Search Results

Search found 31367 results on 1255 pages for 'table valued parameters'.

Page 495/1255 | < Previous Page | 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502  | Next Page >

  • Aggregating a list of dates to start and end date

    - by Joe Mako
    I have a list of dates and IDs, and I would like to roll them up into periods of consucitutive dates, within each ID. For a table with the columns "testid" and "pulldate" in a table called "data": | A79 | 2010-06-02 | | A79 | 2010-06-03 | | A79 | 2010-06-04 | | B72 | 2010-04-22 | | B72 | 2010-06-03 | | B72 | 2010-06-04 | | C94 | 2010-04-09 | | C94 | 2010-04-10 | | C94 | 2010-04-11 | | C94 | 2010-04-12 | | C94 | 2010-04-13 | | C94 | 2010-04-14 | | C94 | 2010-06-02 | | C94 | 2010-06-03 | | C94 | 2010-06-04 | I want to generate a table with the columns "testid", "group", "start_date", "end_date": | A79 | 1 | 2010-06-02 | 2010-06-04 | | B72 | 2 | 2010-04-22 | 2010-04-22 | | B72 | 3 | 2010-06-03 | 2010-06-04 | | C94 | 4 | 2010-04-09 | 2010-04-14 | | C94 | 5 | 2010-06-02 | 2010-06-04 | This is the the code I came up with: SELECT t2.testid, t2.group, MIN(t2.pulldate) AS start_date, MAX(t2.pulldate) AS end_date FROM(SELECT t1.pulldate, t1.testid, SUM(t1.check) OVER (ORDER BY t1.testid,t1.pulldate) AS group FROM(SELECT data.pulldate, data.testid, CASE WHEN data.testid=LAG(data.testid,1) OVER (ORDER BY data.testid,data.pulldate) AND data.pulldate=date (LAG(data.pulldate,1) OVER (PARTITION BY data.testid ORDER BY data.pulldate)) + integer '1' THEN 0 ELSE 1 END AS check FROM data ORDER BY data.testid, data.pulldate) AS t1) AS t2 GROUP BY t2.testid,t2.group ORDER BY t2.group; I use the use the LAG windowing function to compare each row to the previous, putting a 1 if I need to increment to start a new group, I then do a running sum of that column, and then aggregate to the combinations of "group" and "testid". Is there a better way to accomplish my goal, or does this operation have a name? I am using PostgreSQL 8.4

    Read the article

  • Greasemonkey failing to GM_setValue()

    - by HonoredMule
    I have a Greasemonkey script that uses a Javascript object to maintain some stored objects. It covers quite a large volume of information, but substantially less than it successfully stored and retrieved prior to encountering my problem. One value refuses to save, and I can not for the life of me determine why. The following problem code: Works for other larger objects being maintained. Is presently handling a smaller total amount of data than previously worked. Is not colliding with any function or other object definitions. Can (optionally) successfully save the problem storage key as "{}" during code startup. this.save = function(table) { var tables = this.tables; if(table) tables = [table]; for(i in tables) { logger.log(this[tables[i]]); logger.log(JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); GM_setValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user, JSON.stringify(this[tables[i]])); logger.log(tables[i] + "_" + this.user + " updated"); logger.log(GM_getValue(tables[i] + "_" + this.user)); } } The problem is consistently reproducible and the logging statments produce the following output in Firebug: Object { 54,10 = Object } // Expansion shows complete contents as expected, but there is one oddity--Firebug highlights the array keys in purple instead of the usual black for anonymous objects. {"54,10":{"x":54,"y":10,"name":"Lucky Pheasant"}} // The correctly parsed string. bookmarks_HonoredMule saved undefined I have tried altering the format of the object keys, to no effect. Further narrowing down the issue is that this particular value is successfully saved as an empty object ("{}") during code initialization, but skipping that also does not help. Reloading the page confirms that saving of the nonempty object truly failed. Any idea what could cause this behavior? I've thoroughly explored the possibility of hitting size constraints, but it doesn't appear that can be the problem--as previously mentioned, I've already reduced storage usage. Other larger objects save still, and the total number of objects, which was not high already, has further been reduced by an amount greater than the quantity of data I'm attempting to store here.

    Read the article

  • Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

    - by Jim Geurts
    I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

    Read the article

  • many to many relationship mysql select

    - by zeina
    Let's consider 2 tables "schools" and "students". Now a student may belong to different schools in his life, and a school have many students. So this is a many to many example. A third table "links" specify the relation between student and school. Now to query this I do the following: Select sc.sid , -- stands for school id st.uid, -- stands for student id sc.sname, -- stands for school name st.uname, -- stands for student name -- select more data about the student joining other tables for that from students s left join links l on l.uid=st.uid -- l.uid stands for the student id on the links table left join schools sc on sc.sid=l.sid -- l.sid is the id of the school in the links table where st.uid=3 -- 3 is an example this query will return duplicate data for the user id if he has more than one school, so to fix this I added group by st.uid, yet I also need the list of school name related to the same user. Is there a way to do it with fixing the query I wrote instead of having 2 queries? So as example I want to have Luci of schools ( X, Y, Z, R, ...) etc

    Read the article

  • How to fix this simple SQL query?

    - by morpheous
    I have a database with three tables: user_table country_table city_table I want to write ANSI SQL which will allow me to fetch all the user data (i.e. user details including the name of the country of the last school and the name of the city they live in now). The problem I am having is that I have to use a self join, and I am getting slightly confused. The schema is shown below: CREATE TABLE user_table (id int, first_name varchar(16), last_school_country_id int, city_id int); CREATE TABLE country_table (id int, name varchar(32)); CREATE TABLE city_table (id int, country_id int, name varchar(32)); This is the query I have come up with so far, but the results are wrong, and sometimes, the db engine (mySQL), asks me if I want to show all [HUGE NUMBER HERE] results - which makes me suspect that I am unintentionally creating a cartesian product somewhere. Can someone explain what is wrong with this SQL statement, and what I need to do to fix it? SELECT usr.id AS id, usr.first_name, ctry1.name as loc_country_name, ctry2.name as school_country_name, city.name as loc_city_name FROM user_table usr, country_table ctry1, country_table ctry2, city_table city WHERE usr.last_school_country_id=ctry2.id AND usr.city_id=city.id AND city.country_id=ctry1.id AND ctry1.id=ctry2.id;

    Read the article

  • Hosting an Access DB

    - by Mitciv
    Hey, So I'm inexperienced in hosting DB's and I've always had the luxury of someone else getting the db setup. I was going to help a friend out with getting a webpage setup, I've got experience in Asp.Net MVC so I'm going with that. They want to setup a search page to query a db and display the results. My question I have is in getting the DB setup and hosted. They currently just have the Access DB on a local computer. There is basically only one table that would need to be queried for the search. What is the best approach to getting this table/db accessible? They would like to keep the main copy of the db on the local machine, so copying the entire db over to the hosted site would be time consuming, could the lone table needed be solely copied to the host? Should I try to convince them to make changes on the hosted db and just make copies of that for their local machines? Any suggestions are welcome, Again I'm a total noob when it comes to hosting databases. Thanks

    Read the article

  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

    Read the article

  • Spring @Value annotation not using defaults when property is not present

    - by garyj
    Hi All I am trying to use @Value annotation in the parameters of a constructor as follows: @Autowired public StringEncryptor( @Value("${encryptor.password:\"\"}") String password, @Value("${encryptor.algorithm:\"PBEWithMD5AndTripleDES\"}") String algorithm, @Value("${encryptor.poolSize:10}") Integer poolSize, @Value("${encryptor.salt:\"\"}") String salt) { ... } When the properties file is present on the classpath, the properties are loaded perfectly and the test executes fine. However when I remove the properties file from the classpath, I would have expected that the default values would have been used, for example poolSize would be set to 10 or algorithm to PBEWithMD5AndTripleDES however this is not the case. Running the code through a debugger (which would only work after changing @Value("${encryptor.poolSize:10}") Integer poolSize to @Value("${encryptor.poolSize:10}") String poolSize as it was causing NumberFormatExceptions) I find that the defaults are not being set and the parameters are in the form of: poolSize = ${encryptor.poolSize:10} or algorithm = ${encryptor.algorithm:"PBEWithMD5AndTripleDES"} rather than the expected poolSize = 10 or algorithm = "PBEWithMD5AndTripleDES" Based on SPR-4785 the notation such as ${my.property:myDefaultValue} should work. Yet it's not happening for me! Thank you

    Read the article

  • PHP Convert variable names to lowercase?

    - by VeeBee
    I have an api listener script which takes in get parameters. But I seem to be having issues when users tend to pass mixed case variable names on the parameters. For example: http://mylistenerurl.com?paramName1=Hello&paramname2=World I need my listener to be flixible in such a way that the variable names will be interpreted case-insensitively or rather still all in lower case like after I process the query string on some function, they are all returned as lower-cased variables: extract(someFunction($_GET)); process($paramname1, $paramname2); Can anybody shed some light on this? *much appreciated. thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why does this symfony code not work?

    - by morpheous
    I am trying to pass parameters from one action (foo) to another (foobar). In action foo, I set the arguments thus: $request->getParameterHolder()->set('arg1', 'alice'); $request->getParameterHolder()->set('arg2', 'bob'); In action foobar, I try to retrieve the params thus: $arg1 = $request->getParameter('arg1'); $arg2 = $request->getParameter('arg2'); $this->forward404Unless($arg1 && $arg2); //always forwarded Note: I am aware that I can save the params into the user session variable - but I dont want to do that. I want to pass them as parameters - any ideas how to get this to work?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

    Read the article

  • Converting rows to Columns in SQL

    - by Ram
    I have a table (actually a view, but simplified my example to a table) which gives me some data like this id CompanyName website 1 Google google.com 2 Google google.net 3 Google google.org 4 Google google.in 5 Google google.de 6 Microsoft Microsoft.com 7 Microsoft live.com 8 Microsoft bing.com 9 Microsoft hotmail.com I am looking to convert it to get a result like this CompanyName website1 website2 website3 website 4 website5 website6 ----------- ------------- ---------- ---------- ----------- --------- -------- Google google.com google.net google.org google.in google.de NULL Microsoft Microsoft.com live.com bing.com hotmail.com NULL NULL I have looked into pivot but looks like the record(row values) cannot be dynamic (i.e can only be certain predefined values). Also, if there are more than 6 websites, I want to limit it to the first 6 Dynamic pivot makes sense, but I would have to incorporate it into my view ?? Is there a simpler solution for this ? Here are the SQL scripts CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Company]( [id] [int] NULL, [CompanyName] [varchar](50) NULL, [website] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into company values (1,'Google','google.com') insert into company values (2,'Google','google.net') insert into company values (3,'Google','google.org') insert into company values (4,'Google','google.in') insert into company values (5,'Google','google.de') insert into company values (6,'Microsoft','Microsoft.com') insert into company values (7,'Microsoft','live.com') insert into company values (8,'Microsoft','bing.com') insert into company values (9,'Microsoft','hotmail.com')

    Read the article

  • How to write gSOAP server using VC++ (VS2008)?

    - by Falcon
    Hi, I have downloaded gSOAP2.8 from sourceforge. I want to use it for writting a gsoap based server. I need to be able to invoke my C++ code from PHP UI. E.g. My php page would show something like: $res = a + b = ? [Submit] When submit button is clicked I want these parameters to be passed to my c++ function lets say compute_sum() ... and this function should be invoked with these parameters, and the results given back to my php page. I want to write this gsoap based c++ server. Can someone please help me with getting started with it? I need to know: 1] What kind of c++ code it should it be? (Windows console app, or a windows service) 2] How do I launch this server? (Would it need to be a webservice, hosted over something like apache?) Please advise and guide. Regards, Falcon

    Read the article

  • TestNG - Factories and Dataproviders

    - by Tim K
    Background Story I'm working at a software firm developing a test automation framework to replace our old spaghetti tangled system. Since our system requires a login for almost everything we do, I decided it would be best to use @BeforeMethod, @DataProvider, and @Factory to setup my tests. However, I've run into some issues. Sample Test Case Lets say the software system is a baseball team roster. We want to test to make sure a user can search for a team member by name. (Note: I'm aware that BeforeMethods don't run in any given order -- assume that's been taken care of for now.) @BeforeMethod public void setupSelenium() { // login with username & password // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page } @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String playerName, String searchTerm) { // search for "searchTerm" // browse through results // pass if we find playerName // fail (Didn't find the player) } This test case assumes the following: The user has already logged on (in a BeforeMethod, most likely) The user has already navigated to the search page (trivial, before method) The parameters to the test are associated with the aforementioned login The Problems So lets try and figure out how to handle the parameters for the test case. Idea #1 This method allows us to associate dataproviders with usernames, and lets us use multiple users for any specific test case! @Test(dataProvider="players") public void testSearch(String user, String pass, String name, String search) { // login with user/pass // acknowledge announcements // navigate to search page // ... } ...but there's lots of repetition, as we have to make EVERY function accept two extra parameters. Not to mention, we're also testing the acknowledge announcements feature, which we don't actually want to test. Idea #2 So lets use the factory to initialize things properly! class BaseTestCase { public BaseTestCase(String user, String password, Object[][] data); } class SomeTest { @Factory public void ... } With this, we end up having to write one factory per test case... Although, it does let us have multiple users per test-case. Conclusion I'm about fresh out of ideas. There was another idea I had where I was loading data from an XML file, and then calling the methods from a program... but its getting silly. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

    Read the article

  • How to unset an ajax loading.

    - by metacortex
    Hi, I have this script which loads external content: <script type="text/javascript"> var http_request = false; function makePOSTRequest(url, parameters) { http_request = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { http_request = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (http_request.overrideMimeType) { http_request.overrideMimeType('text/html'); } } else if (window.ActiveXObject) { try { http_request = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { http_request = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) {} } } if (!http_request) { alert('Cannot create XMLHTTP instance'); return false; } http_request.onreadystatechange = alertContents; http_request.open('POST', url, true); http_request.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); http_request.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); http_request.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); http_request.send(parameters); } function alertContents() { if (http_request.readyState == 4) { if (http_request.status == 200) { result = http_request.responseText; document.getElementById('opciones').innerHTML = result; } else { alert('Hubo un problema con la operación.'); } } } function get(obj) { var poststr = "port_post=" + encodeURI( document.getElementById("port-post").value ); makePOSTRequest('http://www.site.com/inc/metaform.php?opcion='+ encodeURI( document.getElementById("port-post").value ), poststr); } </script> This is the select that retrieves the content: <select name="port_post" id="port-post" onchange="get(this.parentNode);"> <option value="1">Select one...</option> <option value="2">Pear</option> <option value="3">Pineapple</option> </select> And this is the container div: <div id="opciones">Default content</div> All I whish to know is how I can unset the ajax loading when I change the selection to "Select one...". I wish to say, how restoring the Default content once the "Select one..." option is selected.

    Read the article

  • Joomla Session Variable as Plugin Parameter

    - by dosboy
    I have a Joomla plugin which takes varying parameters. I need to retrieve one of these parameters from the current session. I've tried using Jumi and a little PHP snipped to retrieve the value and output it in the plugin's parameter list, but the Joomla plugin parser only handles the outter-most set of curly braces. ex. {fabrik view=table id=62 resetfilters=1 fab_tours_ro___tour_id=[tour_id]} [tour_id] I need to retrieve from the current session. I've tried {fabrik view=table id=62 resetfilters=1 fab_tours_ro___tour_id={jumi [scripts/get_tour_id.php]}} In that case the {jumi} tag never gets parsed. I could hack the {fabrik} plugin, but I'd prefer to do this without making any core or component changes, especially since I update Fabrik quite regularly via svn.

    Read the article

  • typeof === "undefined" vs. != null

    - by Thor Thurn
    I often see JavaScript code which checks for undefined parameters etc. this way: if (typeof input !== "undefined") { // do stuff } This seems kind of wasteful, since it involves both a type lookup and a string comparison, not to mention its verbosity. It's needed because 'undefined' could be renamed, though. My question is: How is that code any better than this approach: if (input != null) { // do stuff } As far as I know, you can't redefine null, so it's not going to break unexpectedly. And, because of the type-coercion of the != operator, this checks for both undefined and null... which is often exactly what you want (e.g. for optional function parameters). Yet this form does not seem widespread, and it even causes JSLint to yell at you for using the evil != operator. Why is this considered bad style?

    Read the article

  • Setting SqlParameter value automatically with DataGridView?

    - by johansson
    Is there a way to set a SqlParameter's value with DataGridView, if data-bound? For example: SqlCommand selCmd = CreateCommand("SELECT * FROM table1"); SqlCommand updCmd = CreateCommand("UPDATE table1 Set column1 = @column1 WHERE id = @id"); updCmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("column1"), SqlDbTypes.Int)); updCmd.Parameters.Add(new SqlParameter("id", SqlDbTypes.Int)); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(); da.SelectCommand = selCmd; da.UpdateCommand = updCmd; da.Fill(_dataTable); dgv.DataSource = _dataTable; Then somewhere later: da.Update(); How can I make sure it's getting the right column1 value that was edited and the right id for the row for the da.Update(); to work, otherwise it complains that I have not provided the value. Or if there's a better way, please advise. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Problems with Database Search Code (asp.net vb)

    - by Phil
    Here is a sample of my database search code: Dim sql As String = "Select * From Table Where " Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim andor As Boolean = AndOr1.SelectedValue 'selection can be AND or OR (0 / 1) 'Code for when the user selects AND If NameSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "Surname LIKE '%" & name & "%' AND " End If If EmailSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "Email LIKE '%" & email & "%' AND " End If If CitySearchBox.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 0 Then sql += "City LIKE '%" & city & "%' AND " End If 'Code for when the user selects OR If NameSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "(Surname LIKE '%" & name & "%' OR " End If If EmailSearch.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "Email LIKE '%" & email & "%') OR " End If If CitySearchBox.Text.ToString IsNot String.Empty And andor = 1 Then sql += "(City LIKE '%" & city & "%' OR " End If sql = CleanString(sql) End Sub When the user selects AND (as andor.selectedvalue(0)) then the sql is produced fine like this; Select * From Table Where Surname LIKE '%test%' AND Email LIKE '%test%' AND City LIKE '%test%' But if the user selects OR (as andor.selectedvalue(1)), nothing is outputted except; Select * From Table Where Im sure the controls have values so are not string.empty and when the user selects OR the correct value 1 is being assigned to andor.

    Read the article

  • PHP GET issue - it aint workin!

    - by benhowdle89
    I have a simple PHP form which displays inputs with values from a mysql DB and send the form results to another page which updates a db table based on the GET results: echo "<form method='get' action='updateprojects.php'>"; echo "<table>"; echo "<tr>"; echo " <th>Project No</th> <th>Customer Name</th> <th>Description</th> </tr>"; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo "<tr>"; echo "<td><input value=" . $row['project_no'] . "></input></td>"; echo "<td><input value='" . $row['cust_name'] . "'></input></td>"; echo "<td><input value='" . $row['description'] . "'></input></td>"; echo "</tr>"; } echo "</table>"; echo "<input type='submit' value='Update' />"; echo "</form>"; on updateprojects.php i have set up the GET variable and even echoed them to check but nothing comes through! Cannot see why!? This is the start of updateprojects.php: echo $_GET['project_no'].$_GET['cust_name'].$_GET['description'];

    Read the article

  • How do I bypass GUI in MFC app if command line options exist?

    - by Brandon
    I've got an existing simple MFC app that the user specifies the input file, output file, and then a "Process" button. I'd like to just add the capability so that the input/output files are command line parameters. But, if they exist, I don't want the GUI to show up. I just want the "Process" to execute. I see where I can get the command line parameters (m_lpCmdLine) but how can I bypass the displaying of the GUI? If I step into the app, it goes directly to winmain.cpp and displays the GUI without stepping into any of my code.

    Read the article

  • Ajax response takes time and status is 503

    - by Suresh S
    guys, i have a html page where onclick of a button a ajax request is sent to server , the request calls a jsp page which runs an oracle procedure.The procedure runs the logic and places it in a temp table . once procedure is completed , the values are returned to the client by selecting values from tmp table. as the response is too late . the data is not received at the client side. solution: i tried to run the procedure in a separate thread using a ajax call. when the procedure is completed a global flag is set to indicate that the data is generated. if the response is 500 , a second ajax call invoked by timeout function after 10000 ms . the second call checks the global flag ,if true then reads from table and sends the response. if not again a timeout is set at the client side. this solution is not mature enough. , as the procedure may take long time to respond. please let me know a good solution for this problenm?

    Read the article

  • How should approach allowing users to create notes with revisions?

    - by Magicked
    I'm working on a Rails project where I want to allow users to create individual notes, which are really just text fields at this time. With each note, the user can edit what they have previously written, but the old version is kept in a revision table. I'm trying to figure out the best way to approach this. My initial thoughts are to have the following relationships: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :notes end class Note < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :note_revisions belongs_to :user end class NoteRevision < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :note_revision end The Note model will only contain a timestamp of when the note was first created. The NoteRevision model will contain the text, as well as a timestamp for each revision. This way, every time a new revision is made, a new entry is created into the NoteRevision table which is tracked through the Note table. Hopefully this makes sense! First, does this look like a good way to do this? If so, I'm having trouble figuring out how the controller and view will present this information in one form. Are there any good tutorials or has someone seen anything similar that can point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • oracle select query - index on multiple columns

    - by CC
    Hello. I'm working on a sql query, and trying to optimise it, because it takes too long to execute. I have a few select and UNION between. Every select is on the same table but with different condition in WHERE clause. Basically I have allways something like : select * from A where field1 <"toto" and field2 IN (...) UNION select * from A where field1 >"toto2" and field2 =(...) UNION .... I have a index on field1 (it a date field, and field2 is a number). Now, when I do the select and if I put only WHERE field1 <'12/12/2010' it does not use the index. I'm using Toad to see the explain plain and it said: SELECT STAITEMENT Optimiser Mode = CHOOSE TABLE ACCESS FULL It is a huge table, and the index on this column is there. Any idea about this optimiser ? And why it does not uses the index ? Another question is , if I have where clause on field1 and field2 , I have to create only one index, or one index for each field ? Thanks alot.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 491 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502  | Next Page >