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  • Simple Observation in Django: How Can I Correctly Modify The `attrs` sent to __new__ of a Django Mod

    - by DGGenuine
    Hello, I'm a strong proponent of the observer pattern, and this is what I'd like to be able to do in my Django models.py: class AModel(Model): __metaclass__ = SomethingMagical @post_save(AnotherModel) @classmethod def observe_another_model_saved(klass, sender, instance, created, **kwargs): pass @pre_init('YetAnotherModel') @classmethod def observe_yet_another_model_initializing(klass, sender, *args, **kwargs): pass @post_delete('DifferentApp.SomeModel') @classmethod def observe_some_model_deleted(klass, sender, **kwargs): pass This would connect a signal with sender = the decorator's argument and receiver = the decorated method. Right now my signal connection code all exists in __init__.py which is okay, but a little unmaintainable. I want this code all in one place, the models.py file. Thanks to helpful feedback from the community I'm very close (I think.) (I'm using a metaclass solution instead of the class decorator solution in the previous question/answer because you can't set attributes on classmethods, which I need.) I am having a strange error I don't understand. At the end of my post are the contents of a models.py that you can pop into a fresh project/application to see the error. Set your database to sqlite and add the application to installed apps. This is the error: Validating models... Unhandled exception in thread started by Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages//lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/commands/runserver.py", line 48, in inner_run File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 253, in validate raise CommandError("One or more models did not validate:\n%s" % error_text) django.core.management.base.CommandError: One or more models did not validate: local.myothermodel: 'my_model' has a relation with model MyModel, which has either not been installed or is abstract. I've indicated a few different things you can comment in/out to fix the error. First, if you don't modify the attrs sent to the metaclass's __new__, then the error does not arise. (Note even if you copy the dictionary element by element into a new dictionary, it still fails; only using the exact attrs dictionary works.) Second, if you reference the first model by class rather than by string, the error also doesn't arise regardless of what you do in __new__. I appreciate your help. I'll be githubbing the solution if and when it works. Maybe other people would enjoy a simplified way to use Django signals to observe application happenings. #models.py from django.db import models from django.db.models.base import ModelBase from django.db.models import signals import pdb class UnconnectedMethodWrapper(object): sender = None method = None signal = None def __init__(self, signal, sender, method): self.signal = signal self.sender = sender self.method = method def post_save(sender): return _make_decorator(signals.post_save, sender) def _make_decorator(signal, sender): def decorator(view): return UnconnectedMethodWrapper(signal, sender, view) return decorator class ConnectableModel(ModelBase): """ A meta class for any class that will have static or class methods that need to be connected to signals. """ def __new__(cls, name, bases, attrs): unconnecteds = {} ## NO WORK newattrs = {} for name, attr in attrs.iteritems(): if isinstance(attr, UnconnectedMethodWrapper): unconnecteds[name] = attr newattrs[name] = attr.method #replace the UnconnectedMethodWrapper with the method it wrapped. else: newattrs[name] = attr ## NO WORK # newattrs = {} # for name, attr in attrs.iteritems(): # newattrs[name] = attr ## WORKS # newattrs = attrs new = super(ConnectableModel, cls).__new__(cls, name, bases, newattrs) for name, unconnected in unconnecteds.iteritems(): _connect_signal(unconnected.signal, unconnected.sender, getattr(new, name), new._meta.app_label) return new def _connect_signal(signal, sender, receiver, default_app_label): # full implementation also accepts basestring as sender and will look up model accordingly signal.connect(sender=sender, receiver=receiver) class MyModel(models.Model): __metaclass__ = ConnectableModel @post_save('In my application this string matters') @classmethod def observe_it(klass, sender, instance, created, **kwargs): pass @classmethod def normal_class_method(klass): pass class MyOtherModel(models.Model): ## WORKS # my_model = models.ForeignKey(MyModel) ## NO WORK my_model = models.ForeignKey('MyModel')

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  • View Generated Source (After AJAX/JavaScript) in C#

    - by Michael La Voie
    Is there a way to view the generated source of a web page (the code after all AJAX calls and JavaScript DOM manipulations have taken place) from a C# application without opening up a browser from the code? Viewing the initial page using a WebRequest or WebClient object works ok, but if the page makes extensive use of JavaScript to alter the DOM on page load, then these don't provide an accurate picture of the page. I have tried using Selenium and Watin UI testing frameworks and they work perfectly, supplying the generated source as it appears after all JavaScript manipulations are completed. Unfortunately, they do this by opening up an actual web browser, which is very slow. I've implemented a selenium server which offloads this work to another machine, but there is still a substantial delay. Is there a .Net library that will load and parse a page (like a browser) and spit out the generated code? Clearly, Google and Yahoo aren't opening up browsers for every page they want to spider (of course they may have more resources than me...). Is there such a library or am I out of luck unless I'm willing to dissect the source code of an open source browser? SOLUTION Well, thank you everyone for you're help. I have a working solution that is about 10X faster then Selenium. Woo! Thanks to this old article from beansoftware I was able to use the System.Windows.Forms.WebBrwoswer control to download the page and parse it, then give em the generated source. Even though the control is in Windows.Forms, you can still run it from Asp.Net (which is what I'm doing), just remember to add System.Window.Forms to your project references. There are two notable things about the code. First, the WebBrowser control is called in a new thread. This is because it must run on a single threaded apartment. Second, the GeneratedSource variable is set in two places. This is not due to an intelligent design decision :) I'm still working on it and will update this answer when I'm done. wb_DocumentCompleted() is called multiple times. First when the initial HTML is downloaded, then again when the first round of JavaScript completes. Unfortunately, the site I'm scraping has 3 different loading stages. 1) Load initial HTML 2) Do first round of JavaScript DOM manipulation 3) pause for half a second then do a second round of JS DOM manipulation. For some reason, the second round isn't cause by the wb_DocumentCompleted() function, but it is always caught when wb.ReadyState == Complete. So why not remove it from wb_DocumentCompleted()? I'm still not sure why it isn't caught there and that's where the beadsoftware article recommended putting it. I'm going to keep looking into it. I just wanted to publish this code so anyone who's interested can use it. Enjoy! using System.Threading; using System.Windows.Forms; public class WebProcessor { private string GeneratedSource{ get; set; } private string URL { get; set; } public string GetGeneratedHTML(string url) { URL = url; Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(WebBrowserThread)); t.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); t.Start(); t.Join(); return GeneratedSource; } private void WebBrowserThread() { WebBrowser wb = new WebBrowser(); wb.Navigate(URL); wb.DocumentCompleted += new WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventHandler( wb_DocumentCompleted); while (wb.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) Application.DoEvents(); //Added this line, because the final HTML takes a while to show up GeneratedSource= wb.Document.Body.InnerHtml; wb.Dispose(); } private void wb_DocumentCompleted(object sender, WebBrowserDocumentCompletedEventArgs e) { WebBrowser wb = (WebBrowser)sender; GeneratedSource= wb.Document.Body.InnerHtml; } }

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  • Linking LLVM JIT Code to Static LLVM Libraries?

    - by inflector
    I'm in the process of implementing a cross-platform (Mac OS X, Windows, and Linux) application which will do lots of CPU intensive analysis of financial data. The bulk of the analysis engine will be written in C++ for speed reasons, with a user-accessible scripting engine interfacing with the C++ testing engine. I want to write several scripting front-ends over time to emulate other popular software with existing large user bases. The first front will be a VisualBasic-like scripting language. I'm thinking that LLVM would be perfect for my needs. Performance is very important because of the sheer amount of data; it can take hours or days to run a single run of tests to get an answer. I believe that using LLVM will also allow me to use a single back-end solution while I implement different front-ends for different flavors of the scripting language over time. The testing engine itself will be separated from the interface and testing will even take place in a separate process with progress and results being reported to the testing management interface. Tests will consist of scripting code integrated with the testing engine code. In a previous implementation of a similar commercial testing system I wrote, I built a fast interpreter which easily interfaced with the testing library because it was written in C++ and linked directly to the testing engine library. Callbacks from scripting code to testing library objects involved translating between the formats with significant overhead. I'm imagining that with LLVM, I could implement the callbacks into C++ directly so that I could make the scripting code work almost as if it had been written in C++. Likewise, if all the code was compiled to LLVM byte-code format, it seems like the LLVM optimizers could optimize across the boundaries between the scripting language and the testing engine code that was written in C++. I don't want to have to compile the testing engine every time. Ideally, I'd like to JIT compile only the scripting code. For small tests, I'd skip some optimization passes, while for large tests, I'd perform full optimizations during the link. So is this possible? Can I precompile the testing engine to a .o object file or .a library file and then link in the scripting code using the JIT? Finally, ideally, I'd like to have the scripting code implement specific methods as subclasses for a specific C++ class. So the C++ testing engine would only see C++ objects while the JIT setup code compiled scripting code that implemented some of the methods for the objects. It seems that if I used the right name mangling algorithm it would be relatively easy to set up the LLVM generation for the scripting language to look like a C++ method call which could then be linked into the testing engine. Thus the linking stage would go in two directions, calls from the scripting language into the testing engine objects to retrieve pricing information and test state information and calls from the testing engine of methods of some particular C++ objects where the code was supplied not from C++ but from the scripting language. In summary: 1) Can I link in precompiled (either .bc, .o, or .a) files as part of the JIT compilation, code-generation process? 2) Can I link in code using that the process in 1) above in such a way that I am able to create code that acts as if it was all written in C++?

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  • Exposing model object using bindings in custom NSCell of NSTableView

    - by Hooligancat
    I am struggling trying to perform what I would think would be a relatively common task. I have an NSTableView that is bound to it's array via an NSArrayController. The array controller has it's content set to an NSMutableArray that contains one or more NSObject instances of a model class. What I don't know how to do is expose the model inside the NSCell subclass in a way that is bindings friendly. For the purpose of illustration, we'll say that the object model is a person consisting of a first name, last name, age and gender. Thus the model would appear something like this: @interface PersonModel : NSObject { NSString * firstName; NSString * lastName; NSString * gender; int * age; } Obviously the appropriate setters, getters init etc for the class. In my controller class I define an NSTableView, NSMutableArray and an NSArrayController: @interface ControllerClass : NSObject { IBOutlet NSTableView * myTableView; NSMutableArray * myPersonArray; IBOutlet NSArrayController * myPersonArrayController; } Using Interface Builder I can easily bind the model to the appropriate columns: myPersonArray --> myPersonArrayController --> table column binding This works fine. So I remove the extra columns, leaving one column hidden that is bound to the NSArrayController (this creates and keeps the association between each row and the NSArrayController) so that I am down to one visible column in my NSTableView and one hidden column. I create an NSCell subclass and put the appropriate drawing method to create the cell. In my awakeFromNib I establish the custom NSCell subclass: PersonModel * aCustomCell = [[[PersonModel alloc] init] autorelease]; [[myTableView tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"customCellColumn"] setDataCell:aCustomCell]; This, too, works fine from a drawing perspective. I get my custom cell showing up in the column and it repeats for every managed object in my array controller. If I add an object or remove an object from the array controller the table updates accordingly. However... I was under the impression that my PersonModel object would be available from within my NSCell subclass. But I don't know how to get to it. I don't want to set each NSCell using setters and getters because then I'm breaking the whole model concept by storing data in the NSCell instead of referencing it from the array controller. And yes I do need to have a custom NSCell, so having multiple columns is not an option. Where to from here? In addition to the Google and StackOverflow search, I've done the obligatory walk through on Apple's docs and don't seem to have found the answer. I have found a lot of references that beat around the bush but nothing involving an NSArrayController. The controller makes life very easy when binding to other elements of the model entity (such as a master/detail scenario). I have also found a lot of references (although no answers) when using Core Data, but Im not using Core Data. As per the norm, I'm very grateful for any assistance that can be offered!

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  • ( height 100% ) plus (2-column css)

    - by denja
    Hi! I need a 2-column interface to stretch 100% height the page. PS: If the contents is too long, the scroll bar should appear. it After this question is solved, I'll try to add a sticky footer to the interface. I've really tried hard to find the answer by myself... Thanks if you have any idea here's the code <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en-GB"> <head> <title>2 Column CSS Demo - Equal Height Columns with Cross-Browser CSS</title> <style media="screen" type="text/css"> /* <!-- */ *{ margin:0; padding:0; } html { background-color: #ccc; height: 100%; } body { background-color: white; width: 600px; margin: 0 auto; height:100%; position: relative; border-left: 1px solid #888; border-right: 2px solid black; } #footer { clear:both; width:100%; height:0px;font-size:0px; } #container2 { clear:left; float:left; width:600px; overflow:hidden; background:#ffa7a7; } #container1 { float:left; width:600px; position:relative; right:200px; background:#fff689; } #col1 { float:left; width:400px; position:relative; left:200px; overflow:hidden; } #col2 { float:left; width:200px; position:relative; left:200px; overflow:hidden; } /* --> */ </style> </head> <body> <div id="container2"> <div id="container1"> <div id="col1"> aaaa a a a a a a a a a aa aa a a a a a a a a aa aa a a a a a a a a aa aa a a a a a a a aa a a a a aa aa a a a a a a a a aa aa a a a a a a a a aa aa a a a a aa a a a a aa aa a </div> <div id="col2"> fghdfghsfgddn fghdfghsfgddn fghdfghsfgddn fghdfghsfgddn fghdfghsfgddn fghdfghsfgddn fghdfghsfgddn v </div> </div> </div> <div id="footer"> &nbsp; </div> </body>

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  • The maximum message size quota for incoming messages (65536) has been exceeded.

    - by DaleyKD
    My WCF Service has an OperationContract that accepts, as a parameter, an array of objects. This can potentially be quite large. After looking for fixes for Bad Request: 400, I found the real reason: the maximum message size. I know this question has been asked before in MANY places. I've tried what everyone says: "Increase the sizes in the client and server config files." I have. It still doesn't work. My Service's web.config: <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="myService"> <endpoint name="myEndpoint" address="" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="myBinding" contract="Meisel.WCF.PDFDocs.IPDFDocsService" /> </service> </services> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="myBinding" closeTimeout="00:11:00" openTimeout="00:11:00" receiveTimeout="00:15:00" sendTimeout="00:15:00" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" transferMode="Buffered" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel> My Client's app.config: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_IPDFDocsService" closeTimeout="00:11:00" openTimeout="00:11:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:11:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8451/PDFDocsService.svc" behaviorConfiguration="MoreItemsInObjectGraph" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_IPDFDocsService" contract="PDFDocsService.IPDFDocsService" name="BasicHttpBinding_IPDFDocsService" /> </client> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="MoreItemsInObjectGraph"> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="2147483647" /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> What can I possibly be missing or doing wrong? It's as though the service is ignoring what I typed in the maxReceivedBufferSize. Thanks in advance, Kyle UPDATE Here are two other StackOverflow questions where they never received an answer, either: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2880623/maxreceivedmessagesize-adjusted-but-still-getting-the-quotaexceedexception-with http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2569715/wcf-maxreceivedmessagesize-property-not-taking

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  • What precautions should you take when a senior employee leaves?

    - by Mahin
    EDIT : I agree one should check the reasons, why a senior level employee is leaving. But I am interested in knowing the official/management/technical/legal steps one should take after its decided that he is leaving, so that the life after him is smooth. What are the steps management should take when a senior programmer/team lead leaves your company. Some of them which I have thought about are : 1) If He used to manage hosting and domains stuff, change passwords of domain control panels and hosting panels. 2) If your published web sites have maintenance account and he is aware of credentials of that account then change this details also. 3) Suspend mail account for some time and forward all eMails of that account to some ex-employee account. After some time close that account. What are the other things one should check. I am expecting the answer to be a general check list one should follow. It should include both technical scenarios and management scenarios. Notable Suggestions so far : Effectively transfer the responsibilities of that employee to another one without causing any potential delay in your work. Protect your source code. If possible Make them to sign something to say that they don't have copies of source code.. You can also consider NDA here. Use the Notice Period to train his replacement. Now any new code to the project will be done by replacement with the help of Guy who is leaving. Ask him to create a document of things he thinks you should know. Make sure he checks everything in now and then any checkout will only be done by the replacement. Emails, copy off his email account to a pst.file (this assumes Outlook), Make this file available to his replacement. the employee should probably be given a chance to scrub the email. if you are going to keep his account open for whatever reason, check that no rules are created that forward incoming emails to an alternate address. Copy the hard drive of his computer to a network location and have someone senior go through and see if there are any files (drafts of performance reviews or other sensitive issues ) on it that someone else might need. Clearance from Accounts,Finance,Security,Library etc departments.Obtain all company property, laptops, keys, etc. If there is no reason not to, you should reward a departing person for their many years of service. Write them letters of recommendation (even if they already have a new job lined up).Say goodbye, and keep the door open. Make sure any outside clients know that the departing employee is not their main contact anymore. Never neglect the exit interview/debriefing. Confirm the last day of employment so that there is no misunderstanding Inform H/R if the employee is on H1B status, there is paperwork required to notify the government when an H1B employee leaves. Depending on how senior / what position, you might spend some time convincing him not to take the rest of the engineering staff with him. Make sure he spends his last days on a good note, because if he is not leaving on a good note, he can easily pollute the mind of his colleagues. Best Regards, Mahin Gupta EDIT : Now offered a bounty on it to get more detailed responses and practical suggestions.

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  • Why C# doesn't implement indexed properties ?

    - by Thomas Levesque
    I know, I know... Eric Lippert's answer to this kind of question is usually something like "because it wasn't worth the cost of designing, implementing, testing and documenting it". But still, I'd like a better explanation... I was reading this blog post about new C# 4 features, and in the section about COM Interop, the following part caught my attention : By the way, this code uses one more new feature: indexed properties (take a closer look at those square brackets after Range.) But this feature is available only for COM interop; you cannot create your own indexed properties in C# 4.0. OK, but why ? I already knew and regretted that it wasn't possible to create indexed properties in C#, but this sentence made me think again about it. I can see several good reasons to implement it : the CLR supports it (for instance, PropertyInfo.GetValue has an index parameter), so it's a pity we can't take advantage of it in C# it is supported for COM interop, as shown in the article (using dynamic dispatch) it is implemented in VB.NET it is already possible to create indexers, i.e. to apply an index to the object itself, so it would probably be no big deal to extend the idea to properties, keeping the same syntax and just replacing this with a property name It would allow to write that kind of things : public class Foo { private string[] _values = new string[3]; public string Values[int index] { get { return _values[index]; } set { _values[index] = value; } } } Currently the only workaround that I know is to create an inner class (ValuesCollection for instance) that implements an indexer, and change the Values property so that it returns an instance of that inner class. This is very easy to do, but annoying... So perhaps the compiler could do it for us ! An option would be to generate an inner class that implements the indexer, and expose it through a public generic interface : // interface defined in the namespace System public interface IIndexer<TIndex, TValue> { TValue this[TIndex index] { get; set; } } public class Foo { private string[] _values = new string[3]; private class <>c__DisplayClass1 : IIndexer<int, string> { private Foo _foo; public <>c__DisplayClass1(Foo foo) { _foo = foo; } public string this[int index] { get { return _foo._values[index]; } set { _foo._values[index] = value; } } } private IIndexer<int, string> <>f__valuesIndexer; public IIndexer<int, string> Values { get { if (<>f__valuesIndexer == null) <>f__valuesIndexer = new <>c__DisplayClass1(this); return <>f__valuesIndexer; } } } But of course, in that case the property would actually return a IIndexer<int, string>, and wouldn't really be an indexed property... It would be better to generate a real CLR indexed property. What do you think ? Would you like to see this feature in C# ? If not, why ?

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  • WinQual: Why would WER not accept code-signing certificates?

    - by Ian Boyd
    In 2005 i tried to establish a WinQual account with Microsoft, so i could pick up our (if any) crash dump files submitted automatically through Windows Error Reporting (WER). i was not allowed to have my crash dumps, because i don't have a Verisign certificate. Instead i have a cheaper one, generated by a Verisign subsidiary: Thawte. The method in which you join is: you digitally sign a sample exe they provide. This proves that you are the same signer that signed apps that they got crash dumps from in the wild. Cryptographically, the private key is needed to generate a digital signature on an executable. Only the holder of that private key can create a signature with for the matching public key. It doesn't matter who generated that private key. That includes certificates that are generated from: self-signing Wells Fargo DigiCert SecureTrust Trustware QuoVadis GoDaddy Entrust Cybertrust GeoTrust GlobalSign Comodo Thawte Verisign Yet Microsof's WinQual only accepts digital certificates generated by Verisign. Not even Verisign's subsidiaries are good enough (Thawte). Can anyone think of any technical, legal or ethical reason why Microsoft doesn't want to accept code-signing certificates? The WinQual site says: Why Is a Digital Certificate Required for Winqual Membership? A digital certificate helps protect your company from individuals who seek to impersonate members of your staff or who would otherwise commit acts of fraud against your company. Using a digital certificate enables proof of an identity for a user or an organization. Is somehow a Thawte digital certificate not secure? Two years later, i sent a reminder notice to WinQual that i've been waiting to be able to get at my crash dumps. The response from WinQual team was: Hello, Thanks for the reminder. We have notified the appropriate people that this is still a request. In 2008 i asked this question in a Microsoft support forum, and the response was: We are only setup to accept VeriSign Certificates at this point. We have not had an overwhelming demand to support other types of certificates. What can it possibly mean to not be "setup" to accept other kinds of certificates? If the thumbprint of the key that signed the WinQual.exe test app is the same as the thumbprint that signed the executable who's crash dump you got in the wild: it is proven - they are my crash dumps, give them to me. And it's not like there's a special API to check if a Verisign digital signature is valid, as opposed to all other digital signatures. A valid signature is valid no matter who generated the key. Microsoft is free to not trust the signer, but that's not the same as identity. So that is my question, can anyone think of any practical reason why WinQual isn't setup to support digital signatures? One person theorized that the answer is that they're just lazy: Not that I know but I would assume that the team running the winQual system is a live team and not a dev team - as in, personality and skillset geared towards maintenance of existing systems. I could be wrong though. They don't want to do work to change it. But can anyone think of anything that would need to be changed? It's the same logic no matter what generated the key: "does the thumbprint match". What am i missing?

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  • NSMutableString leaks on append or replaceOccurrencesOfString

    - by John
    Hello Folks, I know similar questions have been asked time and time again but I ask that you please bear with me as I cannot seem to find an answer that helps. My application has leaks that are driving me out of my mind. Actually, they are not reported as leaks using Leaks, but my net bytes in ObjectAlloc goes up and up and up and never stops, eventually leading to a crash if it goes on long enough (not very long). The problem occurs with NSMutableStrings. I think there is either something fundamental I don't understand about them, or I am facing another problem that I am having difficulty tracking down but keeps hiding behind the NSMutableStrings. Specifically, I am noticing that whenever I append to or perform a replace on a NSMutableString, ObjectAlloc reports what appear to be mismatches in malloc/frees behind the scene when resizing the NSMutableString. I'm sorry to say this is the second time I'm facing this problem - the first time I messed around for hours and hours and finally the problem went away (magic!) but I don't really know why. When I look at the code below (and believe me, I've stared at it for hours) I cannot see the problem. I look at the code and think to myself that I should be fine because I'm releasing the only object for which I am responsible (aString) and that NSMutableString should be taking care of cleaning up after any resizing it does. In the second example, just so you know in case it helps, the string being passed in comes from an ASIHTTPRequest object (it's the responseString) and I don't do anything at all with it. It's being called simply like so ([self DoStuff2:[request responseString]]) and I don't free the request myself either (I'm using a ASINetworkQueue and I assume that the requests are destroyed for me (I tried and caused errors because the request was already being release somewhere else). Also, I know it shouldn't do anything, but I even tried wrapping the code in autorelease pools, which of course did nothing. I should mention that this code is being run inside of an NSOperation. I thought that perhaps I am experiencing problems because NSOperations should create an autorelease pool for themselves, but I've tried that to no avail. Not related to NSMutableString, but I find I also have similar problems using the NSString componentsSeparatedByString method. Sometimes the memory used by the array that gets the separated components is never released. Hmmm...strings in general seem to be somewhat problematic for me it seems. I would appreciate ANY help anyone can provide. If you require more info, I'll be glad to add it. I do promise you that I've struggled with this (and other problems) for weeks and every problem I encounter I research hard and long until I find a solution - this is not an idle request, but a true cry for help! I've written so much code and now I'm trying to seal some small leaks etc and I notice this problem. Honestly, I cannot believe how memory management in Objective C can stump me so at times...I've read Apple's memory mgmt docs many times and I thought I thoroughly understood it and I try to be diligent about releasing objects I own, but sometimes I find myself wondering if I truly understand...I would like to put this to bed once and make sure I understand all this fully - to have this sort of question/problem after writing thousands of lines of code is more than a little scary/embarrassing/annoying. So again, if anybody has any insight, I'd be grateful. Thanks for your time and efforts. -(void)DoStuff { NSString *aString [ [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"text %@ more text", self.strVariable]; [self.someMutableStringVar replaceOccurrencesOfString:@"replace" withString:aString options:NSCaseInsensitiveSearch range:NSMakeRange(0, [self.someMutableStringVar length])]; [aString release]; } -(void)DoStuff2:(NSString *)aString { [self.someMutableStringVar appendString:aString]; }

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  • I can't get SetSystemTime to work in Windows Vista using C# with Interop (P/Invoke).

    - by Andrew
    Hi, I'm having a hard time getting SetSystemTime working in my C# code. SetSystemtime is a kernel32.dll function. I'm using P/invoke (interop) to call it. SetSystemtime returns false and the error is "Invalid Parameter". I've posted the code below. I stress that GetSystemTime works just fine. I've tested this on Vista and Windows 7. Based on some newsgroup postings I've seen I have turned off UAC. No difference. I have done some searching for this problem. I found this link: http://groups.google.com.tw/group/microsoft.public.dotnet.framework.interop/browse_thread/thread/805fa8603b00c267 where the problem is reported but no resolution seems to be found. Notice that UAC is also mentioned but I'm not sure this is the problem. Also notice that this gentleman gets no actual Win32Error. Can someone try my code on XP? Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong and how to fix it. If the answer is to somehow change permission settings programatically, I'd need an example. I would have thought turning off UAC should cover that though. I'm not required to use this particular way (SetSystemTime). I'm just trying to introduce some "clock drift" to stress test something. If there's another way to do it, please tell me. Frankly, I'm surprised I need to use Interop to change the system time. I would have thought there is a .NET method. Thank you very much for any help or ideas. Andrew Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace SystemTimeInteropTest { class Program { #region ClockDriftSetup [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct SystemTime { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Year; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Month; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short DayOfWeek; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Day; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Hour; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Minute; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Second; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.U2)] public short Milliseconds; } [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern void GetLocalTime( out SystemTime systemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern void GetSystemTime( out SystemTime systemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool SetSystemTime( ref SystemTime systemTime); //[DllImport("kernel32.dll", SetLastError = true)] //public static extern bool SetLocalTime( //ref SystemTime systemTime); [System.Runtime.InteropServices.DllImportAttribute("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "SetLocalTime")] [return: System.Runtime.InteropServices.MarshalAsAttribute(System.Runtime.InteropServices.UnmanagedType.Bool)] public static extern bool SetLocalTime([InAttribute()] ref SystemTime lpSystemTime); #endregion ClockDriftSetup static void Main(string[] args) { try { SystemTime sysTime; GetSystemTime(out sysTime); sysTime.Milliseconds += (short)80; sysTime.Second += (short)3000; bool bResult = SetSystemTime(ref sysTime); if (bResult == false) throw new System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine("Drift Error: " + ex.Message); } } } }

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  • JQuery SelectToUISlider Issues

    - by David Savage
    Hopefully this hasn't been asked before as just a slider question, but I couldn't find an answer when already browsing questions. So, here goes: I have a SelectToUISlider (http://www.filamentgroup.com/lab/update_jquery_ui_slider_from_a_select_element_now_with_aria_support/) which is basically a modified JQuery UI Slider, and I'm using a range value. So, I start with one handle at 60, and another at 100 (scale from 0 to 100). What I want to do is click a radio button so that the 100 changes to a 0, and be able to change back to 100. I have been unsuccessful at changing it via JQuery selectors/javascript. However, when changing the selects to move the handles, this works, but the range appears not to follow if the second handle (at 100) moves to 0 behind the first handle (at 60). I'm thinking I might have to destroy the slider and rebuild it with the second handle (that starts as 100) become the first handle at 0 in this scenario (although I've tried destroying it and it doesn't seem to respond to that either.) Here's what I've tried so far that doesn't work: <script type="text/javascript"> {literal} $(function(){ $('select').selectToUISlider({ labels: 10 }); }); function event_occurs(does) { if (does == 1) { $('.ui-slider').slider('option', 'values', [60,100]); } else { $('.ui-slider').slider('option', 'values', [0,60]); } } </script> <style type="text/css"> form {font-size: 62.5%; font-family:"Segoe UI","Helvetica Neue",Helvetica,Arial,sans-serif; } fieldset { border:0; margin: 1em; height: 12em;} label {font-weight: normal; float: left; margin-right: .5em; font-size: 1.1em;} select {margin-right: 1em; float: left;} .ui-slider {clear: both; top: 5em;} .ui-slider-tooltip {white-space: nowrap;} </style> {/literal} <form action="#"> <fieldset> <select name="valueA" id="my_estimate"> {section name="estimates" loop=101} <option value="{$smarty.section.estimates.index}"{if $smarty.section.estimates.index == 60} selected{/if}>{$smarty.section.estimates.index}</option> {/section} </select> <select name="valueB" id="payout"> {section name="estimates" loop=101} <option value="{$smarty.section.estimates.index}"{if $smarty.section.estimates.index == 100} selected{/if}>{$smarty.section.estimates.index}</option> {/section} </select> </fieldset> </form> <input type="radio" onclick="event_occurs(1)" name="Event" checked="checked"> Event Occurs<br /> <input type="radio" onclick="event_occurs(0)" name="Event"> Event Does Not Occur As it is now, nothing happens when clicking the radio buttons, but I'm also not getting any Javascript errors. After I get this working, I would also like to find some way to disable one of the handles through changing the slider property. Ie leave the handle where its at but not allow it to be dragged. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Implementing a popularity algorithm in Django

    - by TheLizardKing
    I am creating a site similar to reddit and hacker news that has a database of links and votes. I am implementing hacker news' popularity algorithm and things are going pretty swimmingly until it comes to actually gathering up these links and displaying them. The algorithm is simple: Y Combinator's Hacker News: Popularity = (p - 1) / (t + 2)^1.5` Votes divided by age factor. Where` p : votes (points) from users. t : time since submission in hours. p is subtracted by 1 to negate submitter's vote. Age factor is (time since submission in hours plus two) to the power of 1.5.factor is (time since submission in hours plus two) to the power of 1.5. I asked a very similar question over yonder http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1964395/complex-ordering-in-django but instead of contemplating my options I choose one and tried to make it work because that's how I did it with PHP/MySQL but I now know Django does things a lot differently. My models look something (exactly) like this class Link(models.Model): category = models.ForeignKey(Category) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add = True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now = True) fame = models.PositiveIntegerField(default = 1) title = models.CharField(max_length = 256) url = models.URLField(max_length = 2048) def __unicode__(self): return self.title class Vote(models.Model): link = models.ForeignKey(Link) user = models.ForeignKey(User) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add = True) modified = models.DateTimeField(auto_now = True) karma_delta = models.SmallIntegerField() def __unicode__(self): return str(self.karma_delta) and my view: def index(request): popular_links = Link.objects.select_related().annotate(karma_total = Sum('vote__karma_delta')) return render_to_response('links/index.html', {'links': popular_links}) Now from my previous question, I am trying to implement the algorithm using the sorting function. An answer from that question seems to think I should put the algorithm in the select and sort then. I am going to paginate these results so I don't think I can do the sorting in python without grabbing everything. Any suggestions on how I could efficiently do this? EDIT This isn't working yet but I think it's a step in the right direction: from django.shortcuts import render_to_response from linkett.apps.links.models import * def index(request): popular_links = Link.objects.select_related() popular_links = popular_links.extra( select = { 'karma_total': 'SUM(vote.karma_delta)', 'popularity': '(karma_total - 1) / POW(2, 1.5)', }, order_by = ['-popularity'] ) return render_to_response('links/index.html', {'links': popular_links}) This errors out into: Caught an exception while rendering: column "karma_total" does not exist LINE 1: SELECT ((karma_total - 1) / POW(2, 1.5)) AS "popularity", (S... EDIT 2 Better error? TemplateSyntaxError: Caught an exception while rendering: missing FROM-clause entry for table "vote" LINE 1: SELECT ((vote.karma_total - 1) / POW(2, 1.5)) AS "popularity... My index.html is simply: {% block content %} {% for link in links %} karma-up {{ link.karma_total }} karma-down {{ link.title }} Posted by {{ link.user }} to {{ link.category }} at {{ link.created }} {% empty %} No Links {% endfor %} {% endblock content %} EDIT 3 So very close! Again, all these answers are great but I am concentrating on a particular one because I feel it works best for my situation. from django.db.models import Sum from django.shortcuts import render_to_response from linkett.apps.links.models import * def index(request): popular_links = Link.objects.select_related().extra( select = { 'popularity': '(SUM(links_vote.karma_delta) - 1) / POW(2, 1.5)', }, tables = ['links_link', 'links_vote'], order_by = ['-popularity'], ) return render_to_response('links/test.html', {'links': popular_links}) Running this I am presented with an error hating on my lack of group by values. Specifically: TemplateSyntaxError at / Caught an exception while rendering: column "links_link.id" must appear in the GROUP BY clause or be used in an aggregate function LINE 1: ...karma_delta) - 1) / POW(2, 1.5)) AS "popularity", "links_lin... Not sure why my links_link.id wouldn't be in my group by but I am not sure how to alter my group by, django usually does that.

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  • PHP framework question

    - by iconiK
    I'm currently working on a browser-based MMO and have chosen the LAMP stack because of the extremely low cost to start with in production (versus Windows + IIS + ASP.NET/C# + SQL Server, even though I have MSDN Universal). However I will need a PHP framework for this as it's no easy task. I am not restricted by anything other than the ability to run on Linux, as I will use a dedicated cloud hosting solution (and a VMWare image for development) and can configure it as needed. In no specific order: It has to be easily scalable; this is crucial. If the game becomes a steady success it will eventually outgrow the server beyond what the host provides and would have to be moved to several load-balanced servers. It is crucial that this can be done with minimum effort. I do know this might require following strict conventions, so if you know of any for your suggested framework please explain what would be needed. It has to provide modules for all the core tasks: authentication, ACL, database access, MVC, and so on. One or two missing modules are fine, as long as they can easily be written and integrated. It should support internationalization. I think there is no excuse for any web framework not to provide means of translating the application and switching between languages without a lot of effort from the programmer. Must have very good community support and preferably commercial support as well. Yes, I do know QCodo/QCubed is so nice, but it is not mature enough for this task. Smooth AJAX support is required. Whether the framework comes with AJAX-capable widgets or has an easy way of adding AJAX is not relevant, as long as AJAX is easily doable. I plan to use jQuery + Dojo or one of them alone - not exactly sure. Auto-magically doing stuff when it improves readability and relieves a lot of effort would be especially nice if it is generally reliable and does not interfere with other requirements. This seems to be the case of CakePHP. I have read a lot of comparisons and I know it's a really hot debate. The general answer is "try and see for yourself what suits you". However, I can't say it is easy for this task and I'm calling for your experience with building applications with similar requirements. So far I'm tied up between Zend and CakePHP by the general criteria, however, all well-known frameworks offer the same functionality in some way or another with different approaches each with it's own advantages and disadvantages. Edits: I am kinda new to MVC, however, I am willing to learn it and I don't care if a framework is easier for those new to MVC. I have lots of time to learn MVC and any other architectures (or whatever they're called) you recommend. I will use Zend as a utility "framework", even though it's just a collection of libraries (some good ones though, as I have been told). Current PHP contenders are: CakePHP, Kohana, Zend alone.

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  • Convert extended ASCII characters to it's right presentation using Console.ReadKey() method and ConsoleKeyInfo variable

    - by mishamosher
    Readed about 30 minutes, and didn't found some specific for this in this site. Suppose the following, in C#, console application: ConsoleKeyInfo cki; cki = Console.ReadKey(true); Console.WriteLine(cki.KeyChar.ToString()); //Or Console.WriteLine(cki.KeyChar) as well Console.ReadKey(true); Now, let's put ¿ in the console entry, and asign it to cki via a Console.ReadKey(true). What will be shown isn't the ¿ symbol, the ¨ symbol is the one that's shown instead. And the same happens with many other characters. Examples: ñ shows ¤, ¡ shows -, ´ shows ï. Now, let's take the same code snipplet and add some things for a more Console.ReadLine() like behavior: string data = string.Empty; ConsoleKeyInfo cki; for (int i = 0; i < 10; i++) { cki = Console.ReadKey(true); data += cki.KeyChar; } Console.WriteLine(data); Console.ReadKey(true); The question, how to handle this by the right way, end printing the right characters that should be stored on data, not things like ¨, ¤, -, ï, etc? Please note that I want a solution that works with ConsoleKeyInfo and Console.ReadKey(), not use other variable types, or read methods. EDIT: Because ReadKey() method, that comes from Console namespace, depends on Kernel32.dll and it definetively bad handles the extended ASCII and unicode, it's not an option anymore to just find a valid conversion for what it returns. The only valid way to handle the bad behavior of ReadKey() is to use the cki.Key property that's written in cki = Console.ReadKey(true) execution and apply a switch to it, then, return the right values on dependence of what key was pressed. For example, to handle the Ñ key pressing: string data = string.Empty; ConsoleKeyInfo cki; cki = Console.ReadKey(true); switch (cki.Key) { case ConsoleKey.Oem3: if (cki.Modifiers.ToString().Contains("Shift")) //Could added handlers for Alt and Control, but not putted in here to keep the code small and simple data += "Ñ"; else data += "ñ"; break; } Console.WriteLine(data); Console.ReadKey(true); So, now the question has a wider focus... Which others functions completes it's execution with only one key pressed, and returns what's pressed (a substitute of ReadKey())? I think that there's not such substitutes, but a confirmed answer would be usefull. EDIT2: HA! Found the way, for something I used for so many times Windows 98 SE. There are the codepages, the ones responsibles for how's presented the info in the console. ReadLine() reconfigures the codepage to use properly the extended ASCII and Unicode characters. ReadKey() leaves it in EN-US default (codepage 850). Just use a codepage that prints the characters you want, and that's all. Refer to http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Code_page for some of them :) So, for the Ñ key press, the solution is this: Console.OutputEncoding = Encoding.GetEncoding(1252); //Also 28591 is valid for `Ñ` key, and others too string data = string.Empty; ConsoleKeyInfo cki; cki = Console.ReadKey(true); data += cki.KeyChar; Console.WriteLine(data); Console.ReadKey(true); Simple :) Now I'm wrrr with myself... how could I forget those codepages!? Question answered, so, no more about this!

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  • StaleDataException: access closed cursor

    - by Aurora
    In my application, after enough clicking around, I get this error: 06-08 19:47:59.967: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(2429): java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to pause activity {com.MYAPP.app/com.MYAPP.app.MainActivity}: android.database.StaleDataException: Access closed cursor What I have is a Tab Activity (my MainActivity), which has a ListActivity as the contents for each tab. Inside the onCreate for each ListActivity I get a cursor that represents the data to be displayed in that list. The onListItemClick for each list also creates another activity, so clicking on an item in the list will show more information about that item in a new screen. It's inconsistent, but after enough clicking into these new activities, or going back to the ListView from a new activity, the program crashes. In searching around for a solution to my problem, I did stumble upon registerDataSetObserver, but it doesn't seem to be the whole answer. I am also having trouble finding documentation on it, so I'm not sure I fully understand it. I have a custom ListAdapter that both my ListViews use and have called registerDataSetObservers on the cursors there. I have attached the relevant code from one of my ListActivities and from my custom ListAdapter class. The ListActivity. I have two of these, almost identical, except they both have different cursors created from different database queries: import com.MYAPP.app.listmanager.DeviceListAdapter; public class AllSensorsActivity extends ListActivity{ private DeviceListAdapter AllList; private DbManager db; protected Cursor AllCur; protected Cursor AllSensors; private static final String TAG = "AllSensorsActivity"; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Log.e(TAG, "Calling All onCreate"); db = new DbManager(this); db.open(); AllCur = db.fetchAllDevices(); startManagingCursor(AllCur); AllSensors = db.fetchAllSensors(); startManagingCursor(AllSensors); AllList = new DeviceListAdapter(this, AllCur, AllSensors); setListAdapter(AllList); } @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id){ String device_name = (String) ((DeviceListAdapter)getListAdapter()).getItem(position); String sensor_string = ((DeviceListAdapter)getListAdapter()).getSensors(id); Intent i = new Intent(this, SensorActivity.class); Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString("NAME", device_name); i.putExtras(bundle); bundle.putString("SENSORS", sensor_string); i.putExtras(bundle); this.startActivity(i); } The custom ListAdapter: public class DeviceListAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private static final String TAG = "DeviceListAdapter"; private Context mContext; private Cursor mSensors; private Cursor mDevices; protected MyDataSetObserver sensors_observer; protected MyDataSetObserver devices_observer; public DeviceListAdapter(Context context, Cursor devices, Cursor sensors){ mContext = context; mDevices = devices; mSensors = sensors; sensors_observer = new MyDataSetObserver(); mSensors.registerDataSetObserver(sensors_observer); devices_observer = new MyDataSetObserver(); mDevices.registerDataSetObserver(devices_observer); } // ... more functions and stuff that are not relevant go down here... } private class MyDataSetObserver extends DataSetObserver { public void onChanged(){ Log.e(TAG, "CHANGED CURSOR!"); } public void onInvalidated(){ Log.e(TAG, "INVALIDATED CURSOR!"); } } Should I just have MyDataSetObserver catch the exception and move on? I'd like a more robust solution than that if possible. Or is there some other way I could rearrange my program so that the staleDataException doesn't occur (as often)? I believe that it is happening because I am launching the new activity in my onListItemClick.

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  • claimsResponse Always Return Null

    - by Chirag Pandya
    hello i have a following code in asp.net. i have used DotNetOpenAuth.dll for openID. the code is under protected void openidValidator_ServerValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { // This catches common typos that result in an invalid OpenID Identifier. args.IsValid = Identifier.IsValid(args.Value); } protected void loginButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!this.Page.IsValid) { return; // don't login if custom validation failed. } try { using (OpenIdRelyingParty openid = this.createRelyingParty()) { IAuthenticationRequest request = openid.CreateRequest(this.openIdBox.Text); // This is where you would add any OpenID extensions you wanted // to include in the authentication request. ClaimsRequest objClmRequest = new ClaimsRequest(); objClmRequest.Email = DemandLevel.Request; objClmRequest.Country = DemandLevel.Request; request.AddExtension(objClmRequest); // Send your visitor to their Provider for authentication. request.RedirectToProvider(); } } catch (ProtocolException ex) { this.openidValidator.Text = ex.Message; this.openidValidator.IsValid = false; } } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.openIdBox.Focus(); if (Request.QueryString["clearAssociations"] == "1") { Application.Remove("DotNetOpenAuth.OpenId.RelyingParty.OpenIdRelyingParty.ApplicationStore"); UriBuilder builder = new UriBuilder(Request.Url); builder.Query = null; Response.Redirect(builder.Uri.AbsoluteUri); } OpenIdRelyingParty openid = this.createRelyingParty(); var response = openid.GetResponse(); if (response != null) { switch (response.Status) { case AuthenticationStatus.Authenticated: // This is where you would look for any OpenID extension responses included // in the authentication assertion. var claimsResponse = response.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); State.ProfileFields = claimsResponse; // Store off the "friendly" username to display -- NOT for username lookup State.FriendlyLoginName = response.FriendlyIdentifierForDisplay; // Use FormsAuthentication to tell ASP.NET that the user is now logged in, // with the OpenID Claimed Identifier as their username. FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(response.ClaimedIdentifier, false); break; case AuthenticationStatus.Canceled: this.loginCanceledLabel.Visible = true; break; case AuthenticationStatus.Failed: this.loginFailedLabel.Visible = true; break; // We don't need to handle SetupRequired because we're not setting // IAuthenticationRequest.Mode to immediate mode. ////case AuthenticationStatus.SetupRequired: //// break; } } } private OpenIdRelyingParty createRelyingParty() { OpenIdRelyingParty openid = new OpenIdRelyingParty(); int minsha, maxsha, minversion; if (int.TryParse(Request.QueryString["minsha"], out minsha)) { openid.SecuritySettings.MinimumHashBitLength = minsha; } if (int.TryParse(Request.QueryString["maxsha"], out maxsha)) { openid.SecuritySettings.MaximumHashBitLength = maxsha; } if (int.TryParse(Request.QueryString["minversion"], out minversion)) { switch (minversion) { case 1: openid.SecuritySettings.MinimumRequiredOpenIdVersion = ProtocolVersion.V10; break; case 2: openid.SecuritySettings.MinimumRequiredOpenIdVersion = ProtocolVersion.V20; break; default: throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("minversion"); } } return openid; } for above code i am always getting var claimsResponse = response.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); i am always getting claimsResponse= null. what is the reason why it happen. is there any requirement which is required for openid like domain validation for RelyingParty?? please give me answer as soon as possible.

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  • JS: using 'var me = this' to reference an object instead of using a global array

    - by Marco Demaio
    The example below, is just an example, I know that I don't need an object to show an alert box when user clicks on div blocks, but it's just a simple example to explain a situation that frequently happens when writing JS code. In the example below I use a globally visible array of objects to keep a reference to each new created HelloObject, in this way events called when clicking on a div block can use the reference in the arry to call the HelloObject's public function hello(). 1st have a look at the code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head><meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=windows-1252"> <title>Test </title> <script type="text/javascript"> /***************************************************** Just a cross browser append event function, don't need to understand this one to answer my question *****************************************************/ function AppendEvent(html_element, event_name, event_function) {if(html_element) {if(html_element.attachEvent) html_element.attachEvent("on" + event_name, event_function); else if(html_element.addEventListener) html_element.addEventListener(event_name, event_function, false); }} /****************************************************** Just a test object ******************************************************/ var helloobjs = []; var HelloObject = function HelloObject(div_container) { //Adding this object in helloobjs array var id = helloobjs.length; helloobjs[id] = this; //Appending click event to show the hello window AppendEvent(div_container, 'click', function() { helloobjs[id].hello(); //THIS WORKS! }); /***************************************************/ this.hello = function() { alert('hello'); } } </script> </head><body> <div id="one">click me</div> <div id="two">click me</div> <script type="text/javascript"> var t = new HelloObject(document.getElementById('one')); var t = new HelloObject(document.getElementById('two')); </script> </body></html> In order to achive the same result I could simply replace the code //Appending click event to show the hello window AppendEvent(div_container, 'click', function() { helloobjs[id].hello(); //THIS WORKS! }); with this code: //Appending click event to show the hello window var me = this; AppendEvent(div_container, 'click', function() { me.hello(); //THIS WORKS TOO AND THE GLOBAL helloobjs ARRAY BECOMES SUPEFLOUS! }); thus would make the helloobjs array superflous. My question is: does this 2nd option in your opinion create memoy leaks on IE or strange cicular references that might lead to browsers going slow or to break??? I don't know how to explain, but coming from a background as a C/C++ coder, doing in this 2nd way sounds like a some sort of circular reference that might break memory at some point. I also read on internet about the IE closures memory leak issue http://jibbering.com/faq/faq_notes/closures.html (I don't know if it was fixed in IE7 and if yes, I hope it does not come out again in IE8). Thanks

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  • TabHost / TabWidget - Scale Background Image ?

    - by user359519
    I need to scale my TabWidget background images so they maintain aspect ratio. I am using a TabHost with a TabWidget. I am then using setBackgroundDrawable to set the images. I found a close answer here - Background in tab widget ignore scaling. However, I'm not sure just where to add the new Drawable code. (Working with the HelloTabWidget example, none of my modules use RelativeLayout, and I don't see any layout for "tabcontent".) I also found this thread - Android: Scale a Drawable or background image?. According to it, it sounds like I would have to pre-scale my images, which defeats the whole purpose of making them scaleable. I also found another thread where someone subclassed the Drawable class so it would either not scale, or it would scale properly. I can't find it now, but that seems like a LOT to go through when you should just be able to do something simple like mTab.setScaleType(centerInside). Here's my code: main.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TabHost xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/tabhost" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="@drawable/main_background"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <FrameLayout android:id="@android:id/tabcontent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1"/> <TabWidget android:id="@android:id/tabs" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="0"/> </LinearLayout> </TabHost> main activity: tabHost.setOnTabChangedListener(new OnTabChangeListener() { TabHost changedTabHost = getTabHost(); TabWidget changedTabWidget = getTabWidget(); View changedView = changedTabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(0); public void onTabChanged(String tabId) { int selectedTab = changedTabHost.getCurrentTab(); TabWidget tw = getTabWidget(); if(selectedTab == 0) { //setTitle("Missions Timeline"); View tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(0); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_timeline_on)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(1); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_map_off)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(2); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_search_off)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(3); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_news_off)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(4); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_license_off)); //ImageView iv = (ImageView)tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(0).findViewById(android.R.id.icon); //iv.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_timeline_on)); //iv = (ImageView)tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(1).findViewById(android.R.id.icon); //iv.setImageDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_map_off)); } else if (selectedTab == 1) { //setTitle("Spinoffs Around You"); View tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(0); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_timeline_off)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(1); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_map_on)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(2); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_search_off)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(3); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_news_off)); tempView = tabHost.getTabWidget().getChildAt(4); tempView.setBackgroundDrawable(getResources().getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_license_off)); } I also tried 9patch images, but they wind up being too small. So, what's the best way to go about this?

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  • Is SQL Server DRI (ON DELETE CASCADE) slow?

    - by Aaronaught
    I've been analyzing a recurring "bug report" (perf issue) in one of our systems related to a particularly slow delete operation. Long story short: It seems that the CASCADE DELETE keys were largely responsible, and I'd like to know (a) if this makes sense, and (b) why it's the case. We have a schema of, let's say, widgets, those being at the root of a large graph of related tables and related-to-related tables and so on. To be perfectly clear, deleting from this table is actively discouraged; it is the "nuclear option" and users are under no illusions to the contrary. Nevertheless, it sometimes just has to be done. The schema looks something like this: Widgets | +--- Anvils (1:1) | | | +--- AnvilTestData (1:N) | +--- WidgetHistory (1:N) | +--- WidgetHistoryDetails (1:N) Nothing too scary, really. A Widget can be different types, an Anvil is a special type, so that relationship is 1:1 (or more accurately 1:0..1). Then there's a large amount of data - perhaps thousands of rows of AnvilTestData per Anvil collected over time, dealing with hardness, corrosion, exact weight, hammer compatibility, usability issues, and impact tests with cartoon heads. Then every Widget has a long, boring history of various types of transactions - production, inventory moves, sales, defect investigations, RMAs, repairs, customer complaints, etc. There might be 10-20k details for a single widget, or none at all, depending on its age. So, unsurprisingly, there's a CASCADE DELETE relationship at every level here. If a Widget needs to be deleted, it means something's gone terribly wrong and we need to erase any records of that widget ever existing, including its history, test data, etc. Again, nuclear option. Relations are all indexed, statistics are up to date. Normal queries are fast. The system tends to hum along pretty smoothly for everything except deletes. Getting to the point here, finally, for various reasons we only allow deleting one widget at a time, so a delete statement would look like this: DELETE FROM Widgets WHERE WidgetID = @WidgetID Pretty simple, innocuous looking delete... that takes over 2 minutes to run, for a widget with no data! After slogging through execution plans I was finally able to pick out the AnvilTestData and WidgetHistoryDetails deletes as the sub-operations with the highest cost. So I experimented with turning off the CASCADE (but keeping the actual FK, just setting it to NO ACTION) and rewriting the script as something very much like the following: DECLARE @AnvilID int SELECT @AnvilID = AnvilID FROM Anvils WHERE WidgetID = @WidgetID DELETE FROM AnvilTestData WHERE AnvilID = @AnvilID DELETE FROM WidgetHistory WHERE HistoryID IN ( SELECT HistoryID FROM WidgetHistory WHERE WidgetID = @WidgetID) DELETE FROM Widgets WHERE WidgetID = @WidgetID Both of these "optimizations" resulted in significant speedups, each one shaving nearly a full minute off the execution time, so that the original 2-minute deletion now takes about 5-10 seconds - at least for new widgets, without much history or test data. Just to be absolutely clear, there is still a CASCADE from WidgetHistory to WidgetHistoryDetails, where the fanout is highest, I only removed the one originating from Widgets. Further "flattening" of the cascade relationships resulted in progressively less dramatic but still noticeable speedups, to the point where deleting a new widget was almost instantaneous once all of the cascade deletes to larger tables were removed and replaced with explicit deletes. I'm using DBCC DROPCLEANBUFFERS and DBCC FREEPROCCACHE before each test. I've disabled all triggers that might be causing further slowdowns (although those would show up in the execution plan anyway). And I'm testing against older widgets, too, and noticing a significant speedup there as well; deletes that used to take 5 minutes now take 20-40 seconds. Now I'm an ardent supporter of the "SELECT ain't broken" philosophy, but there just doesn't seem to be any logical explanation for this behaviour other than crushing, mind-boggling inefficiency of the CASCADE DELETE relationships. So, my questions are: Is this a known issue with DRI in SQL Server? (I couldn't seem to find any references to this sort of thing on Google or here in SO; I suspect the answer is no.) If not, is there another explanation for the behaviour I'm seeing? If it is a known issue, why is it an issue, and are there better workarounds I could be using?

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  • Python/numpy tricky slicing problem

    - by daver
    Hi stack overflow, I have a problem with some numpy stuff. I need a numpy array to behave in an unusual manner by returning a slice as a view of the data I have sliced, not a copy. So heres an example of what I want to do: Say we have a simple array like this: a = array([1, 0, 0, 0]) I would like to update consecutive entries in the array (moving left to right) with the previous entry from the array, using syntax like this: a[1:] = a[0:3] This would get the following result: a = array([1, 1, 1, 1]) Or something like this: a[1:] = 2*a[:3] # a = [1,2,4,8] To illustrate further I want the following kind of behaviour: for i in range(len(a)): if i == 0 or i+1 == len(a): continue a[i+1] = a[i] Except I want the speed of numpy. The default behavior of numpy is to take a copy of the slice, so what I actually get is this: a = array([1, 1, 0, 0]) I already have this array as a subclass of the ndarray, so I can make further changes to it if need be, I just need the slice on the right hand side to be continually updated as it updates the slice on the left hand side. Am I dreaming or is this magic possible? Update: This is all because I am trying to use Gauss-Seidel iteration to solve a linear algebra problem, more or less. It is a special case involving harmonic functions, I was trying to avoid going into this because its really not necessary and likely to confuse things further, but here goes. The algorithm is this: while not converged: for i in range(len(u[:,0])): for j in range(len(u[0,:])): # skip over boundary entries, i,j == 0 or len(u) u[i,j] = 0.25*(u[i-1,j] + u[i+1,j] + u[i, j-1] + u[i,j+1]) Right? But you can do this two ways, Jacobi involves updating each element with its neighbours without considering updates you have already made until the while loop cycles, to do it in loops you would copy the array then update one array from the copied array. However Gauss-Seidel uses information you have already updated for each of the i-1 and j-1 entries, thus no need for a copy, the loop should essentially 'know' since the array has been re-evaluated after each single element update. That is to say, every time we call up an entry like u[i-1,j] or u[i,j-1] the information calculated in the previous loop will be there. I want to replace this slow and ugly nested loop situation with one nice clean line of code using numpy slicing: u[1:-1,1:-1] = 0.25(u[:-2,1:-1] + u[2:,1:-1] + u[1:-1,:-2] + u[1:-1,2:]) But the result is Jacobi iteration because when you take a slice: u[:,-2,1:-1] you copy the data, thus the slice is not aware of any updates made. Now numpy still loops right? Its not parallel its just a faster way to loop that looks like a parallel operation in python. I want to exploit this behaviour by sort of hacking numpy to return a pointer instead of a copy when I take a slice. Right? Then every time numpy loops, that slice will 'update' or really just replicate whatever happened in the update. To do this I need slices on both sides of the array to be pointers. Anyway if there is some really really clever person out there that awesome, but I've pretty much resigned myself to believing the only answer is to loop in C.

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  • The best cross platform (portable) arbitrary precision math library

    - by Siu Ching Pong - Asuka Kenji
    Dear ninjas / hackers / wizards, I'm looking for a good arbitrary precision math library in C or C++. Could you please give me some advices / suggestions? The primary requirements: It MUST handle arbitrarily big integers (my primary interest is on integers). In case that you don't know what the word arbitrarily big means, imagine something like 100000! (the factorial of 100000). The precision MUST NOT NEED to be specified during library initialization / object creation. The precision should ONLY be constrained by the available resources of the system. It SHOULD utilize the full power of the platform, and should handle "small" numbers natively. That means on a 64-bit platform, calculating 2^33 + 2^32 should use the available 64-bit CPU instructions. The library SHOULD NOT calculate this in the same way as it does with 2^66 + 2^65 on the same platform. It MUST handle addition (+), subtraction (-), multiplication (*), integer division (/), remainder (%), power (**), increment (++), decrement (--), gcd(), factorial(), and other common integer arithmetic calculations efficiently. Ability to handle functions like sqrt() (square root), log() (logarithm) that do not produce integer results is a plus. Ability to handle symbolic computations is even better. Here are what I found so far: Java's BigInteger and BigDecimal class: I have been using these so far. I have read the source code, but I don't understand the math underneath. It may be based on theories / algorithms that I have never learnt. The built-in integer type or in core libraries of bc / Python / Ruby / Haskell / Lisp / Erlang / OCaml / PHP / some other languages: I have ever used some of these, but I have no idea on which library they are using, or which kind of implementation they are using. What I have already known: Using a char as a decimal digit, and a char* as a decimal string and do calculations on the digits using a for-loop. Using an int (or a long int, or a long long) as a basic "unit" and an array of it as an arbitrary long integer, and do calculations on the elements using a for-loop. Booth's multiplication algorithm What I don't know: Printing the binary array mentioned above in decimal without using naive methods. Example of a naive method: (1) add the bits from the lowest to the highest: 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, ... (2) use a char* string mentioned above to store the intermediate decimal results). What I appreciate: Good comparisons on GMP, MPFR, decNumber (or other libraries that are good in your opinion). Good suggestions on books / articles that I should read. For example, an illustration with figures on how a un-naive arbitrarily long binary to decimal conversion algorithm works is good. Any help. Please DO NOT answer this question if: you think using a double (or a long double, or a long long double) can solve this problem easily. If you do think so, it means that you don't understand the issue under discussion. you have no experience on arbitrary precision mathematics. Thank you in advance! Asuka Kenji

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  • OSGI Declarative Services (DS): What is a good way of using service component instances

    - by Christoph
    I am just getting started with OSGI and Declarative Services (DS) using Equinox and Eclipse PDE. I have 2 Bundles, A and B. Bundle A exposes a component which is consumed by Bundle B. Both bundles also expose this service to the OSGI Service registry again. Everything works fine so far and Equinox is wireing the components together, which means the Bundle A and Bundle B are instanciated by Equinox (by calling the default constructor) and then the wireing happens using the bind / unbind methods. Now, as Equinox is creating the instances of those components / services I would like to know what is the best way of getting this instance? So assume there is third class class which is NOT instantiated by OSGI: Class WantsToUseComponentB{ public void doSomethingWithComponentB(){ // how do I get componentB??? Something like this maybe? ComponentB component = (ComponentB)someComponentRegistry.getComponent(ComponentB.class.getName()); } I see the following options right now: 1. Use a ServiceTracker in the Activator to get the Service of ComponentBundleA.class.getName() (I have tried that already and it works, but it seems to much overhead to me) and make it available via a static factory methods public class Activator{ private static ServiceTracker componentBServiceTracker; public void start(BundleContext context){ componentBServiceTracker = new ServiceTracker(context, ComponentB.class.getName(),null); } public static ComponentB getComponentB(){ return (ComponentB)componentBServiceTracker.getService(); }; } 2. Create some kind of Registry where each component registers as soon as the activate() method is called. public ComponentB{ public void bind(ComponentA componentA){ someRegistry.registerComponent(this); } or public ComponentB{ public void activate(ComponentContext context){ someRegistry.registerComponent(this); } } } 3. Use an existing registry inside osgi / equinox which has those instances? I mean OSGI is already creating instances and wires them together, so it has the objects already somewhere. But where? How can I get them? Conclusion Where does the class WantsToUseComponentB (which is NOT a Component and NOT instantiated by OSGI) get an instance of ComponentB from? Are there any patterns or best practises? As I said I managed to use a ServiceTracker in the Activator, but I thought that would be possible without it. What I am looking for is actually something like the BeanContainer of Springframework, where I can just say something like Container.getBean(ComponentA.BEAN_NAME). But I don't want to use Spring DS. I hope that was clear enough. Otherwise I can also post some source code to explain in more detail. Thanks Christoph UPDATED: Answer to Neil's comment: Thanks for clarifying this question against the original version, but I think you still need to state why the third class cannot be created via something like DS. Hmm don't know. Maybe there is a way but I would need to refactor my whole framework to be based on DS, so that there are no "new MyThirdClass(arg1, arg2)" statements anymore. Don't really know how to do that, but I read something about ComponentFactories in DS. So instead of doing a MyThirdClass object = new MyThirdClass(arg1, arg2); I might do a ComponentFactory myThirdClassFactory = myThirdClassServiceTracker.getService(); // returns a if (myThirdClassFactory != null){ MyThirdClass object = objectFactory.newInstance(); object.setArg1("arg1"); object.setArg2("arg2"); } else{ // here I can assume that some service of ComponentA or B went away so MyThirdClass Componenent cannot be created as there are missing dependencies? } At the time of writing I don't know exactly how to use the ComponentFactories but this is supposed to be some kind of pseudo code :) Thanks Christoph

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  • How do I evaluate my skillset against the current market to see what needs improvement and where my

    - by baijajusav
    First of all, this question may be out of bounds for this site. If so, remove it. I say this because this site seems to be a place for more concrete questions that are not so relative in nature. And before I begin, for those of you whom just prefer a question and not this sort of dialog, here is my question: How can I assess my current skills as a programmer and decide where and what areas to improve upon? That said, here's what I'm asking/talking about, in essence. The market is always in constant flux. As programmers we're always having to learn new things, update our skills, push ourselves into that next project. There's not a very good litmus test that I know of for us to get an idea of where we stand as programmers. I came across this blog post by Jeff Atwood talking about why can't programmers code. Instinctively (and as the post goes on to state) I rushed through the program in about 4 minutes (most of that time was b/c I was hand writing it out. Still, this doesn't really answer the question of where do my skills need to be to succeed in today's world. I real blogs, listen to podcasts, try to keep up on the latest things coming out. It has only been in the past couple of months that I made a decision to pick a focus area for my learning as I can't learn everything and trying to do so is to spread myself too thin. I chose ASP.NET MVC & C#. I plan to stick with Microsoft technologies, not out of some sense of loyalty or stubbornness, but rather because they seem to stream together and have a unifying connection between them. With Windows Phone 7 coming out, it seems that now is the obvious time to pick up WPF and Silverlight as well. Still, if you asked me to code something apart from intellisense and the internet, I probably couldn't get the syntax right. I don't have libraries memorized or know precisely where the classes I use exist within the .Net framework, namely because I haven't had to pull that knowledge out of the air. In a way, I suppose Visual Studio has insulated me, which isn't a good thing, but, at the same time, I've still been able to be productive. I'm working on my own side project to try and help my learning. In doing so, I'm trying to make use of best practices and 3rd party frameworks where I can. I'm using automapper and EF 1.0. I know everyone in the .net community seems to cry foul at the sound of EF 1.0, but I can't say why because I've never used it. There's no lazy loading and that has proven rather annoying; however, aside from that, I haven't had that much of an issue. Granted this is probably because I'm not writing tests as I go (which I'm not doing because I don't know how to test EF in tests and don't really have a clue how to write tests for ASP.NET MVC 1.0). I'm also using a custom membership provider; granted, it's a barebone implementation, but I'm using it still. My thinking in all of this is, while I am neglecting a great many important technologies that are in the mainstream, I'll have a working project in the end. I can come back and add those things after I finish. Doing it all now and at once seems like too much. I know how I work and I don't think I'd ever get it done that way. I've elected to make this a community wiki as I think this question might fight better there. If a moderator disagrees with that choice or the decision to post this here, the just delete the question. I'm not trying to make undue work for anyone. I'm just a programmer trying to assess my where his skills are now and where I should be improving.

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  • Solving Combinatory Problems with LINQ /.NET4

    - by slf
    I saw this article pop-up in my MSDN RSS feed, and after reading through it, and the sourced article here I began to wonder about the solution. The rules are simple: Find a number consisting of 9 digits in which each of the digits from 1 to 9 appears only once. This number must also satisfy these divisibility requirements: The number should be divisible by 9. If the rightmost digit is removed, the remaining number should be divisible by 8. If the rightmost digit of the new number is removed, the remaining number should be divisible by 7. And so on, until there's only one digit (which will necessarily be divisible by 1). This is his proposed monster LINQ query: // C# and LINQ solution to the numeric problem presented in: // http://software.intel.com/en-us/blogs/2009/12/07/intel-parallel-studio-great-for-serial-code-too-episode-1/ int[] oneToNine = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }; // the query var query = from i1 in oneToNine from i2 in oneToNine where i2 != i1 && (i1 * 10 + i2) % 2 == 0 from i3 in oneToNine where i3 != i2 && i3 != i1 && (i1 * 100 + i2 * 10 + i3) % 3 == 0 from i4 in oneToNine where i4 != i3 && i4 != i2 && i4 != i1 && (i1 * 1000 + i2 * 100 + i3 * 10 + i4) % 4 == 0 from i5 in oneToNine where i5 != i4 && i5 != i3 && i5 != i2 && i5 != i1 && (i1 * 10000 + i2 * 1000 + i3 * 100 + i4 * 10 + i5) % 5 == 0 from i6 in oneToNine where i6 != i5 && i6 != i4 && i6 != i3 && i6 != i2 && i6 != i1 && (i1 * 100000 + i2 * 10000 + i3 * 1000 + i4 * 100 + i5 * 10 + i6) % 6 == 0 from i7 in oneToNine where i7 != i6 && i7 != i5 && i7 != i4 && i7 != i3 && i7 != i2 && i7 != i1 && (i1 * 1000000 + i2 * 100000 + i3 * 10000 + i4 * 1000 + i5 * 100 + i6 * 10 + i7) % 7 == 0 from i8 in oneToNine where i8 != i7 && i8 != i6 && i8 != i5 && i8 != i4 && i8 != i3 && i8 != i2 && i8 != i1 && (i1 * 10000000 + i2 * 1000000 + i3 * 100000 + i4 * 10000 + i5 * 1000 + i6 * 100 + i7 * 10 + i8) % 8 == 0 from i9 in oneToNine where i9 != i8 && i9 != i7 && i9 != i6 && i9 != i5 && i9 != i4 && i9 != i3 && i9 != i2 && i9 != i1 let number = i1 * 100000000 + i2 * 10000000 + i3 * 1000000 + i4 * 100000 + i5 * 10000 + i6 * 1000 + i7 * 100 + i8 * 10 + i9 * 1 where number % 9 == 0 select number; // run it! foreach (int n in query) Console.WriteLine(n); Octavio states "Note that no attempt at all has been made to optimize the code", what I'd like to know is what if we DID attempt to optimize this code. Is this really the best this code can get? I'd like to know how we can do this best with .NET4, in particular doing as much in parallel as we possibly can. I'm not necessarily looking for an answer in pure LINQ, assume .NET4 in any form (managed c++, c#, etc all acceptable).

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