Search Results

Search found 16987 results on 680 pages for 'second'.

Page 496/680 | < Previous Page | 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503  | Next Page >

  • This is more a matlab/math brain teaser than a question

    - by gd047
    Here is the setup. No assumptions for the values I am using. n=2; % dimension of vectors x and (square) matrix P r=2; % number of x vectors and P matrices x1 = [3;5] x2 = [9;6] x = cat(2,x1,x2) P1 = [6,11;15,-1] P2 = [2,21;-2,3] P(:,1)=P1(:) P(:,2)=P2(:) modePr = [-.4;16] TransPr=[5.9,0.1;20.2,-4.8] pred_modePr = TransPr'*modePr MixPr = TransPr.*(modePr*(pred_modePr.^(-1))') x0 = x*MixPr Then it was time to apply the following formula to get myP , where µij is MixPr. I used this code to get it: myP=zeros(n*n,r); Ptables(:,:,1)=P1; Ptables(:,:,2)=P2; for j=1:r for i = 1:r; temp = MixPr(i,j)*(Ptables(:,:,i) + ... (x(:,i)-x0(:,j))*(x(:,i)-x0(:,j))'); myP(:,j)= myP(:,j) + temp(:); end end Some brilliant guy proposed this formula as another way to produce myP for j=1:r xk1=x(:,j); PP=xk1*xk1'; PP0(:,j)=PP(:); xk1=x0(:,j); PP=xk1*xk1'; PP1(:,j)=PP(:); end myP = (P+PP0)*MixPr-PP1 I tried to formulate the equality between the two methods and seems to be this one. To make things easier, I ignored from both methods the summation of matrix P. where the first part denotes the formula that I used, while the second comes from his code snippet. Do you think this is an obvious equality? If yes, ignore all the above and just try to explain why. I could only start from the LHS, and after some algebra I think I proved it equals to the RHS. However I can't see how did he (or she) think of it in the first place.

    Read the article

  • General Drools Question

    - by El Guapo
    For the last few months my company has been using a product from a company called Informatica (previously AgentLogic) called RulePoint. This product has proven itself very easy to use with a well-developed and easy-to-use SDK for customization. The way we use the product for CEP is fairly trivial, we have 2 sources which we monitor for our rule data, the first being a JMS Queue, the second being a Jabber IM account. The product runs on any java-based application server (WebLogic, Tomcat, etc) and runs just about flawlessly. Last week my boss says, "Hey, I've heard that we may be able to do the same thing we are doing with RulePoint with an open-source product called Drools. Check it out and let me know what you think." I've heard of people using Drools for flow-based operations (validation, etc), however, I've never heard of anyone using their CEP product (Fusion) in practice. So, being the diligent worker, I have undertaken this task. I've downloaded all the files (version 5.0) and accompanying documentation and have started to read. I've read through just about all the docs and run most of the examples, but I still don't really see HOW drools works for CEP. While there are examples for using Data (or Facts, I guess) from JMS, I don't see how this thing stays "running", continuously monitoring a queue until the application is actually stopped. RulePoint pretty must just sits and listens, however, Drools seems to not. I could probably write a full-blown command-line application for our needs, however, I was hoping to leverage some of the benefits of using a application server provides. I guess I'm looking for some good tutorials or an example of how someone is using Drools and CEP in production. Thanks in advanced for any information, advice you may be able to provide.

    Read the article

  • Boost Python : How to only expose the constructor of a class with virtual (pure & impure) methods

    - by fallino
    Hello, I'm a newbie with Boost::Python but I tried to search on the web to do so I want to expose a 3rd party library to Python. One of the class of the library (.hpp) is composed of a public constructor with arguments a protected constructor and functions various regular functions various pure virtual functions various non pure virtual functions First, I did not succeed in building it without having errors about this protected constructor. I finally commented it. A first question would be : Is there a way to exclude these protected functions since I don't want to expose them ? (I know it's possible and easy with Py++, but I started without using it) Then I tried to expose all of my functions, beginning with the pure virtual ones (commenting them all except one), which wasn't a success too So I finally decided not to expose these virtual functions (which in fact seems logical...), but, here again, I didn't manage building it with a simple constructor with arguments (without no_init). So my second question is : Is there a way to exclude these virtual functions since I don't want to expose them ? Sorry if it seems trivial but I didn't find anything explicit on the web and I need something rather explicit :). Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Precompiled headers question

    - by Kotti
    Hello! I am right now reorganizing my project and what recently was a simple application now became a pair of C++ projects - static library and real application. I would like to share one precompiled header between two projects, but face some troubles with setting up the .pdb file paths. Assume my first project is called Library and builds it's .lib file with a corresponding Library.pdb file. Now, the second project is called Application and builds everything into the same folder (.exe and another Application.pdb file). Right now my both projects create their own precompiled headers file (Library.pch and Application.pch) based on one actual header file. It works, but I think it's a waste of time and I also think there should be a way to share one precompiled header between two projects. If in my Application project I try to set the Use Precompiled Header (/Yu) option and set it to Library.pch, it wouldn't work, because of the following error: error C2858: command-line option 'program database name "Application.pdb" inconsistent with precompiled header, which used "Library.pdb". So, does anyone know some trick or way to share one precompiled header between two projects preserving proper debug information?

    Read the article

  • Benchmarking a UDP server

    - by Nicolas
    I am refactoring a UDP listener from Java to C. It needs to handle between 1000 and 10000 UDP messages per second, with an average data length of around 60 bytes. There is no reply necessary. Data cannot be lost (Don't ask why UDP was decided). I fork off a process to deal with the incoming data so that I can recvfrom as quickly as possible - without filling up my kernel buffers. The child then handles the data received. In short, my algo is: Listen for data. When data is received, check for errors. Fork off a child. If I'm a child, do what I with the data and exit. If I'm a parent, reap any zombie children waitpid(-1, NULL, WNOHANG). Repeat. Firstly, any comments about the above? I'm creating the socket with socket(AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, IPPROTO_UDP), binding with AF_INET and INADDR_ANY and recvfrom with no flags. Secondly, can anyone suggest something that I can use to test that this application (or at least the listener) can handle more messages than what I am expecting? Or, would I need to hack something together to do this. I'd guess the latter would be better, so that I can compare data that is generated versus data that is received. But, comments would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • SQL Compact allow only one WCF Client

    - by Andreas Hoffmann
    Hi, I write a little Chat Application. To save some infos like Username and Password I store the Data in an SQL-Compact 3.5 SP1 Database. Everything working fine, but If another (the same .exe on the same machine) Client want to access the Service. It came an EndpointNotFound exception, from the ServiceReference.Class.Open() at the Second Client. So i remove the CE Data Access Code and I get no Error (with an if (false)) Where is the Problem? I googled for this, but no one seems the same error I get :( SOLUTION I used the wrapper in http://csharponphone.blogspot.com/2007/01/keeping-sqlceconnection-open-and-thread.html for threat safty, and now it works :) Client Code: public test() { var newCompositeType = new Client.ServiceReference1.CompositeType(); newCompositeType.StringValue = "Hallo" + DateTime.Now.ToLongTimeString(); newCompositeType.Save = (Console.ReadKey().Key == ConsoleKey.J); ServiceReference1.Service1Client sc = new Client.ServiceReference1.Service1Client(); sc.Open(); Console.WriteLine("Save " + newCompositeType.StringValue); sc.GetDataUsingDataContract(newCompositeType); sc.Close(); } Server Code public CompositeType GetDataUsingDataContract(CompositeType composite) { if (composite.Save) { SqlCeConnection con = new SqlCeConnection(Properties.Settings.Default.Con); con.Open(); var com = con.CreateCommand(); com.CommandText = "SELECT * FROM TEST"; SqlCeResultSet result = com.ExecuteResultSet(ResultSetOptions.Scrollable | ResultSetOptions.Updatable); var rec = result.CreateRecord(); rec["TextField"] = composite.StringValue; result.Insert(rec); result.Close(); result.Dispose(); com.Dispose(); con.Close(); con.Dispose(); } return composite; }

    Read the article

  • Where is my Drupal View pager?

    - by anotherthink
    Hi, I have a Drupal 6 site where I've created a view that shows a list of nodes. Nothing complicated -- except that when I choose "use pager" -- "yes" (and choose the "full pager" option), the pager doesn't show up on the page. The first page of nodes shows up, but there's no way to get to other pages. Through googling, I saw that some people had an issue with the "Pager Element" item, so I changed that from 0 to 1 -- no luck. This shouldn't be very complicated, but I've been at it for a while! Help!? ETA: I've tracked it down to the following lines in /modules/views/theme/theme.inc: $pager_theme = views_theme_functions($pager_type, $view, $view->display_handler->display); $vars['pager'] = theme($pager_theme, $exposed_input, $view->pager['items_per_page'], $view->pager['element']); The first line returns an array; the second line returns nothing. I suspect now that this is a theming problem with the custom theme I'm using that may not have fully been correctly updated for Drupal 6 -- like, maybe I'm missing a pager template somehow? -- however, I'm quite new to Drupal and don't really understand how to further track down and fix the issue. Any advice would be much appreciated! ETA yet again: The pager also doesn't show up when using Garland, so it's not a theme issue after all. ALSO: I have a copy of this site set up on a development server as well, and that copy has working pagination! I've checked what I thought might be different -- files in the theme, what modules are enabled -- and it seems like pretty much everything is the same. The one thing that I know is different, however, is that the production server has a lower version of MySQL (lower than recommended for Drupal 6 -- we're waiting on the hosting company being able to change this later). Would it make sense that the old version of MySQL is unable to do pagination correctly in Drupal 6? If so, does anyone know a workaround I can do until we are able to update MySQL?

    Read the article

  • testing devise with shoulda and machinist

    - by mattherick
    hello! I´d like to test my app with shoulda and machinist. I use the devise authentification gem. I get following error: $ ruby unit/page_test.rb c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/rails/gem_dependency.rb:119:Warning: Gem::Dependency#version_requirements is deprecated and will be rem oved on or after August 2010. Use #requirement c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:443:in load_missing_constant': uninitialized constant Admins (N ameError) from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:80:inconst_missing' from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:92:in const_missing' from c:/Users/Mattherick/Desktop/heimspiel/heimspiel_app/app/controllers/admins_controller.rb:1 from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:ingem_original_require' from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in require' from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:158:inrequire' from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:265:in require_or_load' from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:224:independ_on' ... 12 levels... from ./unit/../test_helper.rb:2 from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in gem_original_require' from c:/Ruby/lib/ruby/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:inrequire' from unit/page_test.rb:1 Somebody an idea what´s wrong? If I don´t use devise my tests are okay. And my second question: Does somebdoy has a good tutorial for increasing different roles in the devise gem? If I generate my own views and add a few attributes to my devise-model, they won´t be save in the database. I read the docu at github, but don´t really checked it. mattherick

    Read the article

  • sed/awk or other: one-liner to increment a number by 1 keeping spacing characters

    - by WizardOfOdds
    EDIT: I don't know in advance at which "column" my digits are going to be and I'd like to have a one-liner. Apparently sed doesn't do arithmetic, so maybe a one-liner solution based on awk? I've got a string: (notice the spacing) eh oh 37 and I want it to become: eh oh 36 (so I want to keep the spacing) Using awk I don't find how to do it, so far I have: echo "eh oh 37" | awk '$3>=0&&$3<=99 {$3--} {print}' But this gives: eh oh 36 (the spacing characters where lost, because the field separator is ' ') Is there a way to ask awk something like "print the output using the exact same field separators as the input had"? Then I tried yet something else, using awk's sub(..,..) method: ' sub(/[0-9][0-9]/, ...) {print}' but no cigar yet: I don't know how to reference the regexp and do arithmetic on it in the second argument (which I left with '...' for now). Then I tried with sed, but got stuck after this: echo "eh oh 37" | sed -e 's/\([0-9][0-9]\)/.../' Can I do arithmetic from sed using a reference to the matching digits and have the output not modify the number of spacing characters? Note that it's related to my question concerning Emacs and how to apply this to some (big) Emacs region (using a replace region with Emacs's shell-command-on-region) but it's not an identical question: this one is specifically about how to "keep spaces" when working with awk/sed/etc.

    Read the article

  • How can I turn a column name into a result value in SQL Server?

    - by Brennan
    I have a table which has essentially boolean values in a legacy database. The column names are stored as string values in another table so I need to match the column names of one table to a string value in another table. I know there has to be a way to do this directly with SQL in SQL Server but it is beyond me. My initial thought was to use PIVOT but it is not enabled by default and enabling it would likely be a difficult process with pushing that change to the Production database. I would prefer to use what is enabled by default. I am considering using COALESCE to translate the boolean value to the string that value that I need. This will be a manual process. I think I will also use a table variable to insert the results of the first query into that variable and use those results to do the second query. I still have the problem that the columns are on a single row so I wish I could easily pivot the values to put the column names in the result set as strings. But if I could easily do that I could easily write the query with a sub-select. Any tips are welcome.

    Read the article

  • REST application, Transactions, Cache drop

    - by Julian Davchev
    Hi, I am building REST API in php with memcache layer on top for caching all resources. After some reading experience it turns out it's best when documents are as simple as posible...mainly due to dropping cache sequences. So if there is 'building','room' entities for the 'room' document I would only place the id of the 'building' and not the whole data of it. Then on api client side I would merge data as needed. Problem becomes when I need to update/insert (most cases more than one table). I update one resource but on second update system fails or whatever and there becomes database inconsistancies. I see several solutions: 1. Implement rest transactions which I find wrong and complex as idea is to be stateless and easy. 2. On update/insert actions I pass more complex data (not single entities) so I can force transactions on API level. But this will make it weird that your GET document structure is same as PUT document structure. And again somehow make drop sequences complex. Any pointers are more than welcome. Cheers,

    Read the article

  • Complex string split in Java

    - by c0mrade
    Consider the following String : 5|12345|value1|value2|value3|value4+5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4?5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4+ Here is how I want to split string, split it with + so I get this result : myArray[0] = "5|12345|value1|value2|value3|value4"; myArray[1] = "5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4?5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4"; if string has doesn't contain char "?" split it with "|" and continue to part II, if string does contain "?" split it and for each part split it with "|" and continue to part II. Here is part II : myObject.setAttribute1(newString[0]); ... myObject.setAttribute4(newString[3]); Here what I've got so far : private static String input = "5|12345|value1|value2|value3|value4+5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4?5|777|value1|value2|value3|value4+"; public void mapObject(String input){ String[] myArray = null; if (input.contains("+")) { myArray = input.split("+"); } else { myArray = new String[1]; myArray[0] = input; } for (int i = 0; i < myArray.length; i++) { String[] secondaryArray = null; String[] myObjectAttribute = null; if (myArray[i].contains("?")) { secondaryArray = temporaryString.myArray[i].split("?"); for (String string : secondaryArray) { myObjectAttribute = string.split("\\|"); } } else { myObjectAttribute = myArray[i].toString().split("\\|"); } myObject.setAttribute1(myObjectAttribute[0]); ... myObject.setAttribute4(myObjectAttribute[3]); System.out.println(myObject.toString()); } Problem : When I split myArray, going trough for with myArray[0], everything set up nice as it should. Then comes the myArray[1], its split into two parts then the second part overrides the value of the first(how do I know that?). I've overridden toString() method of myObject, when I finish I print the set values so I know that it overrides it, does anybody know how can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Use of for_each on map elements

    - by Antonio
    I have a map where I'd like to perform a call on every data type object member function. I yet know how to do this on any sequence but, is it possible to do it on an associative container? The closest answer I could find was this: Boost.Bind to access std::map elements in std::for_each. But I cannot use boost in my project so, is there an STL alternative that I'm missing to boost::bind? If not possible, I thought on creating a temporary sequence for pointers to the data objects and then, call for_each on it, something like this: class MyClass { public: void Method() const; } std::map<int, MyClass> Map; //... std::vector<MyClass*> Vector; std::transform(Map.begin(), Map.end(), std::back_inserter(Vector), std::mem_fun_ref(&std::map<int, MyClass>::value_type::second)); std::for_each(Vector.begin(), Vector.end(), std::mem_fun(&MyClass::Method)); It looks too obfuscated and I don't really like it. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • What makes these two R data frames not identical?

    - by Matt Parker
    UPDATE: I remembered dput() about the time Sharpie mentioned it. It's probably the row names. Back in a moment with an answer. I have two small data frames, this_tx and last_tx. They are, in every way that I can tell, completely identical. this_tx == last_tx results in a frame of identical dimensions, all TRUE. this_tx %in% last_tx, two TRUEs. Inspected visually, clearly identical. But when I call identical(this_tx, last_tx) I get a FALSE. Hilariously, even identical(str(this_tx), str(last_tx)) will return a TRUE. If I set this_tx <- last_tx, I'll get a TRUE. What is going on? I don't have the deepest understanding of R's internal mechanics, but I can't find a single difference between the two data frames. If it's relevant, the two variables in the frames are both factors - same levels, same numeric coding for the levels, both just subsets of the same original data frame. Converting them to character vectors doesn't help. Background (because I wouldn't mind help on this, either): I have records of drug treatments given to patients. Each treatment record essentially specifies a person and a date. A second table has a record for each drug and dose given during a particular treatment (usually, a few drugs are given each treatment). I'm trying to identify contiguous periods during which the person was taking the same combinations of drugs at the same doses. The best plan I've come up with is to check the treatments chronologically. If the combination of drugs and doses for treatment[i] is identical to the combination at treatment[i-1], then treatment[i] is a part of the same phase as treatment[i-1]. Of course, if I can't compare drug/dose combinations, that's right out.

    Read the article

  • Pros and cons of making database IDs consistent and "readable"

    - by gmale
    Question Is it a good rule of thumb for database IDs to be "meaningless?" Conversely, are there significant benefits from having IDs structured in a way where they can be recognized at a glance? What are the pros and cons? Background I just had a debate with my coworkers about the consistency of the IDs in our database. We have a data-driven application that leverages spring so that we rarely ever have to change code. That means, if there's a problem, a data change is usually the solution. My argument was that by making IDs consistent and readable, we save ourselves significant time and headaches, long term. Once the IDs are set, they don't have to change often and if done right, future changes won't be difficult. My coworkers position was that IDs should never matter. Encoding information into the ID violates DB design policies and keeping them orderly requires extra work that, "we don't have time for." I can't find anything online to support either position. So I'm turning to all the gurus here at SA! Example Imagine this simplified list of database records representing food in a grocery store, the first set represents data that has meaning encoded in the IDs, while the second does not: ID's with meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 101 Apple 102 Banana 103 Orange 201 Lettuce 202 Onion 203 Carrot Location 41 Aisle four top shelf 42 Aisle four bottom shelf 51 Aisle five top shelf 52 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 10141 Apple on aisle four top shelf 10241 Banana on aisle four top shelf //just by reading the ids, it's easy to recongnize that these are both Fruit on Aisle 4 ID's without meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 1 Apple 2 Banana 3 Orange 4 Lettuce 5 Onion 6 Carrot Location 1 Aisle four top shelf 2 Aisle four bottom shelf 3 Aisle five top shelf 4 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 1 Apple on aisle four top shelf 2 Banana on aisle four top shelf //given the IDs, it's harder to see that these are both fruit on aisle 4 Summary What are the pros and cons of keeping IDs readable and consistent? Which approach do you generally prefer and why? Is there an accepted industry best-practice?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net MVC Json Result: Parameters passed to controller method issue

    - by Moskie
    I'm having a problem getting a controller method that returns a JsonResult to accept parameters passed via the JQuery getJSON method. The code I’m working on works fine when the second parameter ("data") of the getJSON method call is null. But when I attempt to pass in a value there, it seems as if the controller method never even gets called. In this example case, I just want to use an integer. The getJSON call that works fine looks like this: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, null, ListNews_OnReturn); The controller method is like this: public JsonResult ListNewsJson(int? id) { … return Json(toReturn); } By putting a breakpoint in the ListNewsJson method, I see that this method gets called when the data parameter of getJSON is null, but when I replace it with value, such as, say, 3: $.getJSON(”/News/ListNewsJson/”, 3, ListNews_OnReturn); … the controller method/breakpoint is never hit. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? I should also mention that the controller method works fine if I manually go to the address via my browser ("/News/ListNewsJson/3").

    Read the article

  • Event Handling for MFC Dialog

    - by Maksud
    This is my second question of the day, pardon me. I am writing a wrapper library to communicate with a scanner device. The source code was in C++ MFC. I am converting it to a plain Dll which will be invoked from C#. So, I am using DllImport in C# to call the wrapper library. Now I am provided with MFC code and the library is a ActiveX Object, at least I think so. class CDpocx : public CWnd { } So in my wrapper library I will have an instance of CDpocx and will call it via C# P/Invoke. But the problem is CDpocx also throws some events which I need to catch. In traditional app, I would just attach an function with it. But How would I attach the events on non MFC class. I have seen something like: BEGIN_EVENTSINK_MAP(CVC60Dlg, CDialog) //{{AFX_EVENTSINK_MAP(CVC60Dlg) ON_EVENT(CVC60Dlg, IDC_DPOCXCTRL1, 1 , OnReadyDpocxctrl1, VTS_NONE) //}}AFX_EVENTSINK_MAP END_EVENTSINK_MAP() OnReadyDpocxctrl1 is the function that handles 1 (Ready) event. How can I gain simmilar function in non MFC class. Regards, Maksud

    Read the article

  • How is jQuery so fast?

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hey, I have a rather large application which, on the admin frontend, takes a few seconds to load a page because of all the pageviews that it has to load into objects before displaying anything. Its a bit complex to explain how the system works, but a few of my other questions explains the system in great detail. The main difference between what they say and the current system is that the customer frontend no longer loads all the pageviews into objects when a customer first views the page - it simply adds the pageview to the database and creates an object in an unsynchronised list... to put it simply, when a customer views a page it no longer loads all the pageviews into objects; but the admin frontend still does. I have been working on some admin tools on the customer frontend recently, so if an administrator clicks the description of an item in the catalogue then the right hand column will display statistics and available actions for the selected item. To do this the page which gets loaded (through $('action-container').load(bla bla bla);) into the right hand column has to loop through ALL the pageviews - this ultimately means that ALL the pageviews are loaded into objects if they haven't been already. For some reason this loads really REALLY fast. The difference in speed is only like a second on my dev site, but the live site has thousands of pageviews so the difference is quite big... So my question is: why is it that the admin frontend loads so slowly while using $(bla).load(bla); is so fast? I mean whatever method jQuery uses, can't browsers use this method too and load pages super-fast? Obviously not as someone would've done that by now - but I am interested to know just why the difference is so big... is it just my system or is there a major difference in speed between the browser getting a page and jQuery getting a page? Do other people experience the same kind of differences? Thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

    Read the article

  • Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ function calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have: Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is sufficient?

    Read the article

  • How to write a decent process filter?

    - by konr
    Hi there, I'm building a program that communicates with Emacs, and one of the challenges I'm facing is writing Emacs's process filter function. Its input string is a series of s-expressions to be evaluated. Here is a sample: (gimme-append-to-buffer "25 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Scene 2. Prelude - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "26 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Cybele: 'Je Veux Joindre' - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "27 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Scene 3. Cybele: 'Tu T'Etonnes, Melisse' - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "28 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Cybele: 'Que Les Plus Doux Zephyrs'. Scene 4. - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "29 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Entree Des Nations - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "30 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Entree Des Zephyrs - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "31 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Choeur Des Nations' 'Que Devant Vous' - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "32 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Atys: 'Indigne Que Je Suis' - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "33 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Florissants - Reprise Du Choeur Des Nations : 'Que Devant Nous' - Les Arts Florissants\n") (gimme-append-to-buffer "34 - William Christie dir, Les Arts Flor*emphasized text*issants - Reprise De L'Air Des Zephyrs - Les Arts Florissants\n") The first problem that I've faced is that the string is somehow not fully formed when the function is so called, so writing something like (mapcar 'eval (format "(%s)" input-string)) won't work. To deal with this first problem, I was using a loop. The full function I wrote is: (defun eval-all-sexps (s) (loop for x = (ignore-errors (read-from-string s)) then (ignore-errors (read-from-string (substring s position))) while x summing (or (cdr x) 0) into position doing (eval (car x)))) Now the second problem that showed up is that the function is called twice with a somewhat large input, first with valid but partial content, then with what looks like pieces of the remaining data. To solve this problem, I'm considering using a junk variable to hold up what remains from a loop and then concatenating it to the input of the next call, but I was wondering if you guys have any other suggestions on how to deal with such a problem more elegantly. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • managed beans as managed properties

    - by Sean
    I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. I am building search functionality within an application and am having some issues. I've stripped out the extras, and have left myself with the following: 4 managed beans: SearchController - Controller bean, session scope SearchResults - session scope (store the results) ProductSearch - session scope (store the search conditions) ResultsBacking - Backing bean for DataTable, used to determine which row was clicked, request scope The SearchController bean has, as managed properties, the other 3. All except ResultsBacking are session scoped. If there is only 1 item in the search results, I want to bring up that record directly. I call setFirst(0) for the data table in the ResultsBacking method (I want to use the existing method that handle which item was clicked, so this is called right after the setFirst). When I go to do another search, I get an IllegalArgumentException when calling getRowData in the data table. According to the api, this is thrown 'if now(sic) row data is available at the currently specified row index'. I'm confused as to why this happens. It works the first time but not the second. Do I need to remove the ResultsBacking on a new search to get rid of the old state?

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Problems playing multiple sounds using AVPlayer (NOT AVAudioPlayer)

    - by myetter37
    I'm trying to play a background song in my iPhone game and also have sound effects, using the AVFoundation framework and AVPlayerItem. I've scoured the Internet for help with AVPlayerItem and AVPlayer but I'm only finding stuff about AVAudioPlayer. The background song plays fine, but when the character jumps, I have 2 problems: 1) On the initial jump ([player play] inside jump method), the jump sound effect interrupts the background music. 2) If I try to jump again, the game crashes with the error "AVPlayerItem cannot be associated with more than one instance of AVPlayer" My professor told me to create a new instance of AVPlayer for each sound I want to play, so I'm confused. I'm doing data driven design, so my sound files are listed in a .txt and then loaded into a NSDictionary. Here's my code: - (void) storeSoundNamed:(NSString *) soundName withFileName:(NSString *) soundFileName { NSURL *assetURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:soundName ofType:soundFileName]]; AVURLAsset *mAsset = [[AVURLAsset alloc] initWithURL:assetURL options:nil]; AVPlayerItem *mPlayerItem = [AVPlayerItem playerItemWithAsset:mAsset]; [soundDictionary setObject:mPlayerItem forKey:soundName]; NSLog(@"Sound added."); } - (void) playSound:(NSString *) soundName { // from .h: @property AVPlayer *mPlayer; // from .m: @synthesize mPlayer = _mPlayer; _mPlayer = [[AVPlayer alloc] initWithPlayerItem:[soundDictionary valueForKey:soundName]]; [_mPlayer play]; NSLog(@"Playing sound."); } If I move this line from the second method into the first: _mPlayer = [[AVPlayer alloc] initWithPlayerItem:[soundDictionary valueForKey:soundName]]; The game does not crash, and the background song will play perfectly, but the jump sound effect does not play, even though the console is showing "Playing sound." on each jump. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Cannot Cache NHibernate Future Criteria Results

    - by Emilian
    I have the following code: public void FuturesQuery() { using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var blogs = session.CreateCriteria<Blog>() .SetMaxResults(5) .SetCacheable(true) .SetCacheMode(CacheMode.Normal) .SetCacheRegion("BlogQuery") .Future<Blog>(); var countOfBlogs = session.CreateCriteria<Blog>() .SetProjection(Projections.Count(Projections.Id())) .SetCacheable(true) .SetCacheMode(CacheMode.Normal) .SetCacheRegion("BlogQuery") .FutureValue<int>(); Console.WriteLine("Number of blogs: {0}", countOfBlogs.Value); foreach (var blog in blogs) { Console.WriteLine(blog.Title); } } using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var blogs = session.CreateCriteria<Blog>() .SetMaxResults(5) .SetCacheable(true) .SetCacheMode(CacheMode.Normal) .SetCacheRegion("BlogQuery") .Future<Blog>(); var countOfBlogs = session.CreateCriteria<Blog>() .SetProjection(Projections.Count(Projections.Id())) .SetCacheable(true) .SetCacheMode(CacheMode.Normal) .SetCacheRegion("BlogQuery") .FutureValue<int>(); Console.WriteLine("Number of blogs: {0}", countOfBlogs.Value); foreach (var blog in blogs) { Console.WriteLine(blog.Title); } } } I was expecting that the second time I query for blogs and count of blogs I will get values from cache but instead the queries hit the database. If I don't use Futures I get the expected results. Does this means that results from Criteria using futures cannot be cached?

    Read the article

  • AsyncTask and Contexts

    - by Michael
    So I'm working out my first multi-threaded application using Android with the AsyncTask class. I'm trying to use it to fire off a Geocoder in a second thread, then update the UI with onPostExecute, but I keep running into an issue with the proper Context. I kind of hobbled my way through using Contexts on the main thread, but I'm not exactly sure what the Context is or how to use it on background threads, and I haven't found any good examples on it. Any help? Here is an excerpt of what I'm trying to do: public class GeoCode extends AsyncTask<GeoThread, Void, GeoThread> { @Override protected GeoThread doInBackground(GeoThread... i) { List<Address> addresses = null; Geocoder geoCode = null; geoCode = new Geocoder(null); //Expects at minimum Geocoder(Context context); addresses = geoCode.getFromLocation(GoldenHour.lat, GoldenHour.lng, 1); } } It keeps failing at the sixth line there, because of the improper Context.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 492 493 494 495 496 497 498 499 500 501 502 503  | Next Page >