Search Results

Search found 5377 results on 216 pages for 'explicit cast operator'.

Page 50/216 | < Previous Page | 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57  | Next Page >

  • LINQ To SQL exception: Local sequence cannot be used in LINQ to SQL implementation of query operator

    - by pcampbell
    Consider this LINQ To SQL query. It's intention is to take a string[] of search terms and apply the terms to a bunch of different fields on the SQL table: string[] searchTerms = new string[] {"hello","world","foo"}; List<Cust> = db.Custs.Where(c => searchTerms.Any(st => st.Equals(c.Email)) || searchTerms.Any(st => st.Equals(c.FirstName)) || searchTerms.Any(st => st.Equals(c.LastName)) || searchTerms.Any(st => st.Equals(c.City)) || searchTerms.Any(st => st.Equals(c.Postal)) || searchTerms.Any(st => st.Equals(c.Phone)) || searchTerms.Any(st => c.AddressLine1.Contains(st)) ) .ToList(); An exception is raised: Local sequence cannot be used in LINQ to SQL implementation of query operators except the Contains() operator Question: Why is this exception raised, and how can the query be rewritten to avoid this exception?

    Read the article

  • Why does the minus operator give different result than the TIMESTAMPDIFF() function in mysql?

    - by f3r3nc
    Since TIMESTAMP in mysql is stored as a 32bit value representing the time interval from 1970-jan-1 0:00:00 in seconds, I assumed that using minus (-) operator on TIMESTAMP values would give the difference of these values in seconds. Actually not: +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:00") - TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:29:59") | +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | 41.000000 | +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ 1 row in set (0.05 sec) mysql> select timestampdiff(SECOND,TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:00"),TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:29:59")); +-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+ | timestampdiff(SECOND,TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:00"),TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:29:59")) | +-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+ | -1 | +-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------+ mysql> select TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:00") - TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:01") ; +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:00") - TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:01") | +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | -1.000000 | +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:30:00") - TIMESTAMP("2010-04-02 10:31:00") | +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | -100.000000 | +---------------------------------------------------------------------+ It seems like one minute difference is 100 instead of 60. Why is this?

    Read the article

  • Equality and Assigment Operators

    - by Jeremy Smith
    I have a assembly compiled in VB.NET that contains two operators: Public Shared Operator =(quarterA As CalendarQuarter, quarterB As CalendarQuarter) As Boolean Return quarterA.StartDate = quarterB.StartDate AndAlso quarterA.EndDate = quarterB.EndDate AndAlso quarterA.Quarter = quarterB.Quarter End Operator Public Shared Operator <>(quarterA As CalendarQuarter, quarterB As CalendarQuarter) As Boolean Return Not (quarterA = quarterB) End Operator However, when using the assembly in C# to perform equality checks if (qtr != null) I receive the error: Cannot implicity convert type 'object' to 'bool' My original intent with the = operator was only for assignment purposes in VB, so I may be way off base (I don't use custom operators too often). What do I need to do to make the operator behave with both equality and assignment operations?

    Read the article

  • how can i unmarshall in jaxb and enjoy the schema validation without using an explicit schema file

    - by ekeren
    I am using jaxb for my application configurations I feel like I am doing something really crooked and I am looking for a way to not need an actual file or this transaction. As you can see in code I: 1.create a schema into a file from my JaxbContext (from my class annotation actually) 2.set this schema file in order to allow true validation when I unmarshal JAXBContext context = JAXBContext.newInstance(clazz); Schema mySchema = SchemaFactory.newInstance(XMLConstants.W3C_XML_SCHEMA_NS_URI).newSchema(schemaFile); jaxbContext.generateSchema(new MySchemaOutputResolver()); // ultimately creates schemaFile Unmarshaller u = m_context.createUnmarshaller(); u.setSchema(mySchema); u.unmarshal(...); do any of you know how I can validate jaxb without needing to create a schema file that sits in my computer? Do I need to create a schema for validation, it looks redundant when I get it by JaxbContect.generateSchema ? How do you do this?

    Read the article

  • Why does this explicit call of a Scala method allow it to be implicitly resolved?

    - by Matt R
    Why does this code fail to compile, but compiles successfully when I uncomment the indicated line? (I'm using Scala 2.8 nightly). It seems that explicitly calling string2Wrapper allows it to be used implicitly from that point on. class A { import Implicits.string2Wrapper def foo() { //string2Wrapper("A") ==> "B" // <-- uncomment } def bar() { "A" ==> "B" "B" ==> "C" "C" ==> "D" } object Implicits { implicit def string2Wrapper(s: String) = new Wrapper(s) class Wrapper(s: String) { def ==>(s2: String) {} } } }

    Read the article

  • Should you correct compiler warnings about type conversions using explicit typecasts?

    - by BastiBechtold
    In my current project, the compiler shows hundreds of warnings about type conversions. There is a lot of code like this iVar = fVar1*fVar2/fVar3; // or even iVar = fVar1*fVar2/fVar3+.5f; which intentionally assign float values to int. Of course, I could fix these warnings using iVar = int(...); but that looks kind of ugly. Would you rather live with the ugliness or live with the warnings? Or is there even a clean solution?

    Read the article

  • Explicit method tables in C# instead of OO - good? bad?

    - by FunctorSalad
    Hi! I hope the title doesn't sound too subjective; I absolutely do not mean to start a debate on OO in general. I'd merely like to discuss the basic pros and cons for different ways of solving the following sort of problem. Let's take this minimal example: you want to express an abstract datatype T with functions that may take T as input, output, or both: f1 : Takes a T, returns an int f2 : Takes a string, returns a T f3 : Takes a T and a double, returns another T I'd like to avoid downcasting and any other dynamic typing. I'd also like to avoid mutation whenever possible. 1: Abstract-class-based attempt abstract class T { abstract int f1(); // We can't have abstract constructors, so the best we can do, as I see it, is: abstract void f2(string s); // The convention would be that you'd replace calls to the original f2 by invocation of the nullary constructor of the implementing type, followed by invocation of f2. f2 would need to have side-effects to be of any use. // f3 is a problem too: abstract T f3(double d); // This doesn't express that the return value is of the *same* type as the object whose method is invoked; it just expresses that the return value is *some* T. } 2: Parametric polymorphism and an auxilliary class (all implementing classes of TImpl will be singleton classes): abstract class TImpl<T> { abstract int f1(T t); abstract T f2(string s); abstract T f3(T t, double d); } We no longer express that some concrete type actually implements our original spec -- an implementation is simply a type Foo for which we happen to have an instance of TImpl. This doesn't seem to be a problem: If you want a function that works on arbitrary implementations, you just do something like: // Say we want to return a Bar given an arbitrary implementation of our abstract type Bar bar<T>(TImpl<T> ti, T t); At this point, one might as well skip inheritance and singletons altogether and use a 3 First-class function table class /* or struct, even */ TDictT<T> { readonly Func<T,int> f1; readonly Func<string,T> f2; readonly Func<T,double,T> f3; TDict( ... ) { this.f1 = f1; this.f2 = f2; this.f3 = f3; } } Bar bar<T>(TDict<T> td; T t); Though I don't see much practical difference between #2 and #3. Example Implementation class MyT { /* raw data structure goes here; this class needn't have any methods */ } // It doesn't matter where we put the following; could be a static method of MyT, or some static class collecting dictionaries static readonly TDict<MyT> MyTDict = new TDict<MyT>( (t) => /* body of f1 goes here */ , // f2 (s) => /* body of f2 goes here */, // f3 (t,d) => /* body of f3 goes here */ ); Thoughts? #3 is unidiomatic, but it seems rather safe and clean. One question is whether there are any performance concerns with it. I don't usually need dynamic dispatch, and I'd prefer if these function bodies get statically inlined in places where the concrete implementing type is known statically. Is #2 better in that regard?

    Read the article

  • How is the ">" operator implemented (on 32 bit integers)?

    - by Ron Klein
    Let's say that the environment is x86. How do compilers compile the "" operator on 32 bit integers. Logically, I mean. Without any knowledge of Assembly. Let's say that the high level language code is: int32 x, y; x = 123; y = 456; bool z; z = x > y; What does the compiler do for evaluating the expression x > y? Does it perform something like (assuming that x and y are positive integers): w = sign_of(x - y); if (w == 0) // expression is 'false' else if (w == 1) // expression is 'true' else // expression is 'false' Is there any reference for such information?

    Read the article

  • netbeans autocompletion when using singleton to retrieve object instead of new operator?

    - by fayer
    when i use the 'new' operator to instantiate a class, netbeans has no problem to autocomplete the members of the object. $instance = new Singleton(); $instance-> // shows test() method but when i use a singleton to retrieve an object it cannot autocomplete the members in the object retrieved. the getInstance code looks like this: public function test() { echo "hello"; } public static function getInstance() { if ( ! is_object(self::$_instance)) { self::$_instance = new self(); self::$_instance->initialize(); } return self::$_instance; } so i use: $instance = Singleton::getInstance(); $instance-> // no autocompletion! does anyone have the same problem? how do i work around it? thanks!

    Read the article

  • Simple Scala syntax - trying to define "==" operator - what am I missing?

    - by Alex R
    While experimenting with some stuff on the REPL, I got to a point where I needed something like this: scala class A(x:Int) { println(x); def ==(a:A) : Boolean = { this.x == a.x; } } Just a simple class with an "==" operator. Why doesn't it work??? Here's the result: :10: error: type mismatch; found : A required: ?{val x: ?} Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from A to ?{val x: ?} class A(x:Int) { println(x); def ==(a:A) : Boolean = { this.x == a.x; } } ^ This is scala 2.8 RC1. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can I grant explicit Javascript methods to a different-host iframe?

    - by Matchu
    I'm thinking about a system in which I allow users to create Javascript-empowered widgets for other users to embed in their dashboard on my website. I'd like to limit these widgets fairly strictly, so each would exist as an iframe kept on its own unique hostname: the widget with ID #47 would be accessible at w47.widgets.example.com, for example. It would be helpful, for permission-granting dialogs and the like, to allow the widget to call very specific methods explicitly granted by the parent window, without authorizing the iframe to do whatever it likes with the parent frame on the user's behalf. Is it possible for a parent document to explicitly allow certain method calls to a child document on a different host?

    Read the article

  • C# string equality operator returns false, but I'm pretty sure it should be true... What?!

    - by Daniel Schaffer
    I'm trying to write a unit test for a piece of code that generates a large amount of text. I've run into an issue where the "expected" and "actual" strings appear to be equal, but Assert.AreEqual throws, and both the equality operator and Equals() return false. The result of GetHashCode() is different for both values as well. However, putting both strings into text files and comparing with DiffMerge tells me they're the same. Additionally, using Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes() on both values and then using SequenceEquals to compare the resulting byte arrays returns true. The values are 34KB each, so I'll hold off putting them here for now. Any ideas? I'm completely stumped.

    Read the article

  • How does C++ free the memory when a constructor throws an exception and a custom new is used

    - by Joshua
    I see the following constructs: new X will free the memory if X constructor throws. operator new() can be overloaded. The canonical definition of an operator new overload is void *operator new(heap h) and the corrisponding operator delete. The most common operator new overload is pacement new, which is void *operator new(void *p) { return p; } You almost always cannot call delete on the pointer given to placement new. This leads to a single question. How is memory cleaned up when X constructor throws and an overloaded new is used?

    Read the article

  • What if I made an explicit reference to 'this' for use inside an inner class?

    - by badp
    So far, I've used this approach to access this from the scope of an inner class: class FooManagementWindow extends JFrame { JButton rejectFoo; //... void getFooAcceptingPanel(){ //... final FooManagementWindow referenceToThis = this; rejectFoo = new JButton("Reject"); rejectFoo.addEventListener(new EventListener() { @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent arg) { referenceToThis.setEnabled(false); //this requires a network call //... referenceToThis.setEnabled(true); //the user may resume his work } }); //... } } However, I just learned that instead of declaring referenceToThis, a direct reference is kept for me as: FooManagementWindow.this I have no reason to think my less standard approach may lead to errors or weird corner cases. Or are there?

    Read the article

  • Template class + virtual function = must implement?

    - by sold
    This code: template <typename T> struct A { T t; void DoSomething() { t.SomeFunction(); } }; struct B { }; A<B> a; is easily compiled without any complaints, as long as I never call a.DoSomething(). However, if I define DoSomething as a virtual function, I will get a compile error saying that B doesn't declare SomeFunction. I can somewhat see why it happens (DoSomething should now have an entry in the vtable), but I can't help feeling that it's not really obligated. Plus it sucks. Is there any way to overcome this? EDIT 2: Okay. I hope this time it makes sence: Let's say I am doing intrusive ref count, so all entities must inherit from base class Object. How can I suuport primitive types too? I can define: template <typename T> class Primitive : public Object { T value; public: Primitive(const T &value=T()); operator T() const; Primitive<T> &operator =(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator +=(const T &value); Primitive<T> &operator %=(const T &value); // And so on... }; so I can use Primitive<int>, Primitive<char>... But how about Primitive<float>? It seems like a problem, because floats don't have a %= operator. But actually, it isn't, since I'll never call operator %= on Primitive<float>. That's one of the deliberate features of templates. If, for some reason, I would define operator %= as virtual. Or, if i'll pre-export Primitive<float> from a dll to avoid link errors, the compiler will complain even if I never call operator %= on a Primitive<float>. If it would just have fill in a dummy value for operator %= in Primitive<float>'s vtable (that raises an exception?), everything would have been fine.

    Read the article

  • How to call operator<< on "this" in a descendant of std::stringstream?

    - by romkyns
    class mystream : public std::stringstream { public: void write_something() { this << "something"; } }; This results in the following two compile errors on VC++10: error C2297: '<<' : illegal, right operand has type 'const char [10]' error C2296: '<<' : illegal, left operand has type 'mystream *const ' Judging from the second one, this is because what this points at can't be changed, but the << operator does (or at least is declared as if it does). Correct? Is there some other way I can still use the << and >> operators on this?

    Read the article

  • C++ volatile required when spinning on boost::shared_ptr operator bool()?

    - by JaredC
    I have two threads referencing the same boost::shared_ptr: boost::shared_ptr<Widget> shared; On thread is spinning, waiting for the other thread to reset the boost::shared_ptr: while(shared) boost::thread::yield(); And at some point the other thread will call: shared.reset(); My question is whether or not I need to declare the shared pointer as volatile to prevent the compiler from optimizing the call to shared.operator bool() out of the loop and never detecting the change? I know that if I were simply looping on a variable, waiting for it to reach 0 I would need volatile, but I'm not sure if boost::shared_ptr is implemented in such a way that it is not necessary here.

    Read the article

  • How to iterate in this query?

    - by Umaid
    for (int I=-1; I<30; I++) { for (int J=0; J<30; J++) { for(int K=1; K<30; K++) { SELECT rowid,Month, Day, Advice from MainCategory where Month= 'May ' and Day in ((cast(strftime('%d',date('now','+(I) day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','+(J) day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','+(K) day')) as Integer))); } } } And for the same reason how to decrement in this query for (int I=-1; I<30; I--) { for (int J=0; J<30; J--) { for(int K=1; K<30; K--) { SELECT rowid,Month, Day, Advice from MainCategory where Month= 'May ' and Day in ((cast(strftime('%d',date('now','(I) day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','(J) day')) as Integer)),(cast(strftime('%d',date('now','(K) day')) as Integer))); } } }

    Read the article

  • Shortcut to get all private field names combined with && operator as a generated line of code?

    - by burak ozdogan
    Hi, Is it possible to use reflection when we write a code-template? I was just thinking if it is possible to write a piece of code-template that will return me a list of all private field in the class separated by && operator in Visual Stuudio? Let's say, I will enter "getAllPrivates&&" (or press a shortcut key) in the VS editor and it will return me something like this: private bool _privateFiel1 = false; private bool _privateFiel2 = true; private bool _privateFiel3 = false; private bool _privateFiel4 = false; private bool _privateFiel5 = true; // Here I press the shortcut or call the code-template and get his: _privateFiel1 && _privateFiel2 && _privateFiel3 && _privateFiel4 && _privateFiel5

    Read the article

  • How to implement copy operator for such C++ structure?

    - by Kabumbus
    So having struct ResultStructure { ResultStructure(const ResultStructure& other) { // copy code in here ? using memcpy ? how??? } ResultStructure& operator=(const ResultStructure& other) { if (this != &other) { // copy code in here ? } return *this } int length; char* ptr; }; How to implement copy? (sorry - I am C++ nube)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to apply NOT(!) operator while DataBinding a property of a control ?

    - by Ashish Ashu
    I have Button control and I have to set the IsEanbled property based on the bool variable. bool IsBoolVariable I want if IsBoolVariable property is true then I want to set the IsEnabled property to false AND when IsBoolVariable property is false then I want to set the IsEnabled property to true. Is it possible to apply not(!) operator while defining the binding as given below <Button IsEnabled = "{Binding Path = **!**IsBoolVariable}" /> I can very well do that by applying convertors , but that is the only way to do that?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57  | Next Page >