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  • Is it advisable to have an interface as the return type?

    - by wb
    I have a set of classes with the same functions but with different logic. However, each class function can return a number of objects. It is safe to set the return type as the interface? Each class (all using the same interface) is doing this with different business logic. protected IMessage validateReturnType; <-- This is in an abstract class public bool IsValid() <-- This is in an abstract class { return (validateReturnType.GetType() == typeof(Success)); } public IMessage Validate() { if (name.Length < 5) { validateReturnType = new Error("Name must be 5 characters or greater."); } else { validateReturnType = new Success("Name is valid."); } return validateReturnType; } Are there any pitfalls with unit testing the return type of an function? Also, is it considered bad design to have functions needing to be run in order for them to succeed? In this example, Validate() would have to be run before IsValid() or else IsValid() would always return false. Thank you.

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  • Python, lambda, find minimum

    - by qba
    I have foreach function which calls specified function on every element which it contains. I want to get minimum from thise elements but I have no idea how to write lambda or function or even a class that would manage that. Thanks for every help. I use my foreach function like this: o.foreach( lambda i: i.call() ) or o.foreach( I.call ) I don't like to make a lists or other objects. I want to iterate trough it and find min. I manage to write a class that do the think but there should be some better solution than that: class Min: def __init__(self,i): self.i = i def get_min(self): return self.i def set_val(self,o): if o.val < self.i: self.i = o.val m = Min( xmin ) self.foreach( m.set_val ) xmin = m.get_min() Ok, so I suppose that my .foreach method is non-python idea. I should do my Class iterable because all your solutions are based on lists and then everything will become easier. In C# there would be no problem with lambda function like that, so I though that python is also that powerful.

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  • JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

    - by John
    I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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  • What is the best way of doing this? (WCF 4)

    - by Jason Porter
    I have a multith-threaded, continusly running application that connects with multiple devices via TCP/IP sockets and exposes a set of WCF API's for controlling, monitoring and reporting on these devices. I would like to host this on IIS for the ususal reasons of not having to worry about re-starting the app in case of errors. So the issue I have is the main application running in parallel with the WCF Servies. To accomplish this I use the static AppInitialize class to start a thread which has the main applicaiton loop. The WCF services mostly report or control the shared objects with this thread. There are two problems that I see with this approach. One is that if the thread dies, IIS has no clue to re-start it so I have to play some tricks with some WCF calls. The other is that the backrgound thread deals with potentially thousands of devices that are connected permanently (typically a thread per socket connection). So I am not sure if IIS is buying me anything in this case. Another approach that I am thinking is to use WF for the main application that deals with the sockets and host both the WF and my WCF services in IIS using AppFabric. Since I have not use WF or AppFabric I am reaching out to see if this would be good approach or there are better alternative.

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  • Determining an object's variable name dynamically?

    - by ZenBlender
    Let's say I have some objects: ArrayList<SomeObject> list = new ArrayList<SomeObject>(); SomeObject A = new SomeObject(); SomeObject B = new SomeObject(); SomeObject C = new SomeObject(); SomeObject D = new SomeObject(); These constructors automatically add each object to the ArrayList so I can iterate over them but still maintain the variable names for direct access: public SomeObject(){ // init stuff here list.add(this); } But then, let's say I want to output some debug info, and iterate through list and print out the NAME of each object? How can I do that? Essentially, when "SomeObject A = new SomeObject();" is executed, I want to use reflection (if possible) to determine that this variable's name is "A" (a String) and either store that in the object when the constructor executes, or determine it dynamically through reflection when referencing this object with the variable named "A". Does that make sense? How can I do this? Thanks!

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  • Convert C# (with typed events) to VB.NET

    - by Steven
    I have an ASPX page (with VB Codebehind). I would like to extend the GridView class to show the header / footer when no rows are returned. I found a C# example online (link) (source). However, I cannot convert it to VB because it uses typed events (which are not legal in VB). I have tried several free C# to VB.NET converters online, but none have worked. Please convert the example to VB.NET or provide an alternate method of extending the GridView class. Notes / Difficulties: If you get an error with DataView objects, specify the type as System.Data.DataView and the type comparison could be the following: If data.[GetType]() Is GetType(System.Data.DataView) Then Since the event MustAddARow cannot have a type in VB (and RaiseEvent event doesn't have a return value), how can I compare it to Nothing in the function OnMustAddARow()? EDIT: The following is a sample with (hopefully) relevant code to help answer the question. namespace AlwaysShowHeaderFooter { public delegate IEnumerable MustAddARowHandler(IEnumerable data); public class GridViewAlwaysShow : GridView { ////////////////////////////////////// // Various member functions omitted // ////////////////////////////////////// protected IEnumerable OnMustAddARow(IEnumerable data) { if (MustAddARow == null) { throw new NullReferenceException("The datasource has no rows. You must handle the \"MustAddARow\" Event."); } return MustAddARow(data); } public event MustAddARowHandler MustAddARow; } }

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  • No result when Rally.data.WsapiDataStore lacks permissions

    - by user1195996
    I'm calling Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', params), and looking for results with the load event. I'm requesting a number of objects across programs that the user may or may not have read permission for. This works fine for queries where the user has permissions. But in the case where the user does not have permission and presumably gets zero results back, the load event does not seem to fire at all. I would expect it to fire with the unsuccessful flag or else to return with empty results. Since I don't know that the request has failed, my program waits and waits. How can I tell if a this request fails to return because of security? BTW, looking at the network stats, I believe all my requests get a "200 OK" status back. Here is the method I use to create the various data stores: _createDataStore: function(params) { this.openRequests++; var createParams = { model: params.type, autoLoad: true, // So I can later determine which query type it is, and which program requestType: params.requestType == undefined ? params.type : params.requestType, program: this.program, listeners: { load: this._onDataLoaded, scope: this }, filters: params.filters, pageSize: params.pageSize, fetch: params.fetch, context: { project: this.project, projectScopeUp: false, projectScopeDown: true }, pageSize: 1 // We only need the count }; console.log('_createDataStore', this.program, createParams.requestType); Ext.create('Rally.data.WsapiDataStore', createParams); }, And here is the _onDataLoaded method: _onDataLoaded: function(store, data, successB) { console.log('_onDataLoaded', this.program, successB); ... I only see this function called for those queries for which the account has permissions.

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  • JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate Spring MVC 3.0

    - by user558019
    Dear All i have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate and spring 3.0 mvc annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some refference classes and then my porblem. public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } public class child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate or spring thanks in advance

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  • Does Entity Framework saves related classes automatically?

    - by herbatnic
    Let's assume that we have such classes public class A{ string someField { get; set; } public virtual B B {get; set; } } public class B { int someIntField {get; set; } [ForeignKey("Id")] [Required] public virtual A A { get; set; } } In code I create new instances for both of them and making relation like: A a = new A () { someField = "abcd"}; B b = new B () { someIntField = 42 }; A.B = b; B.A = a; Should I using DBContext to save both classes like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.Bs.Add(B); myDBContext.SaveChanges(); } Or saving it like that: using (var db = new myDbContext()) { myDbContext.As.Add(A); myDbContext.SaveChanges(); } is enough to store related objects into database?

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  • How to serialize each item in IEnumerable for ajax post

    - by bflemi3
    I have a PartialView that displays IEnumerable<Movie>. _MoviePartial.cshtml @foreach(var movie in Model) { <div class="content"> <span class="image"><img src="@movie.Posters.Profile" alt="@movie.Title"/></span> <span class="title">@movie.Title</span> <div class="score`"> <span class="critics-score">@movie.Ratings.CriticsScore</span> <span class="audience-score">@movie.Ratings.AudienceScore</span> </div> @Html.ActionLink("Add Movie", "Add", "MyMovies") </div> } When the user clicks the "Add Movie" ActionLink I am going to do an ajax post to add the selected movie to the users collection. My problem is that I would like to send the entire selected Movie class to the "Add" action but not sure how to serialize each movie since the entire Movie class is not rendered in the PartialView, just a few properties. I know I can serialize something like this... <script type="text/javascript"> var obj = @Html.Raw(Json.Encode(movie)); </script> But I'm not sure how that would work inside a foreach loop that renders html, especially inside a PartialView. So, just to be clear, when a user clicks the "Add Movie" ActionLink I would like to send the serialized Movie class for that respective movie to my controller via ajax. My questions is... Is there a better way to serialize each movie and append it to it's respective anchor? I know there's the data- html5 attribute but I thought they only allow string values, not json objects. I also know I could use jQuery's .data() function but I'm struggling to think through how to get that to run from a PartialView, especially since the html rendered by _MoviePartial.cshtml may be returned from a controller via ajax.

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  • WCF - Return object without serializing?

    - by Mayo
    One of my WCF functions returns an object that has a member variable of a type from another library that is beyond my control. I cannot decorate that library's classes. In fact, I cannot even use DataContractSurrogate because the library's classes have private member variables that are essential to operation (i.e. if I return the object without those private member variables, the public properties throw exceptions). If I say that interoperability for this particular method is not needed (at least until the owners of this library can revise to make their objects serializable), is it possible for me to use WCF to return this object such that it can at least be consumed by a .NET client? How do I go about doing that? Update: I am adding pseudo code below... // My code, I have control [DataContract] public class MyObject { private TheirObject theirObject; [DataMember] public int SomeNumber { get { return theirObject.SomeNumber; } // public property exposed private set { } } } // Their code, I have no control public class TheirObject { private TheirOtherObject theirOtherObject; public int SomeNumber { get { return theirOtherObject.SomeOtherProperty; } set { // ... } } } I've tried adding DataMember to my instance of their object, making it public, using a DataContractSurrogate, and even manually streaming the object. In all cases, I get some error that eventually leads back to their object not being explicitly serializable.

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  • Entityframework duplicate record on second insert

    - by Delysid
    I am building an application for recipe/meal planning, and i have come across a problem i cant seem to figure out. i have a table for units of measure, where i keep the used units in, i only want unique units in here (for grocery list calculation and so forth) but if i use a unit from the table on a recipe, the first time it is okay, nothing is inserted in units of measure, but the second time i get a "duplicate". i suspect it has something to do with entitykey, because the primary key is identity column on the sql server (2008 r2) for some reason it works to change the objectstate on some objects (courses, see code) and that does not generate a duplicate, but that does not work on the unit of measure my insert methods looks like this : public recipe Create(recipe recipe) { using (RecipeDataContext ctx = new RecipeDataContext()) { foreach (recipe_ingredient rec_ing in recipe.recipe_ingredient) { if (rec_ing.ingredient.ingredient_id == 0) { ingredient ing = (from _ing in ctx.ingredients where _ing.name == rec_ing.ingredient.name select _ing).FirstOrDefault(); if (ing != null) { rec_ing.ingredient_id = ing.ingredient_id; rec_ing.ingredient = null; } } if (rec_ing.unit_of_measure.unit_of_measure_id == 0) { unit_of_measure _uom = (from dbUom in ctx.unit_of_measure where dbUom.unit == rec_ing.unit_of_measure.unit select dbUom).FirstOrDefault(); if (_uom != null) { rec_ing.unit_of_measure_id = _uom.unit_of_measure_id; rec_ing.unit_of_measure = null; } } ctx.Recipes.AddObject(recipe); //for some reason it works to change object state of this, and not generate a duplicate ctx.ObjectStateManager.ChangeObjectState(recipe.courses[0], EntityState.Unchanged); } ctx.SaveChanges(); } return recipe; } My datamodel looks like this : http://i.imgur.com/NMwZv.png

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  • Error in django using Apache & mod_wsgi

    - by Ignacio
    Hey, I've been doing some changes to my django develpment env, as some of you suggested. So far I've managed to configure and run it successfully with postgres. Now I'm trying to run the app using apache2 and mod_wsgi, but I ran into this little problem after I followed the guidelines from the django docs. When I access localhost/myapp/tasks this error raises: Request Method: GET Request URL: http://localhost/myapp/tasks/ Exception Type: TemplateSyntaxError Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: argument 1 must be a string or unicode object Original Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/template/debug.py", line 71, in render_node result = node.render(context) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/template/defaulttags.py", line 126, in render len_values = len(values) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 81, in __len__ self._result_cache = list(self.iterator()) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/query.py", line 238, in iterator for row in self.query.results_iter(): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 287, in results_iter for rows in self.execute_sql(MULTI): File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/models/sql/query.py", line 2369, in execute_sql cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 19, in execute return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) TypeError: argument 1 must be a string or unicode object ... ... ... And then it highlights a {% for t in tasks %} template tag, like the source of the problem is there, but it worked fine on the built-in server. The view associated with that page is really simple, just fetch all Task objects. And the template just displays them on a table. Also, some pages get rendered ok. Don't want to fill this Question with code, so if you need some more info I'd be glad to provide it. Thanks

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  • iPhone application purchase verification -- possible?

    - by Sedate Alien
    The iPhone 3.0 SDK's StoreKit.framework provides support for in-app purchases to give the user additional content, functionality and so on. It is possible for an app to send the transactionReceipt property of SKPaymentTransaction objects to the developer's server for verification of successful purchasing before granting service. Is there any analogous SDK to verify the initial application purchase itself? A developer that wishes for their server to only provide services to genuine applications (i.e. not pirated) without using IAP could do so by verifying the application in this manner, e.g. ensure that only users with the correct transactionReceipt are catered for. I understand that this approach would still be vulnerable to replay attacks; a dedicated group of pirates could share a valid transactionReceipt. However, my server provides a consumable service to users, i.e. once they've connected and done the work, it needn't work a second time so replay attacks are nullified. The service that my app provides is relatively niche. I could distribute it on the App Store as a free application that requires at least one IAP to do anything useful, but I am lead to believe that this would be a very unpopular move among users as it would be considered misleading. If I distribute it as a paid app, I do not know how to ensure that only genuine apps can access the webservice. This is important as every invocation of the webservice costs me money! What are my options?

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  • Processing data from an AJAX request

    - by Josh K
    I have a PHP API I'm working with that outputs everything as JSON. I need to call one of the API methods and parse it out using an AJAX request. I am using jQuery (though it shouldn't matter). When I make the request it errors out with a "parsererror" as the textStatus and a "Syntax Error: invalid label" when I make the request. Simplified code: $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://mydomain.com/api/get/userlist/"+mid, dataType: "json", dataFilter: function(data, type) { /* Here we assume and pray */ users = eval(data); alert(users[1].id); }, success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) { alert(data.length); // Should be an array, yet is undefined. }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert(textStatus); alert(errorThrown); }, complete: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus) { alert("Done"); } }); If I leave off the eval(data) then everything works fine. Well, except for data still being undefined in success. Note that I'm taking an array of objects in PHP and then passing them out through json_encode. Would that make any difference? There has been no progress made on this. I'm willing to throw more code up if someone believes they can help. Here is the PHP side of things private function _get_user_colors($id) { $u = new User(); $u->get_where(array('id' => $id)); $bar = array(); $bar['user'] = $u->stored; foreach($user->colors as $color) { $bar['colors'][] = $color; } echo(json_encode($bar)); } I have had zero issues using this with other PHP based scripts. I don't know why Javascript would take issue with it.

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  • Design Pattern for Changing Object

    - by user210757
    Is there a Design Pattern for supporting different permutations object? Version 1 public class myOjbect { public string field1 { get; set; } /* requirements: max length 20 */ public int field2 { get; set; } . . . public decimal field200 { get; set; } } Version 2 public class myObject { public string field1 { get; set; } /* requirements: max length 40 */ public int field2 { get; set; } . . . public double field200 { get; set; } /* changed data types */ . . ./* 10 new properties */ public double field210 { get; set; } } of course I could just have separate objects, but thought there might be a good pattern for this sort of thing.

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  • Serialization for memcached

    - by Ram
    I have this huge domain object(say parent) which contains other domain objects. It takes a lot of time to "create" this parent object by querying a DB (OK we are optimizing the DB). So we decided to cache it using memcached (with northscale to be specific) So I have gone through my code and marked all the classes (I think) as [Serializable], but when I add it to the cache, I see a Serialization Exception getting thrown in my VS.net output window. var cache = new NorthScaleClient("MyBucket"); cache.Store(StoreMode.Set, key, value); This is the exception: A first chance exception of type 'System.Runtime.Serialization.SerializationException' occurred in mscorlib.dll SO my guess is, I have not marked all classes as [Serializable]. I am not using any third party libraries and can mark any class as [Serializable], but how do I find out which class is failing when the cache is trying to serialize the object ? Edit1: casperOne comments make me think. I was able to cache these domain object with Microsoft Cache Application Block without marking them [Serializable], but not with NorthScale memcached. It makes me think that there might be something to do with their implementation, but just out of curiosity, am still interested in finding where it fails when trying to add the object to memcached

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  • How to speed-up a simple method? (possibily without changing interfaces or data structures)

    - by baol
    Hello. I have some data structures: all_unordered_mordered_m is a big vector containing all the strings I need (all different) ordered_m is a small vector containing the indexes of a subset of the strings (all different) in the former vector position_m maps the indexes of objects from the first vector to their position in the second one. The string_after(index, reverse) method returns the string referenced by ordered_m after all_unordered_m[index]. ordered_m is considered circular, and is explored in natural or reverse order depending on the second parameter. The code is something like the following: struct ordered_subset { // [...] std::vector<std::string>& all_unordered_m; // size = n >> 1 std::vector<size_t> ordered_m; // size << n std::map<size_t, size_t> position_m; // positions of strings in ordered_m const std::string& string_after(size_t index, bool reverse) const { size_t pos = position_m.find(index)->second; if(reverse) pos = (pos == 0 ? orderd_m.size() - 1 : pos - 1); else pos = (pos == ordered.size() - 1 ? 0 : pos + 1); return all_unordered_m[ordered_m[pos]]; } }; Given that: I do need all of the data-structures for other purposes; I cannot change them because I need to access the strings: by their id in the all_unordered_m; by their index inside the various ordered_m; I need to know the position of a string (identified by it's position in the first vector) inside ordered_m vector; I cannot change the string_after interface without changing most of the program. How can I speed up the string_after method that is called billions of times and is eating up about 10% of the execution time?

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  • Java - multithreaded access to a local value store which is periodically cleared

    - by Telax
    I'm hoping for some advice or suggestions on how best to handle multi threaded access to a value store. My local value storage is designed to hold onto objects which are currently in use. If the object is not in use then it is removed from the store. A value is pumped into my store via thread1, its entry into the store is announced to listeners, and the value is stored. Values coming in on thread1 will either be totally new values or updates for existing values. A timer is used to periodically remove any value from the store which is not currently in use and so all that remains of this value is its ID held locally by an intermediary. Now, an active element on thread2 may wake up and try to access a set of values by passing a set of value IDs which it knows about. Some values will be stored already (great) and some may not (sadface). Those values which are not already stored will be retrieved from an external source. My main issue is that items which have not already been stored and are currently being queried for may arrive in on thread1 before the query is complete. I'd like to try and avoid locking access to the store whilst a query is being made as it may take some time.

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  • What happens when you create an instance of an object containing no state in C#?

    - by liquorice
    I am I think ok at algorithmic programming, if that is the right term? I used to play with turbo pascal and 8086 assembly language back in the 1980s as a hobby. But only very small projects and I haven't really done any programming in the 20ish years since then. So I am struggling for understanding like a drowning swimmer. So maybe this is a very niave question or I'm just making no sense at all, but say I have an object kind of like this: class Something : IDoer { void Do(ISomethingElse x) { x.DoWhatEverYouWant(42); } } And then I do var Thing1 = new Something(); var Thing2 = new Something(); Thing1.Do(blah); Thing2.Do(blah); does Thing1 = Thing2? does "new Something()" create anything? Or is it not much different different from having a static class, except I can pass it around and swap it out etc. Is the "Do" procedure in the same location in memory for both the Thing1(blah) and Thing2(blah) objects? I mean when executing it, does it mean there are two Something.Do procedures or just one?

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  • Applying a function that may fail to all values in a list

    - by Egwor
    I want to apply a function f to a list of values, however function f might randomly fail (it is in effect making a call out to a service in the cloud). I thought I'd want to use something like map, but I want to apply the function to all elements in the list and afterwards, I want to know which ones failed and which were successful. Currently I am wrapping the response objects of the function f with an error pair which I could then effectively unzip afterwards i.e. something like g : (a->b) -> a -> [ b, errorBoolean] f : a-> b and then to run the code ... map g (xs) Is there a better way to do this? The other alternative approach was to iterate over the values in the array and then return a pair of arrays, one which listed the successful values and one which listed the failures. To me, this seems to be something that ought to be fairly common. Alternatively I could return some special value. What's the best practice in dealing with this??

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  • Store data in tableview to NSUserDefaults

    - by Jozef Vrana
    Tricks.h file #import "Tricks.h" @implementation Tricks static NSMutableArray *trickList = nil; +(NSMutableArray *)trickList { if(!trickList){ trickList = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } return trickList; } @end Tricks.m file @interface Tricks : NSObject @property(strong, nonatomic) NSString *trickName; Method for adding objects to array -(IBAction)saveAction:(id)sender { Tricks *trick = [[Tricks alloc]init]; trick.trickName = self.trickLabel.text; [[Tricks trickList]insertObject:trick atIndex:0]; [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } In .h file of UITabelview class I am making a reference to tricks class, but I am sure there is error on this line. @property (strong, nonatomic) Tricks *tricks; In cellForRow method I am storing data _trick = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]initWithObjectsAndKeys:trick,nil]; NSUserDefaults *defaults=[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; [defaults setObject:_trick forKey:@"numberArray"]; [defaults synchronize]; NSLog(@"%@",_trick); In .m class of UITableview in viewDidLoad I want to retrieve data if([[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"] != nil) { _tricks = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] objectForKey:@"numberArray"]; } Thanks for advices

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  • iPad search bar bad memory access?

    - by Geoff Baum
    Hello all, So I am trying to implement a search bar in my app and am very close but can't seem to figure out where this memory error is occurring. This is what part of my search method looks like: filters = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSString *searchText = detailSearch.text; NSMutableArray *searchArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Normally holds the object (ex: 70 locations) searchArray = self.copyOfFilters ; //This is the line that is breaking after ~2-3 letters are entered in the search for (NSString *sTemp in searchArray) { NSRange titleResultsRange = [sTemp rangeOfString:searchText options:NSCaseInsensitiveSearch]; if (titleResultsRange.length > 0) [filters addObject:sTemp]; } displayedFilters = filters; copyOfFilters is a deep copy of the displayed filters that appear when the view first loads via: self.copyOfFilters = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:displayedFilters copyItems:YES]; I have traced through the entry of letters and it is accurate after 2 letters, but once you try and enter a letter after a space in the search bar, it crashes. The value of copyOfFilters = {(int)[$VAR count]} objects. Does anyone know what may be causing this? Thanks!

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  • Creation of model in core data on the fly

    - by user1740045
    How can we create a model in core data on the fly? I.e getting the schema of database from somewhere and then creating a Core Data Object graph? *QuesTion:* Yes thats fine, agreed with all the advantages. But, can anybody can tell practically, what is the benefit of integrating Core Data into project instead of using SQL directly. 1.No need to write SQL boiler plate code [but need to learn Core Data Model (steep curve)] 2.WE can undo and redo changes [but practically who needs it] 3.we can migrate to another schema [that can be done by SQLite as well jus need to add another field into table] 4.For say aggregation on some field in table,in Core Data we need to loop through Core Data Objects whereas in SQLite we need to first write SQLite Boiler Plate Code and then the basic aggregation SQL query,which is easy to write,only length of code will increase...But in case of Core Data (need to learn a lot). So apart from reducing the length of Code,does it actually adds value to project? or in terms of Memory Efficiency,Performance,etc.. PS: If anybody has actualy worked on Core Data(Model Creation On the Fly) , if possible share and gve pointers..thanks!

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  • AS3 colorTransform over multiple frames?

    - by user359519
    (Flash Professional, AS3) I'm working on a custom avatar system where you can select various festures and colors. For example, I have 10 hairstyles, and a colorPicker to change the color. mc_myAvatar has 10 frames. Each frame has a movieclip of a different hairstyle (HairStyle1, HairStyle2, etc.) Here's my code: var hairColor:ColorTransform; hairColor = mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform; hairColor.color = 0xCCCC00; mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer.transform.colorTransform = hairColor; This correctly changes the initial color. I have a "nextHair" button to advance mc_myAvatar.hair to the next frame. When I click the button, I get an error message saying that I have a null object reference. I added a trace, and mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null on frame 2. Why??? I've clearly named HairStyle2 as "colorLayer" in frame 2. I think the problem is related to me using the same name for different classes/movieclips, but I don't know how to fix the problem... I added a square movieclip below my hairStyle movieclips, named the square "colorLevel", and deleted the name from my hairStyle clips. When I click the next button, the square correctly maintains the color from frame to frame. However, having a square doesn't do me much good. :( I tried converting the hairStyle layer to a mask. Doing this, however, results in yet another "null object" error - mc_myAvatar.hair.colorLayer is null after frame 1. I even tried "spanning" my colorLevel across all frames (no keyframes), thinking that this would give me just one movieclip to work with. No luck. Same error! What's going on, here? Why am I getting these null objects, when they are clearly defined in my movieclip? I'm also open to suggestions on a better way to do multiple frames and colors.

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