get for the error code value is -1, and the only description of the error is "Operation could not be completed. (com.google.GDataServiceDomain error -1.". Not very helpful. Does anyone know what a GDataServiceDomain error -1 is? Where can I find a full list of all error codes returned, and a description of what they mean?

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  • Java threads not working correctly with linkedlist

    - by user69514
    Hi I am working on the sleeping barber problem. with the addition of having priority customer when they arrive they go in the front of the line and they are the next ones to get a haircut. I'm using a linkedlist and if I see a priority customer I put him in the beginning of the list, if the customer is not priority he goes to the end of the list. then I call the wantHaircut method getting the first element of the list. my problem is that the customer are being processed in the order they arrive, and the priority customer have to wait. here is the code where it all happens. any ideas what I am doing wrong? thanks public void arrivedBarbershop(Customer c){ if(waiting < numChairs && c.isPriority()){ System.out.println("Customer " + c.getID() + ": is a priority customer - SITTING -"); mutex.up(); customer_list.addFirst(c); } else if(waiting >= numChairs && c.isPriority()){ System.out.println("Customer " + c.getID() + ": is a priority customer - STANDING -"); mutex.up(); customer_list.addFirst(c); } else if(waiting < numChairs && !c.isPriority()){ waiting++; System.out.println("Customer " + c.getID() + ": arrived, sitting in the waiting room"); customer_list.addLast(c); customers.up(); // increment waiting customers } else if(waiting >= numChairs && !c.isPriority()) { System.out.println("Customer " + c.getID() + ": went to another barber because waiting room was full - " + waiting + " waiting"); mutex.up(); } if(!customer_list.isEmpty()){ this.wantHairCut(customer_list.removeFirst()); } } public void wantHairCut(Customer c) { mutex.up(); barber.down(); // waits for being allowed in barber chair System.out.println("Customer " + c.getID() + ": getting haircut"); try { /** haircut takes between 1 and 2 seconds **/ Thread.sleep(Barbershop.randomInt(1, 2) * 1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { } System.out.println("Barber: finished cutting customer " + c.getID() + "'s hair"); c.gotHaircut = true; cutting.up(); // signals cutting has finished /** customer must pay now **/ this.wantToCashout(c); }

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  • java web application best practices

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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  • MSSQL 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but MS SQL does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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  • How to obtain the first cluster of the directory's data in FAT using C# (or at least C++) and Win32A

    - by DarkWalker
    So I have a FAT drive, lets say H: and a directory 'work' (full path 'H:\work'). I need to get the NUMBER of the first cluster of that directory. The number of the first cluster is 2-bytes value, that is stored in the 26th and 27th bytes of the folder enty (wich is 32 bytes). Lets say I am doing it with file, NOT a directory. I can use code like this: static public string GetDirectoryPtr(string dir) { IntPtr ptr = CreateFile(@"H:\Work\dover.docx", GENERIC_READ, FILE_SHARE_READ | FILE_SHARE_WRITE, IntPtr.Zero, OPEN_EXISTING, 0,//FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS, IntPtr.Zero); try { const uint bytesToRead = 2; byte[] readbuffer = new byte[bytesToRead]; if (ptr.ToInt32() == -1) return String.Format("Error: cannot open direcotory {0}", dir); if (SetFilePointer(ptr, 26, 0, 0) == -1) return String.Format("Error: unable to set file pointer on file {0}", ptr); uint read = 0; // real count of read bytes if (!ReadFile(ptr, readbuffer, bytesToRead, out read, 0)) return String.Format("cant read from file {0}. Error #{1}", ptr, Marshal.GetLastWin32Error()); int result = readbuffer[0] + 16 * 16 * readbuffer[1]; return result.ToString();//ASCIIEncoding.ASCII.GetString(readbuffer); } finally { CloseHandle(ptr); } } And it will return some number, like 19 (quite real to me, this is the only file on the disk). But I DONT need a file, I need a folder. So I am puttin FILE_FLAG_BACKUP_SEMANTICS param for CreateFile call... and dont know what to do next =) msdn is very clear on this issue http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa365258(v=VS.85).aspx It sounds to me like: "There is no way you can get a number of the folder's first cluster". The most desperate thing is that my tutor said smth like "You are going to obtain this or you wont pass this course". The true reason why he is so sure this is possible is because for 10 years (or may be more) he recieved the folder's first cluster number as a HASH of the folder's addres (and I was stupid enough to point this to him, so now I cant do it the same way) PS: This is the most spupid task I have ever had!!! This value is not really used anythere in program, it is only fcking pointless integer.

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  • Makefile issue with compiling a C++ program

    - by Steve
    I recently got MySQL compiled and working on Cygwin, and got a simple test example from online to verify that it worked. The test example compiled and ran successfully. However, when incorporating MySQL in a hobby project of mine it isn't compiling which I believe is due to how the Makefile is setup, I have no experience with Makefiles and after reading tutorials about them, I have a better grasp but still can't get it working correctly. When I try and compile my hobby project I recieve errors such as: Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x492): undefined reference to `_mysql_insert_id' Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x4c1): undefined reference to `_mysql_affected_rows' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[1]: *** [build] Error 1 make: *** [all] Error 2 Here is my Makefile, it worked with compiling and building the source before I attempted to put in MySQL support into the project. The LIBMYSQL paths are correct, verified by 'mysql_config'. COMPILER = g++ WARNING1 = -Wall -Werror -Wformat-security -Winline -Wshadow -Wpointer-arith WARNING2 = -Wcast-align -Wcast-qual -Wredundant-decls LIBMYSQL = -I/usr/local/include/mysql -L/usr/local/lib/mysql -lmysqlclient DEBUGGER = -g3 OPTIMISE = -O C_FLAGS = $(OPTIMISE) $(DEBUGGER) $(WARNING1) $(WARNING2) -export-dynamic $(LIBMYSQL) L_FLAGS = -lz -lm -lpthread -lcrypt $(LIBMYSQL) OBJ_DIR = Obj/ SRC_DIR = Source/ MUD_EXE = project MUD_DIR = TestP/ LOG_DIR = $(MUD_DIR)Files/Logs/ ECHOCMD = echo -e L_GREEN = \e[1;32m L_WHITE = \e[1;37m L_BLUE = \e[1;34m L_RED = \e[1;31m L_NRM = \e[0;00m DATE = `date +%d-%m-%Y` FILES = $(wildcard $(SRC_DIR)*.cpp) C_FILES = $(sort $(FILES)) O_FILES = $(patsubst $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp, $(OBJ_DIR)%.o, $(C_FILES)) all: @$(ECHOCMD) " Compiling $(L_RED)$(MUD_EXE)$(L_NRM)."; @$(MAKE) -s build build: $(O_FILES) @rm -f $(MUD_EXE) $(COMPILER) -o $(MUD_EXE) $(L_FLAGS) $(O_FILES) @echo " Finished Compiling $(MUD_EXE)."; @chmod g+w $(MUD_EXE) @chmod a+x $(MUD_EXE) @chmod g+w $(O_FILES) $(OBJ_DIR)%.o: $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp @echo " Compiling $@"; $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< -o $@ .cpp.o: $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< clean: @echo " Complete compile on $(MUD_EXE)."; @rm -f $(OBJ_DIR)*.o $(MUD_EXE) @$(MAKE) -s build I like the functionality of the Makefile, instead of spitting out all the arguments etc, it just spits out the "Compiling [Filename]" etc. If I add -c to the L_FLAGS then it compiles (I think) but instead spits out stuff like: g++: Obj/Database.o: linker input file unused because linking not done After a full day of trying and research on google, I'm no closer to solving my problem, so I come to you guys to see if you can explain to me why all this is happening and if possible, steps to solve. Regards, Steve

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  • Selecting and Populating a unFocused tab.

    - by Deyon
    I'm having a problem displaying data from a function to text box within a tab. If you run the code and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." I get an error; "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." I'm guessing this is because "Tab 2" is/was not rendered yet. Now if I run the code, select "Tab 2" then select "Tab 1" and click "Select Tab 2 and Fill..." it works the way I would like. Dose any one know a way around this problem. ----Full Flex 4/Flash Builder Code just copy paste---- <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <s:WindowedApplication xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/halo" creationComplete=" "> <fx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function showtab2():void { mytextbox.text="I made it!"; tn.selectedIndex=1; } ]]> </fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <!-- Place non-visual elements (e.g., services, value objects) here --> </fx:Declarations> <mx:Panel title="TabNavigator Container Example" height="90%" width="90%" paddingTop="10" paddingLeft="10" paddingRight="10" paddingBottom="10"> <mx:Label width="100%" color="blue" text="Select the tabs to change the panel."/> <mx:TabNavigator id="tn" width="100%" height="100%"> <!-- Define each panel using a VBox container. --> <mx:VBox label="Panel 1"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 1"/> <mx:Button label="Select Tab 2 and Fill with Text" click="showtab2()"/> </mx:VBox> <mx:VBox label="Panel 2"> <mx:Label text="TabNavigator container panel 2"/> <s:TextInput id="mytextbox" /> </mx:VBox> </mx:TabNavigator> <mx:HBox> </mx:HBox> </mx:Panel> </s:WindowedApplication>

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  • jQuery AJAX POST gives undefined index

    - by Sebastian
    My eventinfo.php is giving the following output: <br /> <b>Notice</b>: Undefined index: club in <b>/homepages/19/d361310357/htdocs/guestvibe/wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe/eventinfo.php</b> on line <b>11</b><br /> [] HTML (index.php): <select name="club" class="dropdown" id="club"> <?php getClubs(); ?> </select> jQuery (index.php): <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://www.guestvibe.com/wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe/eventinfo.php", data: $('#club').serialize(), success: function(data) { $('#rightbox_inside').html('<h2>' + $('#club').val() + '<span style="font-size: 14px"> (' + data[0].day + ')</h2><hr><p><b>Entry:</b> ' + data[0].entry + '</p><p><b>Queue jump:</b> ' + data[0].queuejump + '</p><br><p><i>Guestlist closes at ' + data[0].closing + '</i></p>'); }, dataType: "json" }); }); $('#club').change(function(event) { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://www.guestvibe.com/wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe/eventinfo.php", data: $(this).serialize(), success: function(data) { $('#rightbox_inside').hide().html('<h2>' + $('#club').val() + '<span style="font-size: 14px"> (' + data[0].day + ')</h2><hr><p><b>Entry:</b> ' + data[0].entry + '</p><p><b>Queue jump:</b> ' + data[0].queuejump + '</p><br><p><i>Guestlist closes at ' + data[0].closing + '</i></p>').fadeIn('500'); }, dataType: "json" }); }); </script> I can run alerts from the jQuery, so it is active. I've copied this as is from an old version of the website, but I've changed the file structure (through to move to WordPress) so I suspect the variables might not even be reaching eventinfo.php in the first place... index.php is in wp-content/themes/cambridge and eventinfo.php is in wp-content/themes/yasmin/guestvibe but I've tried to avoid structuring issues by referencing the URL in full. Any ideas?

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  • extra white line under li items that have no border

    - by isabel018
    I have a problem with extra white lines showing up under my list items. It's not a border as I haven't set any borders, except the one under My Account, it's just to show that the white line is not a border. The one under it is -- a 4px border the same color as the background. This problem occurred after I had resolved a conflict between my Nivo Slider and the Woocommerce plugin on my WP site. I got both of them to work together, but then this other issue with the list cropped up. Any ideas as to what caused this and how to fix it? Here's my CSS if that helps: #header #navigation ul.nav > li.current_page_item > a { color: #D4145A;} #header #navigation ul.nav > li:hover a { border-width: 0px 0px 4px; border-style: none none solid; border-color: -moz-use-text-color -moz-use-text-color rgb(212, 20, 90); -moz-border-top-colors: none; -moz-border-right-colors: none; -moz-border-bottom-colors: none; -moz-border-left-colors: none; border-image: none; background: none repeat scroll 0% 0% rgb(212, 20, 90);} and the HTML for it too: <nav id="navigation" class="col-full parent" role="navigation"> <ul id="main-nav" class="nav fl parent"> <li class="page_item"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-11"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-12"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-13 parent"></li> <li class="page_item page-item-15 current_page_item parent"> <a href=""></a> <ul class="children"></ul></li> </ul> </nav> Help please! I'm at my wits' end! Thanks!

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  • Wordpress pages address rewrite

    - by kemp
    UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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  • ajaxSubmit and Other Code. Can someone help me determine what this code is doing?

    - by Matt Dawdy
    I've inherited some code that I need to debug. It isn't working at present. My task is to get it to work. No other requirements have been given to me. No, this isn't homework, this is a maintenance nightmare job. ASP.Net (framework 3.5), C#, jQury 1.4.2. This project makes heavy use of jQuery and AJAX. There is a drop down on a page that, when an item is chosen, is supposed to add that item (it's a user) to an object in the database. To accomplish this, the previous programmer first, on page load, dynamically loads the entire page through AJAX. To do this, he's got 5 div's, and each one is loaded from a jquery call to a different full page in the website. Somehow, the HTML and BODY and all the other stuff is stripped out and the contents of the div are loaded with the content of the aspx page. Which seems incredibly wrong to me since it relies on the browser to magically strip out html, head, body, form tags and merge with the existing html head body form tags. Also, as the "content" page is returned as a string, the previous programmer has this code running on it before it is appended to the div: function CleanupResponseText(responseText, uniqueName) { responseText = responseText.replace("theForm.submit();", "SubmitSubForm(theForm, $(theForm).parent());"); responseText = responseText.replace(new RegExp("theForm", "g"), uniqueName); responseText = responseText.replace(new RegExp("doPostBack", "g"), "doPostBack" + uniqueName); return responseText; } When the dropdown itself fires it's onchange event, here is the code that gets fired: function SubmitSubForm(form, container) { //ShowLoading(container); $(form).ajaxSubmit( { url: $(form).attr("action"), success: function(responseText) { $(container).html(CleanupResponseText(responseText, form.id)); $("form", container).css("margin-top", "0").css("padding-top", "0"); //HideLoading(container); } } ); } This blows up in IE, with the message that "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object doesn't support this property or method" -- which, I think, has to be that $(form).ajaxSubmit method doesn't exist. What is this code really trying to do? I am so turned around right now that I think my only option is to scrap everything and start over. But I'd rather not do that unless necessary. Is this code good? Is it working against .Net, and is that why we are having issues?

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  • jms unresolved message-destination-ref

    - by portoalet
    hi, I am using netbeans 6.8, and glassfish v3, and making a simple jms application to work. I got this: com.sun.enterprise.container.common.spi.util.InjectionException: Exception attempting to inject Unresolved Message-Destination-Ref jms/[email protected]@null into class enterpriseapplication4.Main Code: public class Main { @Resource(name = "jms/myQueue") private static Topic myQueue; @Resource(name = "jms/myFactory") private static ConnectionFactory myFactory; ... // the rest is just boiler plate created by netbeans } In my Glassfish v3 admin console, I have jms/myFactory as my ConnectionFactory and jms/myQueue as my Destination Resources. What am I missing? Full stack: WARNING: enterprise.deployment.backend.invalidDescriptorMappingFailure com.sun.enterprise.container.common.spi.util.InjectionException: Exception attempting to inject Unresolved Message-Destination-Ref jms/[email protected]@null into class enterpriseapplication4.Main at com.sun.enterprise.container.common.impl.util.InjectionManagerImpl._inject(InjectionManagerImpl.java:614) at com.sun.enterprise.container.common.impl.util.InjectionManagerImpl.inject(InjectionManagerImpl.java:384) at com.sun.enterprise.container.common.impl.util.InjectionManagerImpl.injectClass(InjectionManagerImpl.java:210) at com.sun.enterprise.container.common.impl.util.InjectionManagerImpl.injectClass(InjectionManagerImpl.java:202) at org.glassfish.appclient.client.acc.AppClientContainer$ClientMainClassSetting.getClientMainClass(AppClientContainer.java:599) at org.glassfish.appclient.client.acc.AppClientContainer.getMainMethod(AppClientContainer.java:498) at org.glassfish.appclient.client.acc.AppClientContainer.completePreparation(AppClientContainer.java:397) at org.glassfish.appclient.client.acc.AppClientContainer.prepare(AppClientContainer.java:311) at org.glassfish.appclient.client.AppClientFacade.prepareACC(AppClientFacade.java:264) at org.glassfish.appclient.client.acc.agent.AppClientContainerAgent.premain(AppClientContainerAgent.java:75) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at sun.instrument.InstrumentationImpl.loadClassAndStartAgent(InstrumentationImpl.java:323) at sun.instrument.InstrumentationImpl.loadClassAndCallPremain(InstrumentationImpl.java:338) Caused by: javax.naming.NamingException: Lookup failed for 'java:comp/env/jms/myQueue' in SerialContext targetHost=localhost,targetPort=3700 [Root exception is javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: No object bound for java:comp/env/jms/myQueue [Root exception is java.lang.NullPointerException]] at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:442) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:392) at com.sun.enterprise.container.common.impl.util.InjectionManagerImpl._inject(InjectionManagerImpl.java:513) ... 15 more Caused by: javax.naming.NameNotFoundException: No object bound for java:comp/env/jms/myQueue [Root exception is java.lang.NullPointerException] at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.JavaURLContext.lookup(JavaURLContext.java:218) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:428) ... 17 more Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.naming.InitialContext.getURLScheme(InitialContext.java:269) at javax.naming.InitialContext.getURLOrDefaultInitCtx(InitialContext.java:318) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:392) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.util.JndiNamingObjectFactory.create(JndiNamingObjectFactory.java:75) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.GlassfishNamingManagerImpl.lookup(GlassfishNamingManagerImpl.java:688) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.GlassfishNamingManagerImpl.lookup(GlassfishNamingManagerImpl.java:657) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.impl.JavaURLContext.lookup(JavaURLContext.java:148) ... 18 more Regards

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  • Fixed strptime exception with thread lock, but slows down the program

    - by eWizardII
    I have the following code, which when is running inside of a thread (the full code is here - https://github.com/eWizardII/homobabel/blob/master/lovebird.py) for null in range(0,1): while True: try: with open('C:/Twitter/tweets/user_0_' + str(self.id) + '.json', mode='w') as f: f.write('[') threadLock.acquire() for i, seed in enumerate(Cursor(api.user_timeline,screen_name=self.ip).items(200)): if i>0: f.write(", ") f.write("%s" % (json.dumps(dict(sc=seed.author.statuses_count)))) j = j + 1 threadLock.release() f.write("]") except tweepy.TweepError, e: with open('C:/Twitter/tweets/user_0_' + str(self.id) + '.json', mode='a') as f: f.write("]") print "ERROR on " + str(self.ip) + " Reason: ", e with open('C:/Twitter/errors_0.txt', mode='a') as a_file: new_ii = "ERROR on " + str(self.ip) + " Reason: " + str(e) + "\n" a_file.write(new_ii) break Now without the thread lock I generate the following error: Exception in thread Thread-117: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Python27\lib\threading.py", line 530, in __bootstrap_inner self.run() File "C:/Twitter/homobabel/lovebird.py", line 62, in run for i, seed in enumerate(Cursor(api.user_timeline,screen_name=self.ip).items(200)): File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\cursor.py", line 110, in next self.current_page = self.page_iterator.next() File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\cursor.py", line 85, in next items = self.method(page=self.current_page, *self.args, **self.kargs) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\binder.py", line 196, in _call return method.execute() File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\binder.py", line 182, in execute result = self.api.parser.parse(self, resp.read()) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\parsers.py", line 75, in parse result = model.parse_list(method.api, json) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\models.py", line 38, in parse_list results.append(cls.parse(api, obj)) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\models.py", line 49, in parse user = User.parse(api, v) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\models.py", line 86, in parse setattr(user, k, parse_datetime(v)) File "build\bdist.win-amd64\egg\tweepy\utils.py", line 17, in parse_datetime date = datetime(*(time.strptime(string, '%a %b %d %H:%M:%S +0000 %Y')[0:6])) File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 454, in _strptime_time return _strptime(data_string, format)[0] File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 300, in _strptime _TimeRE_cache = TimeRE() File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 188, in __init__ self.locale_time = LocaleTime() File "C:\Python27\lib\_strptime.py", line 77, in __init__ raise ValueError("locale changed during initialization") ValueError: locale changed during initialization The problem is with thread lock on, each thread runs itself serially basically, and it takes way to long for each loop to run for there to be any advantage to having a thread anymore. So if there isn't a way to get rid of the thread lock, is there a way to have it run the for loop inside of the try statement faster?

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  • Swapping two jQuery draggable list items not working properly (with jsFiddle example)

    - by Tony_Henrich
    The minimalist working example below swaps the two boxes when box 'one' is dragged and dropped on box 'two'. The problem is that when box 'one' is dropped, its style has 'top' & 'left' values causing it to be placed away from where it should drop. Its class includes 'ui-draggable-dragging'. It seems the top & left values are related to the amount the elements were dragged before the drop. And the dragging was 'interrupted' hence the residual 'ui-draggable-dragging' class? What am I missing to make the swap work seamlessly? full jsfiddle example here <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="includes/jquery-ui-1.8.2.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.fn.swapWith = function(to) { return this.each(function() { var copy_to = $(to).clone(true); var copy_from = $(this).clone(true); $(to).replaceWith(copy_from); $(this).replaceWith(copy_to); }); }; $(document).ready(function() { options = {revert: true}; $("li").draggable(options) $('#wrapper').droppable({ drop: function(event, ui) { $(ui.draggable).swapWith($('#two')); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form> <ul id="wrapper"> <li id='one'> <div style="width: 100px; height: 100px; border: 1px solid green"> one<br /></div> </li> <li id='two'> <div style="width: 110px; height: 110px; border: 1px solid red"> two<br /></div> </li> </ul> <br /> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Commitment to Zend Framework - any arguments against?

    - by Pekka
    I am refurbishing a big CMS that I have been working on for quite a number of years now. The product itself is great, but some components, the Database and translation classes for example, need urgent replacing - partly self-made as far back as 2002, grown into a bit of a chaos over time, and might have trouble surviving a security audit. So, I've been looking closely at a number of frameworks (or, more exactly, component Libraries, as I do not intend to change the basic structure of the CMS) and ended up with liking Zend Framework the best. They offer a solid MVC model but don't force you into it, and they offer a lot of professional components that have obviously received a lot of attention (Did you know there are multiple plurals in Russian, and you can't translate them using a simple ($number == 0) or ($number > 1) switch? I didn't, but Zend_Translate can handle it. Just to illustrate the level of thorougness the library seems to have been built with.) I am now literally at the point of no return, starting to replace key components of the system by the Zend-made ones. I'm not really having second thoughts - and I am surely not looking to incite a flame war - but before going onward, I would like to step back for a moment and look whether there is anything speaking against tying a big system closely to Zend Framework. What I like about Zend: As far as I can see, very high quality code Extremely well documented, at least regarding introductions to how things work (Haven't had to use detailed API documentation yet) Backed by a company that has an interest in seeing the framework prosper Well received in the community, has a considerable user base Employs coding standards I like Comes with a full set of unit tests Feels to me like the right choice to make - or at least, one of the right choices - in terms of modern, professional PHP development. I have been thinking about encapsulating and abstracting ZF's functionality into own classes to be able to switch frameworks more easily, but have come to the conclusion that this would not be a good idea because: it would be an unnecessary level of abstraction it could cost performance the big advantage of using a framework - the existence of a developer base that is familiar with its components - would partly be cancelled out therefore, the commitment to ZF would be a deep one. Thus my question: Is there anything substantial speaking against committing to the Zend Framework? Do you have insider knowledge of plans of Zend Inc.'s to go evil in 2011, and make it a closed source library? Is Zend Inc. run by vampires? Are there conceptual flaws in the code base you start to notice when you've transitioned all your projects to it? Is the appearance of quality code an illusion? Does the code look good, but run terribly slow on anything below my quad-core workstation?

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  • Jquery - Loading a page with .load and selector doesn't execute script?

    - by PirateKitten
    I'm trying to load one page into another using the .load() method. This loaded page contains a script that I want to execute when it has finished loading. I've put together a barebones example to demonstrate: Index.html: <html> <head> <title>Jquery Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav a').click(function() { $('#contentHolder').load('content.html #toLoad', '', function() {}); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="nav"> <a href="content.html">Click me!</a> </div> <hr /> <div id="contentHolder"> Content loaded will go here </div> </body> </html> Content.html: <div id="toLoad"> This content is from content.html <div id="contentDiv"> This should fade away. </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#contentDiv').fadeOut('slow', function() {} ); </script> </div> When the link is clicked, the content should load and the second paragraph should fade away. However it doesn't execute. If I stick a simple alert("") in the script of content.html it doesn't execute either. However, if I do away with the #toLoad selector in the .load() call, it works fine. I am not sure why this is, as the block is clearly in the scope of the #toLoad div. I don't want to avoid using the selector, as in reality the content.html will be a full HTML page, and I'll only want a select part out of it. Any ideas? If the script from content.html was in the .load() callback, it works fine, however I obviously don't want that logic contained within index.html. I could possibly have the callback use .getScript() to load "content.html.js" afterwards and have the logic in there, that seems to work? I'd prefer to keep the script in content.html, if possible, so that it executes fine when loaded normally too. In fact, I might do this anyway, but I would like to know why the above doesn't work.

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  • Having trouble doing an Update with a Linq to Sql object

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, i've got a simple linq to sql object. I grab it from the database and change a field then save. No rows have been updated. :( When I check the full Sql code that is sent over the wire, I notice that it does an update to the row, not via the primary key but on all the fields via the where clause. Is this normal? I would have thought that it would be easy to update the field(s) with the where clause linking on the Primary Key, instead of where'ing (is that a word :P) on each field. here's the code... using (MyDatabase db = new MyDatabase()) { var boardPost = (from bp in db.BoardPosts where bp.BoardPostId == boardPostId select bp).SingleOrDefault(); if (boardPost != null && boardPost.BoardPostId > 0) { boardPost.ListId = listId; // This changes the value from 0 to 'x' db.SubmitChanges(); } } and here's some sample sql.. exec sp_executesql N'UPDATE [dbo].[BoardPost] SET [ListId] = @p6 WHERE ([BoardPostId] = @p0) AND .... <snip the other fields>',N'@p0 int,@p1 int,@p2 nvarchar(9),@p3 nvarchar(10),@p4 int,@p5 datetime,@p6 int',@p0=1276,@p1=212787,@p2=N'ttreterte',@p3=N'ttreterte3',@p4=1,@p5='2009-09-25 12:32:12.7200000',@p6=72 Now, i know there's a datetime field in this update .. and when i checked the DB it's value was/is '2009-09-25 12:32:12.720' (less zero's, than above) .. so i'm not sure if that is messing up the where clause condition... but still! should it do a where clause on the PK's .. if anything .. for speed! Yes / no ? UPDATE After reading nitzmahone's reply, I then tried playing around with the optimistic concurrency on some values, and it still didn't work :( So then I started some new stuff ... with the optimistic concurrency happening, it includes a where clause on the field it's trying to update. When that happens, it doesn't work. so.. in the above sql, the where clause looks like this ... WHERE ([BoardPostId] = @p0) AND ([ListId] IS NULL) AND ... <rest snipped>) This doesn't sound right! the value in the DB is null, before i do the update. but when i add the ListId value to the where clause (or more to the point, when L2S add's it because of the optomistic concurrecy), it fails to find/match the row. wtf?

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  • urgent..haskell mini interpreter

    - by mohamed elshikh
    i'm asked to implement this project and i have problems in part b which is the eval function this is the full describtion of the project You are required to implement an interpreter for mini-Haskell language. An interpreter is dened in Wikipedia as a computer program that executes, i.e. performs, instructions written in a programming language. The interpreter should be able to evaluate functions written in a special notation, which you will dene. A function is dened by: Function name Input Parameters : dened as a list of variables. The body of the function. The body of the function can be any of the following statements: a) Variable: The function may return any of the input variables. b) Arithmetic Expressions: The arithmetic expressions include input variables and addition, sub- traction, multiplication, division and modulus operations on arithmetic expressions. c) Boolean Expressions: The Boolean expressions include the ordering of arithmetic expressions (applying the relationships: <, =<, , = or =) and the anding, oring and negation of Boolean expressions. d) If-then-else statements: where the if keyword is followed by a Boolean expression. The then and else parts may be followed by any of the statements described here. e) Guarded expressions: where each case consists of a boolean expression and any of the statements described here. The expression consists of any number of cases. The rst case whose condition is true, its body should be evaluated. The guarded expression has to terminate with an otherwise case. f) Function calls: the body of the function may have a call to another function. Note that all inputs passed to the function will be of type Int. The output of the function can be of type Int or Bool. To implement the interpreter, you are required to implement the following: a) Dene a datatype for the following expressions: Variables Arithmetic expressions Boolean expressions If-then-else statements Guarded expressions Functions b) Implement the function eval which evaluates a function. It takes 3 inputs: The name of a function to be evaluated represented as a string. A list of inputs to that function. The arguments will always be of datatype Int. A list of functions. Each function is represented as instance of the datatype that you have created for functions. c) Implement the function get_type that returns the type of the function (as a string). The input to this function is the same as in part b. here is what i've done data Variable = v(char) data Arth= va Variable | Add Arth Arth | Sub Arth Arth | Times Arth Arth | Divide Arth Arth data Bol= Great Arth Arth | Small Arth Arth | Geq Arth Arth | Seq Arth Arth | And Bol Bol | Or Bol Bol | Neg Bol data Cond = data Guard = data Fun =cons String [Variable] Body data Body= bodycons(String) |Bol |Cond |Guard |Arth

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  • C++ Beginner - 'friend' functions and << operator overloading: What is the proper way to overload an

    - by Francisco P.
    Hello, everyone! In a project I'm working on, I have a Score class, defined below in score.h. I am trying to overload it so, when a << operation is performed on it, _points + " " + _name is returned. Here's what I tried to do: ostream & Score::operator<< (ostream & os, Score right) { os << right.getPoints() << " " << right.scoreGetName(); return os; } Here are the errors returned: 1>c:\users\francisco\documents\feup\1a2s\prog\projecto3\projecto3\score.h(30) : error C2804: binary 'operator <<' has too many parameters (This error appears 4 times, actually) I managed to get it working by declaring the overload as a friend function: friend ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); And removing the Score:: from the function declaration in score.cpp (effectively not declaring it as a member). Why does this work, yet the code describe above doesn't? Thanks for your time! Below is the full score.h /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // Score.h // Implementation of the Class Score // Created on: 10-Mai-2010 11:43:56 // Original author: Francisco /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// #ifndef SCORE_H_ #define SCORE_H_ #include <string> #include <iostream> #include <iostream> using std::string; using std::ostream; class Score { public: Score(string name); Score(); virtual ~Score(); void addPoints(int n); string scoreGetName() const; int getPoints() const; void scoreSetName(string name); bool operator>(const Score right) const; ostream & operator<< (ostream & os, Score right); private: string _name; int _points; }; #endif

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  • Can I make a LaTeX macro 'return' a filename?

    - by drfrogsplat
    I'm writing my thesis/dissertation and since its an on-going work I don't always have the actual images ready for the figures I put into my document, but for various reasons want to automatically have it substitute a dummy figure in place when the included graphics file doesn't exist. E.g. I can do something like \includegraphics[width=8cm]{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor} (where \chapdir is a macro for my 'current' chapter directory, e.g. \def\chapdir{./ch_timetravel} and if there's no ./ch_timetravel/figures/fluxcapacitor.jpg it'll insert ./commands/dummy.jpg instead. I've structured my macros (perhaps naïvely?) so that I have a macro (\figFileOrDummy) that determines the appropriate file to include by checking if the argument provided to it exists, so that I can call \includegraphics[properties]{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}}. Except I'm getting various errors depending on how I try to call this, which seem to suggest that I'm approaching the problem in a fundamentally flawed way as far as 'good LaTeX programming' goes. Here's the macro to check if the file exists (and 'return' either filename or the dummy filename): \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% % Figure base name (no extension) to be used if the file exists \def\fodname{#1}% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% % Check if output is PS (.EPS) or PDF (.JPG/.PDF/.PNG/...) figures \ifx\pdfoutput\undefined% % EPS figures only \IfFileExists{\fodname.eps}{}{\def\fodname{\dummyfig}}% \else% % Check existence of various extensions: PDF, TIF, TIFF, JPG, JPEG, PNG, MPS \def\figtest{0}% flag below compared to this value \IfFileExists{\fodname.pdf}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{\def\figfilenamefound{0}}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.jpg}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% \IfFileExists{\fodname.png}{\def\figfilenamefound{1}}{}% % and so on... % If no files found matching the filename (flag is 0) then use the dummy figure \ifx\figfilenamefound\figtest% \def\fodname{\dummyfig}% \fi% \fi% % 'return' the filename \fodname% }% Alternatively, here's a much simpler version which seems to have similar problems: \newcommand{\figFileOrDummy}[1]{% \def\dummyfig{commands/dummy}% \dummyfig% } The \def commands seems to be processed after the expansion of the macro they're trying to define, so it ends up being \def {commands/dummy}... (note the space after \def) and obviously complains. Also it seems to treat the literal contents of the macro as the filename for \includegraphics, rather than resolving/expanding it first, so complains that the file '\def {commands/dummy}... .png' doesn't exist.. I've tried also doing something like \edef\figfilename{\figFileOrDummy{\chapdir/figures/fluxcapacitor}} to try to force it to make \figfilename hold just the value rather than the full macro, but I get an Undefined control sequence error complaining the variables I'm trying to \def in the \figFileOrDummy macro are undefined. So my question is either How do I make this macro expand properly?; or If this is the wrong way of structuring my macros, how should I actually structure such a macro, in order to be able to insert dummy/real figures automatically?; or Is there a package that already handles this type of thing nicely that I've overlooked? I feel like I'm missing something pretty fundamental here...

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  • boost::spirit::karma using the alternatives operator (|) with conditions

    - by Ingemar
    I'm trying to generate a string from my own class called Value using boost::spirit::karma, but i got stuck with this. I've tried to extract my problem into a simple example. I want to generate a String with karma from instances of the following class: class Value { public: enum ValueType { BoolType, NumericType }; Value(bool b) : type_(BoolType), value_(b) {} Value(const double d) : type_(NumericType), value_(d) {}; ValueType type() { return type_; } operator bool() { return boost::get<bool>(value_); } operator double() { return boost::get<double>(value_); } private: ValueType type_; boost::variant<bool, double> value_; }; Here you can see what I'm tying to do: int main() { using karma::bool_; using karma::double_; using karma::rule; using karma::eps; std::string generated; std::back_insert_iterator<std::string> sink(generated); rule<std::back_insert_iterator<std::string>, Value()> value_rule = bool_ | double_; Value bool_value = Value(true); Value double_value = Value(5.0); karma::generate(sink, value_rule, bool_value); std::cout << generated << "\n"; generated.clear(); karma::generate(sink, value_rule, double_value); std::cout << generated << "\n"; return 0; } The first call to karma::generate() works fine because the value is a bool and the first generator in my rule also "consumes" a bool. But the second karma::generate() fails with boost::bad_get because karma tries to eat a bool and calls therefore Value::operator bool(). My next thought was to modify my generator rule and use the eps() generator together with a condition but here i got stuck: value_rule = (eps( ... ) << bool_) | (eps( ... ) << double_); I'm unable to fill the brackets of the eps generator with sth. like this (of course not working): eps(value.type() == BoolType) I've tried to get into boost::phoenix, but my brain seems not to be ready for things like this. Please help me! here is my full example (compiling but not working): main.cpp

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  • Why oh why doesn't my asp.net treeview update?

    - by Brendan
    I'm using an ASP.net treeview on a page with a custom XmlDataSource. When the user clicks on a node of the tree, a detailsview pops up and edits a bunch of things about the underlying object. All this works properly, and the underlying object gets updated in my background object-management classes. Yay! However, my treeview just isn't updating the display. Either immediately (which i would like it to), or on full page re-load (which is the minimal useful level i need it to be at). Am i subclassing XmlDataSource poorly? I really don't know. Can anyone point me in a good direction? Thanks! The markup looks about like this (chaff removed): <data:DefinitionDataSource runat="server" ID="DefinitionTreeSource" RootDefinitionID="uri:1"></data:DefinitionDataSource> <asp:TreeView ID="TreeView" runat="server" DataSourceID="DefinitionTreeSource"> <DataBindings> <asp:TreeNodeBinding DataMember="definition" TextField="name" ValueField="id" /> </DataBindings> </asp:TreeView> <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="False" DataKeyNames="Id" DataSourceID="DefinitionSource" DefaultMode="Edit"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" HeaderStyle-Wrap="false" SortExpression="Name" /> <asp:CommandField ShowCancelButton="False" ShowInsertButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" ButtonType="Button" /> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And the DefinitionTreeSource code looks like this: public class DefinitionDataSource : XmlDataSource { public string RootDefinitionID { get { if (ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] != null) return ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] as String; return null; } set { if (!Object.Equals(ViewState["RootDefinitionID"], value)) { ViewState["RootDefinitionID"] = value; DataBind(); } } } public DefinitionDataSource() { } public override void DataBind() { base.DataBind(); setData(); } private void setData() { String defXML = "<?xml version=\"1.0\" ?>"; Test.Management.TestManager.Definition root = Test.Management.TestManager.Definition.GetDefinitionById(RootDefinitionID); if (root != null) this.Data = defXML + root.ToXMLString(); else this.Data = defXML + "<definition id=\"null\" name=\"Set Root Node\" />"; } } }

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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