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  • UIActivityIndicator on UITableViewCell not displaying while calling a webService

    - by Yoyi Cheika
    Hi coders, I guess my problem is very simple to solve but I haven been able to do so. Here is my problem: I have a custom table view cell that contains a UIActivityIndicator. When a cell is selected I push another view but this second view makes a call to a web service to bring data. Here is my code // Override to support row selection in the table view. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here -- for example, create and push another view controller. // AnotherViewController *anotherViewController = [[AnotherViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AnotherView" bundle:nil]; // [self.navigationController pushViewController:anotherViewController animated:YES]; // [anotherViewController release]; Models *models = [[Models alloc] initWithNibName:@"Models" bundle:nil]; models.make = ((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).make.text; models.year = (int)[self.yearLabel.text doubleValue]; models.logo = [makeLogosName objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; [((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).activityIndicator startAnimating]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:models animated:YES]; [((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).activityIndicator stopAnimating]; [models release]; } Where MakeCell is my custom cell. If I comment this line [((MakeCell *)[tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:indexPath]).activityIndicator stopAnimating]; then the indicator appears as expected when going back to the previous view. I feel like the indicator is not being visually updated until the didSelectRowAtIndexPath returns. Does is works ascyncronically. What can be my problem here. Thank you very much Cheika

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  • Navigation view system with webview problem with touches!

    - by Gonçalo Falcão
    Hello i have search everything and i didn't figure this out! I have a tab bar controller with 5 navigation controlls, in one of the navigation control, i have a view, with a table view inside, and when i click that item i push a new view, that view have view -webview -view i create that second view(is transperant) because i need to handle a single tap to hide my toolbar and navigation bar, and the webview was eating all the touches! I put that view and implement on the view controller -(void) touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 2){ [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesBegan:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesMoved:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if(touch.tapCount == 1){ [self performSelector:@selector(hideBars) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.3]; } [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesEnded:touches withEvent:event]; } -(void) touchesCancelled:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event{ [[wv.subviews objectAtIndex:0] touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; [super touchesCancelled:touches withEvent:event]; } wv is my UIWebView IBOutlet now i can get the the touches in my controller and send them to my webview. So i thought everything was working, i'm able to scroll, but now when i have links i'm not able to click them. And the webview is detecting the links i have made that test. So any other way to implements this to get the touches in the links, or i should change this workaround to hide the toolbars so i can have the full functionability of the webview? Thks for the help in advance.

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  • Handling element collisions on importing/including XML schemas

    - by eggyal
    Given schema definitions that define the same element differently, can one import/include both definitions and reference them independently from within a third schema definition? For example, given: <schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="urn:example:namespace"> <element name="message" type="boolean"/> </schema> and: <schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="urn:example:namespace"> <element name="message" type="date"/> </schema> Can one construct the following: <schema xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" targetNamespace="urn:example:namespace"> <complexType name="booleanMessageType"> <xs:sequence> <!-- reference to first definition here --> </xs:sequence> </complexType> <complexType name="dateMessageType"> <xs:sequence> <!-- reference to second definition here --> </xs:sequence> </complexType> </schema>

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  • How Does a COM Program Locate a .NET DLL Registered for COM Interop?

    - by Eric J.
    One customer wants to consume our .NET DLLs from VB6. They are designed to support reverse interop and all works fine... except: There are two separate VB6 programs in two different directories. It seems it's necessary to do one of: Copy the .NET DLL into both directories, or Install the .NET DLL in the GAC This is the customer's observation and also supported by the RegAsm documentation: After registering an assembly using Regasm.exe, you can install it in the global assembly cache so that it can be activated from any COM client. If the assembly is only going to be activated by a single application, you can place it in that application's directory. I'm confused on this point. First point of confusion: As far as I understand, the COM runtime locates the DLL using the Prog ID / Class ID. When I look in the registry at the Class ID entry, I see the full path to the .NET DLL in the CodeBase key. Why is it that a COM program using the Prog ID / Class ID doesn't locate the .NET DLL using the CodeBase? Second point of confusion: The GAC is specific to .NET. How is it involved in resolving COM references?

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  • Binding ElementName

    - by zvi
    Hello First Sorry for my English. I wanted to ask why ElementName does not work the first case, and work in the second. I give the two sections of code . the firts not work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=ttt}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleX" From="10" To="5" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> But it does work <Button Name="button1" Width="100" > <Button.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="ttt" ScaleX="3" ScaleY="6"/> </Button.LayoutTransform> <Button.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Path.Loaded"> <EventTrigger.Actions> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard RepeatBehavior="Forever"> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.Target="{Binding ElementName=button1}" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Width" From="100" To="50" Duration="0:0:1" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger.Actions> </EventTrigger> </Button.Triggers> Button </Button> I know I can use Storyboard.TargetName .

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  • NSScrollView frame and flipped documentView

    - by StrAbZ
    Hi, I have problems with NSScrollView, It is not displayed the way I want. Yes I know there is a lot of post about it around the web, I need to override the isFlipped, in order to make it return YES, in my NSView subclass. Ok, it's done, so now, my scrollView scroll from top to bottom, and not in the reverse way, as it was before overriding isFlipped. But, this is the second part, my real problem, which I didn't found any answer on the web, how the hell I'm supposed to code, or create my view in interface builder, if everything is flipped? If I put something at the top, it is displayed a the bottom… do you have any magic trick to handle that? And my last problem, is the NSScrollView frame. before setting the documentView of my scroll view, everything is fine, the scrollView is displayed at the place I choose, but, when I set the document view, it looks like the scrollview frame looks bigger, so I have to resize it…. is this a normal behavior? Thank you very much.

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  • How do I build BugTrap?

    - by magnifico
    I am trying to build the Itellesoft BugTrap source using Visual Studio 2008. I have downloaded and unziped the BugTrap source and the zlib source. I navigated down to ./BugTrap/Win32/BugTrap and opened BugTrap.sln (suggest by the author here). I used Build-Build Solution and the build failed with a compiler error: fatal error C1083: Cannot open include file: 'zip.h': No such file or directory I opened the project properties and added the path to the zlib-vc/zlib/include folder to the list of "Additional Include Directories" and tried to build again. The second build attempt failed with a linker error: fatal error LNK1104: cannot open file 'zlibSD.lib' I opened the zlib project and built the source. The zlib build succeeded. However, the bin directory does not contain a zlibSD.lib. The closest file in name is zlibMSD.lib. This poster on CodeProject seemed to have the same problem I did. But there is no resolution posted. Hopefully someone out there has experience building this project and can point me in the right direction, I've played with the binary distribution and it seems really slick.

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  • How to Sort ip addresses and merge two files in efficent manner using perl or *nix commands?

    - by berkay
    (*) This problem should be done in perl or any *nix commands. i'm working on a program and efficiency matters.The file1 consists ip addresses and some other data: index ipsrc portsrc ip dest port src 8 128.3.45.10 2122 169.182.111.161 80 (same ip src and dst) 9 128.3.45.10 2123 169.182.111.161 22 (same ip src and dst) 10 128.3.45.10 2124 169.182.111.161 80 (same ip src and dst) 19 128.3.45.128 62256 207.245.43.126 80 and other file2 looks like (file1 and file2 are in different order) 128.3.45.10 ioc-sea-lm 169.182.111.161 microsoft-ds 0 0 3 186 3 186 128.3.45.10 hypercube-lm 169.182.111.161 https 0 0 3 186 3 186 128.3.44.112 pay-per-view 148.184.171.6 netbios-ssn 0 0 3 186 3 186 128.3.45.12 cadabra-lm 148.184.171.6 microsoft-ds 0 0 3 186 3 186 1- SORT file1 using IP address in second column and SORT file2 using IP address in first column 2- Merge the 1st, 3rd and 5th columns of File1 with File 2 i need to create a new file which will look: 128.3.45.10 ioc-sea-lm 169.182.111.161 microsoft-ds 0 0 3 186 3 186 --> 2122 80 8 128.3.45.10 hypercube-lm 169.182.111.161 https 0 0 3 186 3 186 --> 2123 22 9 128.3.44.112 pay-per-view 148.184.171.6 netbios-ssn 0 0 3 186 3 186 --> * * * 128.3.45.12 cadabra-lm 148.184.171.6 microsoft-ds 0 0 3 186 3 186 --> * * * basically port numbers and index number will be added.

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  • LinkedIn API returning extra/incorrect login prompt

    - by Paul Osetinsky
    I have a Rails application running the omniauth-linkedin gem and linkedin gem (essentialy an API wrapper). When a user logs in, they receive a primary login prompt that displays to them the correct scopes (FULL PROFILE and EMAIL ADDRESS), as below: However, after they log in, they get another login prompt that should not come up, and that ignores the initial scope request. It tells them that LinkedIN is only requesting their PROFILE OVERVIEW, which is incorrect: The problem must lie in my auth_controller, and I think it has do to with the url that is created in one of the authentication stages (definitely right after the user enters their LinkedIn authentication credentials). Here is my auth_controller: require 'linkedin' class AuthController < ApplicationController def auth client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) request_token = client.request_token(:oauth_callback => "http://#{request.host_with_port}/callback") session[:rtoken] = request_token.token session[:rsecret] = request_token.secret redirect_to client.request_token.authorize_url end def callback client = LinkedIn::Client.new(ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET']) if session[:atoken].nil? pin = params[:oauth_verifier] atoken, asecret = client.authorize_from_request(session[:rtoken], session[:rsecret], pin) session[:atoken] = atoken session[:asecret] = asecret @user = current_user @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' else client.authorize_from_access(session[:atoken], session[:asecret]) @user.uid = client.profile(:fields => ["id"]).id flash.now[:success] = 'Signed in with LinkedIn.' end @user = current_user @user.save redirect_to current_user end end Just in case, here is my omniauth.rb file that states the scopes I am requesting for my application: Rails.application.config.middleware.use OmniAuth::Builder do provider :linkedin, ENV['LINKEDIN_KEY'], ENV['LINKEDIN_SECRET'], :scope => 'r_fullprofile r_emailaddress', :fields => ['id', 'email-address', 'first-name', 'last-name', 'headline', 'industry', 'picture-url', 'public-profile-url', 'location', 'positions', 'educations'] end Can't figure out how to get rid of that second unnecessary and misleading prompt from LinkedIn and would appreciate any guidance! Thank you.

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  • VS 2008 does not understand .resource files

    - by Dmitry
    I'm trying to add globalization support to my C# application. According to MSDN, there should be one embedded resource file for neutral culture and satellite DLLs with resource files for other cultures. I've created 2 satellite DLLs without any problems and got my app to automatically load right one using ResourceManager. But I can't embed default neutral culture resource file into my executable. When I remove all satellite DLLs or set culture to some culture I don't have satellite DLL for, I get exception "Could not find any resources appropriate for the specified culture or the neutral culture." when application attempts to create ResourceManager. It looks like VS 2008 does not include my .resource file into main assembly. I've tried different ways to get resource file embedded: compiling it by resgen.exe from text file and adding it to the project; changing its name to add second .resources extension; creating .resx file with same name; etc. And I still don't see the way to get resource file embedded and used by ResourceManager - I'm having same exception. What is the right way to add default neutral culture resource file to application in VS 2008 ?

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  • Enormous data and PHP errors

    - by salamis
    I am currently using the following HighCharts:HighStock:Charts: http://www.highcharts.com/stock/demo/data-grouping in order to display the data returned from the server. We retrieve the data from a MySQL database and is really big. We are storing sensor metrics every 1 second. After a while we got the following error: [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Fatal error: Allowed memory size of 134217728 bytes exhausted (tried to allocate 4756882 bytes) in C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php on line 156, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP Stack trace:, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 1. {main}() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:0, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 2. getTrendsDataAI() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:33, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 3. printResults() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:102, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 4. createData() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:230, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php [Wed Sep 12 00:15:56 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] PHP 5. implode() C:\\wamp\\www\\admin\\getTrends.php:156, referer: http://localhost/admin/trends.php What is the best solution to return this data as JSON object to HighStocks for viewing? And how can we overcome the PHP limitation? Shall we return chunk of data each time? How do they usually present enormous amount of data to the users and creating charts and reports from this data? Another big problem that we need to overcome is that the returned JSON object is enormous. At this point is around 20-30 mbs and it will be much larger in the future. Is it ok to return this data to the user and perform everything client side? Any suggestions or thoughts welcome.

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  • What is the best way to parse python script file in C/C++ code

    - by alexpov
    I am embedding python in C/C++ program. What I am trying to do is to parse the python script file from the C/C++ program, break the file to "blocks" so that each "block" is an a valid command in python code. Each block I need to put into std::string. For example: #PythonScript.py import math print "Hello Python" i = 0; while (i < 10): print "i = " , i; i = i + 1; print "GoodBye Python" In this script are 5 different "blocks": the first one is "import math;" the second is "print "Hello Python;" the third is "i = 0;" and the fourth is while (i < 10):\n\tprint "i = " , i;\n\ti = i + 1; My knowledge in python is very basic and I am not familiar with the python code syntax. What is the best way to do this, is there any Python C/C++ API function that supports this? why i need it - for GUI purpose. My program , which is writen in C, uses python to make some calculations. I run from C code , using python C API , python script and what i need is a way to capture python's output in my program. I catch it and evrything is ok, the problem is when the script involves user input. What happens is that i capture python's output after the script is finished , therefore, when there is an input command in the script i get a black screen .... i need to get all the printings before the input command. The first solution i tried is to parss the script to valid commands and run each comand, one after the other , seperatly .... for this i need to pars the script and deside what is a command and what is not ... The question is : what is the best way to do this and if there is somthing that allready does ?

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  • Runtime binding of XML Schema to Java code

    - by Yaneeve
    Hi all, The situation is thus: I have an application which provides editing capabilities to XML an file. This file follows a certain Schema. The Schema belongs to a subset of Schemas which actually follow a line of evolution from one to another - so they are not so different from one another. The main difference between the schemas is an enumeration of string labels. I now have need to save "meta data" in XML format (This is a second type of XML file). This "meta data" contains a list of labels from the set enumerated in the schema. The application can accept a new schema at runtime and adjust itself. Therefore I have an XML file that must be validated by two schemas one static containing the basic structure of the "meta data" stored in the XML and one which contains the 'proper' label enumeration. The latter schema is determined at runtime. I have glanced over JAXB, XMLBeans and JiBX. I can't figure out what technology to choose that would allow for a runtime bind of code and schema in the way that would most benefit my use-case. Any suggestions? Thanks!

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  • Help me with DB design

    - by eugeneK
    Hi, i'm developing text ads system. Some small clone of Google Ads. Here is diagram with common tables. Basically make it short, advertiser can have up to 10 variant of same campaign with different text variations, can geo-target his ads and unique impressions count only for IP that haven't been on certain site for more than 24 hours. Pretty simple but the question is what i lack in here from your experience because later it would much harder to fix design flaws and some of you probably done something alike also many SQL gurus in here so maybe i did over normalized DB or did not normalized as needed ? Second question is. My end goal is to get ads for user from ie. Germany that haven't seen same ad on same site for 24 hours as long as ads fit country of user. Each impression is count same as each click if there is one. I need to get 5 "random" ads based on IP, Country and higher CPC (pay per click). How can i achieve this with current design or maybe to design database the way it would be easy to get ads and show stats for advirtisers... thanks for any help...

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  • How to use JQUERY to filter table rows dynamically using multiple form inputs

    - by tresstylez
    I'm displaying a table with multiple rows and columns. I'm using a JQUERY plugin called uiTableFilter which uses a text field input and filters (shows/hides) the table rows based on the input you provide. All you do is specify a column you want to filter on, and it will display only rows that have the text field input in that column. Simple and works fine. I want to add a SECOND text input field that will help me narrow the results down even further. So, for instance if I had a PETS table and one column was petType and one was petColor -- I could type in CAT into the first text field, to show ALL cats, and then in the 2nd text field, I could type black, and the resulting table would display only rows where BLACK CATS were found. Basically, a subset. Here is the JQUERY I'm using: $("#typeFilter").live('keyup', function() { if ($(this).val().length > 2 || $(this).val().length == 0) { var newTable = $('#pets'); $.uiTableFilter( theTable, this.value, "petType" ); } }) // end typefilter $("#colorFilter").live('keyup', function() { if ($(this).val().length > 2 || $(this).val().length == 0) { var newTable = $('#pets'); $.uiTableFilter( newTable, this.value, "petColor" ); } }) // end colorfilter Problem is, I can use one filter, and it will display the correct subset of table rows, but when I provide input for the other filter, it doesn't seem to recognize the visible table rows that are remaining from the previous column, but instead it appears that it does an entirely new filtering of the original table. If 10 rows are returned after applying one filter, the 2nd filter should only apply to THOSE 10 rows. I've tried LIVE and BIND, but not working. Can anyone shed some light on where I'm going wrong? Thanks!

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  • Why does my Workflow Service (4.0) variable go null in a DoWhile Activity?

    - by jlafay
    I have a WF service that I'm trying to setup receive activities to "Subscribe" and "Unsubscribe". I'm using This WF Durable Duplex Tutorial as a basis because my service performs callbacks to clients. Basically, think of it as a chat service. I can make client calls to the two receive activities just fine. What happens is the callback address of the client is passed in to Subscribe() on the service. The address is stored as a variable in the WF service and everything looks like it would work as to be expected. When a client calls Unsubscribe(), my watch I have set on the address var during debugging shows it as null. So what gives? Here's the basic setup of my WF service layout... Everything is enveloped in a DoWhile activity. Inside of that is a Pick activity and two Pick branches. The first branch is for subscribing activities. It has a receive-sendreply activity that assigns the string passed by the client to the WF address var. The second branch handles unsubscribing. The trigger is the Request activity and the client address is again passed in. From there it goes into a sequence, starting with an If. It checks to see if the unsubscribeAddress equals the address already subscribed. If it does, then it sets the address to String.Empty and sends a success message back to the client. Why would a variable that's scoped to the enveloping DoWhile activity be implicitly assigned to null? I'm trying to get this to work so I can implement multiple client subscribers from there and work on triggers that invoke callbacks to multiple clients. CONCAT EDIT: I set a breakpoint at the DoWhile level and my var is null once Unsubscribe() is called. When Subscribe() is invoked, the watch shows a value in the var all the way through. Until I Unsubscribe() with a client. Should I be using a While Activity instead?

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  • Using jQuery and AJAX works for all functions except one, really bizarre issue (from my perspective)

    - by CoreyT
    I am working on a classic asp form that has a number of dropdowns. Three of these are cascading, i.e. they rely in the previous dropdown. For almost everything this code works fine, one of them however is not playing nice. To start off I have a script tag with the following in it: $(document).ready(function () { $("#AcademicLevel").change(getList); $("#CourseDeliveryTime").change(updateLocation); $("#ProgramType").change(updateEntryTerm); }); This works just fine for the first two elements of the form, AcademicLevel and CourseDeliveryTime, the third however does not take effect however. If I use Firebug's Console and run that same line of code, $("#ProgramType").change(updateEntryTerm);, it starts to work, sort of. What happens is what confuses me. If the function it is pointing to, updateEntryTerm, has an alert() call in it, it works. If the alert is commented out, it does not work. The function is below: function updateEntryTerm() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "../Classic ASP and AJAX/jQueryExample.asp", dataType: "application/x-www-form-urlencoded", data: "Action=UpdateEntryTerm&acadLevel=" + $("#AcademicLevel").val() + "&courseTime=" + $("#CourseDeliveryTime").val() + "&programType=" + $("#ProgramType").val(), async: false, success: function (msg) { $("#EntryTerm").remove(); $("#tdEntryTerm").append(msg); //alert(msg); } //, //error: function (xhr, option, err) { // alert("XHR Status: " + xhr.statusText + ", Error - " + err); //} }); } I am lost on two different issues here, First why is the call to $("#ProgramType").change(updateEntryTerm); not working unless I run it in Firebug Console? Second, why does the function itself, updateEntryTerm, not work unless the alert() call is present? Has anyone seem something like this before?

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  • [NSFetchedResultsController sections] returns nil?

    - by Chris
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to resolve this for days at this stage and I'm hoping you can help. I have two ViewControllers which query two different tables from the same database using Core Data. The first ViewController is opened with the app and displays fine. The second is called from within the first ViewController, using a pretty standard fetch setup: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedClients { // Set up the fetched results controller if needed. if (fetchedClients == nil) { // Create the fetch request for the entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Clients" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // Edit the sort key as appropriate. NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"clientsName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; // Edit the section name key path and cache name if appropriate. // nil for section name key path means "no sections". NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedClients = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; } return fetchedClients; } When I call [self.fetchedClients sections], I get a nil (0x0) return. I have examined the database using an external application to ensure data exists in the "Clients" table. Can anyone think of a reason why [self.fetchedClients sections] would return nil? Many thanks for any help you can provide. Regards, Chris

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  • Windows update breaks dlls?

    - by shoosh
    I'm compiling a project which uses multiple DLL and compiles with VS2008. After a recent windows update DLLs compiled on my computer stopped working on other computers. After some investigation it turned out that it updated the CRT redistributable library which I'm compiling with from version "9.0.21022.8" to version "9.0.30729.4148" This is evident from the Manifest file of the EXE i'm compiling. it contains the following: <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type="win32" name="Microsoft.VC90.CRT" version="9.0.21022.8" processorArchitecture="amd64" publicKeyToken="1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b"></assemblyIdentity> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type="win32" name="Microsoft.VC90.CRT" version="9.0.30729.4148" processorArchitecture="amd64" publicKeyToken="1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b"></assemblyIdentity> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> Meaning it wants to use two different versions of the CRT at the same time. the second version is needed by the code which I'm compiling right now and the first version is needed by older dlls which were compiled a few weeks ago. In the computers where the application is deployed this becomes a problem since they get their CRT dll from a local folder called Microsoft.VC90.CRT and not from WinSXS. This folder can't contain two different versions of the dll. Is there a known solution to this issue or do I need to start compiling all of the other DLLs with the new CRT?

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  • Fulltext search on many tables

    - by Rob
    I have three tables, all of which have a column with a fulltext index. The user will enter search terms into a single text box, and then all three tables will be searched. This is better explained with an example: documents doc_id name FULLTEXT table2 id doc_id a_field FULLTEXT table3 id doc_id another_field FULLTEXT (I realise this looks stupid but that's because I've removed all the other fields and tables to simplify it). So basically I want to do a fulltext search on name, a_field and another_field, and then show the results as a list of documents, preferably with what caused that document to be found, e.g. if another_field matched, I would display what another_field is. I began working on a system whereby three fulltext search queries are performed and the results inserted into a table with a structure like: search_results table_name row_id score (This could later be made to cache results for a few days with e.g. a hash of the search terms). This idea has two problems. The first is that the same document can be in the search results up to three times with different scores. Instead of that, if the search term is matched in two tables, it should have one result, but a higher score. The second is that parsing the results is difficult. I want to display a list of documents, but I don't immediately know the doc_id without a join of some kind; however the table to join to is dependant on the table_name column, and I'm not sure how to accomplish that. Wanting to search multiple related tables like this must be a common thing, so I guess what I'm asking is am I approaching this in the right way? Can someone tell me the best way of doing it please.

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  • Need advice on using Grails and Ajax to append to a div like in Rails

    - by Nate
    I'm just starting out in Grails and need some advice on using Ajax. I want to append some html to the bottom of a div inside a form. This is basically what I have: -form- -div id="listOfchildren"- childrow 1 input fields childrow 2 input fields childrow 3 input fields -/div- -form- -a-Add Child 4-/a- When I click on the "Add Child" I want to make an ajax call that results in a new childrow getting inserted into the "listOfchildren" div. So the document would look like this: -form- -div id="listOfchildren"- childrow 1 input fields childrow 2 input fields childrow 3 input fields childrow 4 input fields -/div- -form- -a-Add Child 5-/a- In Rails I would do something simple like this: render :update do |page| page.insert_html :bottom, "list_of_children", :partial = child_partial page.replace "add_link", :partial = 'add_link' end The previous code sends an javascript back to the browser with two commands. The first command tells the browser to append some html to the bottom of a div. The second command updates the "add link" counter. In grails I can only see how to replace an entire div (which would wipe out the user's existing input) and I don't see how I can call multiple functions from the ajax response. I can probably do this if I was to write some javascript functions in prototype or whatever, but I'd like to avoid that if there is a simpler way. Thanks! Nate

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  • C# Taking a element off each time (stack)

    - by Sef
    Greetings, Have a question considering a program that stimulates a stack.(not using any build in stack features or any such) stack2= 1 2 3 4 5 //single dimension array of 5 elements By calling up a method "pop" the stack should look like the following: Basically taking a element off each time the stack is being "called" up again. stack2= 1 2 3 4 0 stack2= 1 2 3 0 0 stack2= 1 2 0 0 0 stack2= 1 0 0 0 0 stack2= 0 0 0 0 0 - for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { number= TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Basically I already have code that fills my array with values (trough a push method). The pop method should basically take the last value and place it on 0. Then calls up the next stack and place the following on 0 (like shown above in stack2). The current pop method that keeps track of the top index (0 elements = 0 top, 1 element = 1 top etc..). Already includes a underflow warning if this goes on 0 or below (which is correct). public int Pop() { if(top <= 0) { throw new Exception("Stack underflow..."); } else { for (int j = tabel.Length - 1; j >= 0; j--) { //...Really not sure what to do here. } } return number; }/*Pop*/ Since in the other class I already have a loop (for loop shown above) that simulates 6 times the s2 stack. (first stack: 1 2 3 4 0, second stack 1 2 3 0 0 and so on.) How exactly do I take a element off each time? Either I have the entire display on 0 or the 0 in the wrong places / out of index errors. Thanks in advance!

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  • VB.NET - Removing a number from a random number generator

    - by Alex
    I am trying to create a lottery simulator. The lottery has 6 numbers, the number generated must be between 1 - 49 and cannot be in the next number generated. I have tried using the OR function but I'm not entirely sure if I am using it properly. Any help would be great. Thanks. Public Class Form1 Private Sub cmdRun_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles cmdRun.Click 'Creates a new Random class in VB.NET Dim RandomClass As New Random() '#################################### Dim RandomNumber1 As Integer RandomNumber1 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) 'Displays first number generated txtFirst.Text = (RandomNumber1) '#################################### Dim RandomNumber2 As Integer RandomNumber2 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) If RandomNumber2 = RandomNumber1 Then RandomNumber2 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) End If 'Displays second number generated txtSecond.Text = (RandomNumber2) '#################################### Dim RandomNumber3 As Integer RandomNumber3 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) If RandomNumber3 = RandomNumber2 Or RandomNumber2 Then RandomNumber3 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) End If 'Displays third number generated txtThird.Text = (RandomNumber3) '#################################### Dim RandomNumber4 As Integer RandomNumber4 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) If RandomNumber4 = RandomNumber3 Or RandomNumber2 Or RandomNumber1 Then RandomNumber4 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) End If 'Displays fourth number generated txtFourth.Text = (RandomNumber4) '#################################### Dim RandomNumber5 As Integer RandomNumber5 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) If RandomNumber5 = RandomNumber4 Or RandomNumber3 Or RandomNumber2 Or RandomNumber1 Then RandomNumber5 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) End If 'Displays fifth number generated txtFifth.Text = (RandomNumber5) '#################################### Dim RandomNumber6 As Integer RandomNumber6 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) If RandomNumber6 = RandomNumber5, RandomNumber4, RandomNumber3, RandomNumber2, RandomNumber1 Then RandomNumber6 = RandomClass.Next(1, 49) End If 'Displays sixth number generated txtSixth.Text = (RandomNumber6) End Sub

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  • Linq to SQL Problem System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager

    - by luckyluke
    I have a really tricky thing going up here. My project has around 100 tables and they are all mapped by LINQ. Everything works fine in a dev and test environment. These enviroments are MS Win 2008 r2 servers with SQL 2008 sp1 databases. IIS and SQL are on a different machines. Now on production enviroment which is MS Win 2003 x64 web farm + geoclustered SQL 2008 IT DOES not work. All I get is the exception System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.MultiKeyManager3.TryCreateKeyFr>om Values(Object[] values, MultiKey& k) at System.Data.Linq.IdentityManager.StandardIdentityManager.IdentityCache2.Find(Object[] keyValues) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.GetOtherItem(MetaAssociation assoc, Object instance) at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.BuildEdgeMaps() at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at ERS.IIMP.Services.ExposuresSrv.Update(Int32 ExpID, Int32 AssID) Services\ExposuresSrv.cs` My question is What the hell. They have precisely the same DBML, the DB has exactly THE SAME structure (when I get the DB from prod to TEST and mount it eveything works just great), the binaries on the WEB Server are the same. I seriously do not know what to do.... Did anyone found that Linq works on one env and does not on the second?? I mam really lost here. I really hope You can help me:)

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  • Custom ConfigurationSection: CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing? EDIT I discovered that actually the validation function is being called twice: the first time with the default value of the property, which is an empty string if nothing is specified, the second time with the real value read from the configuration file. Is there a way to modify this behavior?

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