Search Results

Search found 1541 results on 62 pages for 'mr hell'.

Page 50/62 | < Previous Page | 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57  | Next Page >

  • How to parse this xml document?

    - by dfjhdfjhdf
    Get such a XML document with the help of ajax (var data = request.responseXML;), how do I parse the contacts?: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Alladresses xmlns="http://somedomain.org/doc/2007-08-02/"> <Owner> <ID>gut74hfowesdfj49fjsifhryh8e8rta3uyhw4</ID> <Name>Mr.Bin</Name> </Owner> <Contacts> <Person> <Name>Greg</Name> <Phone>3254566756</Phone> </Person> <Person> <Name>Smith</Name> <Phone>342446446</Phone> </Person> <Person> <Name>Yuliya</Name> <Phone>675445566867</Phone> </Person> </Contacts> </Alladresses>

    Read the article

  • How to enforce foreign keys using Xerial SQLite JDBC?

    - by Space_C0wb0y
    According to their release notes, the Xerial SQLite JDBC driver supports foreign keys since version 3.6.20.1. I have tried some time now to get a foreign key constraint to be enforced, but to no avail. Here is what I came up with: public static void main(String[] args) throws ClassNotFoundException, SQLException { Class.forName("org.sqlite.JDBC"); SQLiteConfig config = new SQLiteConfig(); config.enforceForeignKeys(true); Connection connection = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:sqlite::memory:", config.toProperties()); connection.createStatement().executeUpdate( "CREATE TABLE artist(" + "artistid INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, " + "artistname TEXT);"); connection.createStatement().executeUpdate( "CREATE TABLE track("+ "trackid INTEGER," + "trackname TEXT," + "trackartist INTEGER," + "FOREIGN KEY(trackartist) REFERENCES artist(artistid)" + ");"); connection.createStatement().executeUpdate( "INSERT INTO track VALUES(14, 'Mr. Bojangles', 3)"); } The table definitions are taken directly from the sample in the SQLite documentation. This is supposed to fail, but it doesn't. I also checked, and it really inserts the tuple (no ignore or something like that). Does anyone have any experience with that, or knows how to make it work?

    Read the article

  • BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding

    - by Tim
    Mr. Ayende wrote in his latest blog post about an implementation of a queue. In the post he's using two magical files: BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding & BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding BinaryWriterWith7BitEncoding can write both int and long? using the following method signatures: void WriteBitEncodedNullableInt64(long? value) & void Write7BitEncodedInt(int value) and BinaryReaderWith7BitEncoding can read the values written using the following method signatures: long? ReadBitEncodedNullableInt64() and int Read7BitEncodedInt() So far I've only managed to find a way to read the 7BitEncodedInt: protected int Read7BitEncodedInt() { int value = 0; int byteval; int shift = 0; while(((byteval = ReadByte()) & 0x80) != 0) { value |= ((byteval & 0x7F) << shift); shift += 7; } return (value | (byteval << shift)); } I'm not too good with byte shifting - does anybody know how to read and write the 7BitEncoded long? and write the int ?

    Read the article

  • OpenGL Colour Interpolation

    - by Will-of-fortune
    I'm currently working on an little project in C++ and OpenGL and am trying to implement a colour selection tool similar to that in photoshop, as below. However I am having trouble with interpolation of the large square. Working on my desktop computer with a 8800 GTS the result was similar but the blending wasn't as smooth. This is the code I am using: GLfloat swatch[] = { 0,0,0, 1,1,1, mR,mG,mB, 0,0,0 }; GLint swatchVert[] = { 400,700, 400,500, 600,500, 600,700 }; glVertexPointer(2, GL_INT, 0, swatchVert); glColorPointer(3, GL_FLOAT, 0, swatch); glDrawArrays(GL_QUADS, 0, 4); Moving onto my laptop with Intel Graphics HD 3000, this result was even worse with no change in code. I thought it was OpenGL splitting the quad into two triangles, so I tried rendering using triangles and interpolating the colour in the middle of the square myself but it still doesnt quite match the result I was hoping for. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Different EF Property DataType than Storage Layer Possible?

    - by dj_kyron
    Hi, I am putting together a WCF Data Service for PatientEntities using Entity Framework. My solution needs to address these requirements: Property DateOfBirth of entity Patient is stored in SQL Server as string. It would be ideal if the entity class did not also use the "string" type but rather a DateTime type. (I would expect this to be possible since we're abstracting away from the storage layer). Where could a conversion mechanism be put in place that would convert to and from DateTime/string so that the entity and SQL Server are in sync?. I cannot change the storage layer's structure, so I have to work around it. WCF Data Services (Read-only, so no need for saving changes) need to be used since clients will be able to use LINQ expressions to consume the service. They can generate results based on any given query scenario they need and not be constrained by a single method such as GetPatient(int ID). I've tried to use DTOs, but run into problem of mapping the ObjectContext to a DTO, I don't think that is theoretically possible...or too complicated if it is. I've tried to use Self Tracking Entities but they require the metadata from the .edmx file if I'm correct, and this isn't allowing a different property data type. I also want to add customizations to my Entity getter methods so that a property "MRN" of type "string" needs to have .Replace("MR~", string.Empty) performed before it is returned. I can add this to the getter methods but the problem with that is Entity Framework will overwrite that next time it refreshes the entity classes. Is there a permanent place I can put these? Should I use POCO instead? How would that work with WCF Data Services? Where would the service grab the metadata?

    Read the article

  • Linux: modpost does not build anything

    - by waffleman
    I am having problems getting any kernel modules to build on my machine. Whenever I build a module, modpost always says there are zero modules: MODPOST 0 modules To troubleshoot the problem, I wrote a test module (hello.c): #include <linux/module.h> /* Needed by all modules */ #include <linux/kernel.h> /* Needed for KERN_INFO */ #include <linux/init.h> /* Needed for the macros */ static int __init hello_start(void) { printk(KERN_INFO "Loading hello module...\n"); printk(KERN_INFO "Hello world\n"); return 0; } static void __exit hello_end(void) { printk(KERN_INFO "Goodbye Mr.\n"); } module_init(hello_start); module_exit(hello_end); Here is the Makefile for the module: obj-m = hello.o KVERSION = $(shell uname -r) all: make -C /lib/modules/$(KVERSION)/build M=$(shell pwd) modules clean: make -C /lib/modules/$(KVERSION)/build M=$(shell pwd) clean When I build it on my machine, I get the following output: make -C /lib/modules/2.6.32-27-generic/build M=/home/waffleman/tmp/mod-test modules make[1]: Entering directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.32-27-generic' CC [M] /home/waffleman/tmp/mod-test/hello.o Building modules, stage 2. MODPOST 0 modules make[1]: Leaving directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.32-27-generic' When I make the module on another machine, it is successful: make -C /lib/modules/2.6.24-27-generic/build M=/home/somedude/tmp/mod-test modules make[1]: Entering directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.24-27-generic' CC [M] /home/somedude/tmp/mod-test/hello.o Building modules, stage 2. MODPOST 1 modules CC /home/somedude/tmp/mod-test/hello.mod.o LD [M] /home/somedude/tmp/mod-test/hello.ko make[1]: Leaving directory `/usr/src/linux-headers-2.6.24-27-generic' I looked for any relevant documentation about modpost, but found little. Anyone know how modpost decides what to build? Is there an environment that I am possibly missing? BTW here is what I am running: uname -a Linux waffleman-desktop 2.6.32-27-generic #49-Ubuntu SMP Wed Dec 1 23:52:12 UTC 2010 i686 GNU/Linux

    Read the article

  • hadoop implementing a generic list writable

    - by Guruprasad Venkatesh
    I am working on building a map reduce pipeline of jobs(with one MR job's output feeding to another as input). The values being passed around are fairly complex, in that there are lists of different types and hash maps with values as lists. Hadoop api does not seem to have a ListWritable. Am trying to write a generic one, but it seems i can't instantiate a generic type in my readFields implementation, unless i pass in the class type itself: public class ListWritable<T extends Writable> implements Writable { private List<T> list; private Class<T> clazz; public ListWritable(Class<T> clazz) { this.clazz = clazz; list = new ArrayList<T>(); } @Override public void write(DataOutput out) throws IOException { out.writeInt(list.size()); for (T element : list) { element.write(out); } } @Override public void readFields(DataInput in) throws IOException{ int count = in.readInt(); this.list = new ArrayList<T>(); for (int i = 0; i < count; i++) { try { T obj = clazz.newInstance(); obj.readFields(in); list.add(obj); } catch (InstantiationException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IllegalAccessException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } } But hadoop requires all writables to have a no argument constructor to read the values back. Has anybody tried to do the same and solved this problem? TIA.

    Read the article

  • Reporting Services - can't group by a column called "LanguageId"

    - by marc_s
    Folks, I have a really odd behavior here: I have a SQL Server 2008 Reporting Services report which gets grouped and sorted dynamically. One of the column in my data set which I display is called LanguageId and I was trying to get a grouping going by this LanguageId field. I checked, double-checked and triple-checked the data being returned - it does contain my expected values for LanguageId and everything seems fine and dandy. It just never worked - I didn't get the expected groups, I got things like a specific node actually changing its display value from one ID to another when expanding its subitems, and other really whacky stuff. I discovered that grouping and sorting by LanguageCaption works just fine. It also started working fine after I renamed LanguageId to MyLanguageId. So where on earth is this documented that LanguageId appears to be a system variable / reserved word / keyword of some sort in SQL Server Reporting Services that must be avoided at all costs?? I can't seem to find anything on that topic - even Mr. Google and Mrs. Bing came up empty so far....

    Read the article

  • How can I have sub-elements of a complex/mixed type with unrestricted order and count?

    - by mbmcavoy
    I am working with XML where some elements will contain text with additional markup. This is similar to this example at W3Schools. However, I need the markup tags to be able to appear in any order and possibly more than once. To modify their example for illustration: <letter> Dear Mr.<name>John Smith</name>. Your order <orderid>1032</orderid> will be shipped on <shipdate>2001-07-13</shipdate>. Thank you, <name>Bob Adams</name> </letter> None of the options presented by W3Schools (on the page following the linked example) allow this XML due to the second <name> element. Their explanation of the "indicators" and my testing are consistent. <xs:sequence> - violates the element order <xs:choice> - more than one kind of element is used. <xs:all> - maxOccurs is restricted to "1". This seems like it should be basic, after all, XHTML allows such things. How do I define my schema to allow this?

    Read the article

  • sending mail in contact information with c#.net problem? help please..

    - by ilkdrl
    protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string ad = TextBox1.Text; string firma = TextBox2.Text; string mail = TextBox3.Text; string tel = TextBox4.Text; string tel2 = TextBox5.Text; string fax = TextBox6.Text; string fax2 = TextBox7.Text; string web = TextBox8.Text; string mesaj = TextBox9.Text; try { string fromAddress = "[email protected]"; string fromName = "user"; string toMail = "[email protected]"; string toNme = "Mr."; string msgSubject = "Contact"; string sifre = "userpassword"; string msgBody = "you have a message; \n" + "\n" + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Adi :" + ad + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderen Firma :" + firma + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Maili :" + mail + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Tel. Numarasi :" + tel + tel2 + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Fax Numarasi :" + fax + fax2 + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Web Adresi :" + web + "\n" + "\n" + "\n" + "" + mesaj + "" + "\n" + "\n" + "=======================================" + "\n"; SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient(); client.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(fromAddress, sifre); client.Host = "smtp.gmail.com"; client.Port = 1772; client.EnableSsl = false; MailAddress from = new MailAddress(fromAddress, fromName); MailAddress to = new MailAddress(toMail, toNme); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(from, to); message.Subject = msgSubject; message.Body = msgBody; client.Send(message); Response.Redirect("iletisim.aspx"); } catch (Exception ex) { } AND WEB.CONFIG http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=169433 -- iam trying to send email but i cant give. Where is my problem. Please help me.

    Read the article

  • How to add a WHERE clause on the second table of a 1-to-1 join in Fluent NHibernate?

    - by daddywoodland
    I'm using a legacy database that was 'future proofed' to keep track of historical changes. It turns out this feature is never used so I want to map the tables into a single entity. My tables are: CodesHistory (CodesHistoryID (pk), CodeID (fk), Text) Codes (CodeID (pk), CodeName) To add an additional level of complexity, these tables hold the content for the drop down lists throughout the application. So, I'm trying to map a Title entity (Mr, Mrs etc.) as follows: Title ClassMap - Public Sub New() Table("CodesHistory") Id(Function(x) x.TitleID, "CodesHistoryID") Map(Function(x) x.Text) 'Call into the other half of the 1-2-1 join in order to merge them in 'this single domain object Join("Codes", AddressOf AddTitleDetailData) Where("CodeName like 'C.Title.%'") End Sub ' Method to merge two tables with a 1-2-1 join into a single entity in VB.Net Public Sub AddTitleDetailData(ByVal m As JoinPart(Of Title)) m.KeyColumn("CodeID") m.Map(Function(x) x.CodeName) End Sub From the above, you can see that my 'CodeName' field represents the select list in question (C.Title, C.Age etc). The problem is that the WHERE clause only applies to the 'CodesHistory' table but the 'CodeName' field is in the 'Codes' table. As I'm sure you can guess there's no scope to change the database. Is it possible to apply the WHERE clause to the Codes table?

    Read the article

  • When is a try catch not a try catch?

    - by Dearmash
    I have a fun issue where during application shutdown, try / catch blocks are being seemingly ignored in the stack. I don't have a working test project (yet due to deadline, otherwise I'd totally try to repro this), but consider the following code snippet. public static string RunAndPossiblyThrow(int index, bool doThrow) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { if(doThrow) throw; } return ""; } public static string Run(int index) { if(_store.Contains(index)) return _store[index]; throw new ApplicationException("index not found"); } public static string RunAndIgnoreThrow(int index) { try { return Run(index); } catch(ApplicationException e) { } return ""; } During runtime this pattern works famously. We get legacy support for code that relies on exceptions for program control (bad) and we get to move forward and slowly remove exceptions used for program control. However, when shutting down our UI, we see an exception thrown from "Run" even though "doThrow" is false for ALL current uses of "RunAndPossiblyThrow". I've even gone so far as to verify this by modifying code to look like "RunAndIgnoreThrow" and I'll still get a crash post UI shutdown. Mr. Eric Lippert, I read your blog daily, I'd sure love to hear it's some known bug and I'm not going crazy. EDIT This is multi-threaded, and I've verified all objects are not modified while being accessed

    Read the article

  • C++ std::vector memory/allocation

    - by aaa
    from a previous question about vector capacity, http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2663170/stdvector-capacity-after-copying, Mr. Bailey said: In current C++ you are guaranteed that no reallocation occurs after a call to reserve until an insertion would take the size beyond the value of the previous call to reserve. Before a call to reserve, or after a call to reserve when the size is between the value of the previous call to reserve and the capacity the implementation is allowed to reallocate early if it so chooses. So, if I understand correctly, in order to assure that no relocation happens until capacity is exceeded, I must do reserve twice? can you please clarify it? I am using vector as a memory stack like this: std::vector<double> memory; memory.reserve(size); memory.insert(memory.end(), matrix.data().begin(), matrix.data().end()); // smaller than size size_t offset = memory.size(); memory.resize(memory.capacity(), 0); I need to guarantee that relocation does not happen in the above. thank you. ps: I would also like to know if there is a better way to manage memory stack in similar manner other than vector

    Read the article

  • PHP foreach help

    - by sea_1987
    Hello I have an array that looks like this, Array ( [cfi_title] => Mr [cfi_firstname] => Firstname [cfi_surname] => Lastname [cfi_email] => [email protected] [cfi_subscribe_promotional] => [cfi_tnc] => [friendsName] => Array ( [0] => Firstname 1 [1] => Firstname 2 [2] => Firstname 3 ) [friendsEmail] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => [email protected] [2] => [email protected] ) [submit_form] => Submit ) My dilema is I need to save the values from the friendsName and friendsEmail arrays into a database, I know I can loop through them but how can I send the matching data, for example I need to save [friendsName][0] and friendsEmail][0] on the same row of database? I know I need to use a foreach but I just cannot figure out the logic.

    Read the article

  • Why does Adding Core Animation slow down drawing of my NSTableView?

    - by Will Goring
    I have a simple App that displays a list of items using NSTableView. There are usually about 15-25 items in the list, and the table has 10 columns, all but one of which are text (the other's an icon.) There are simple data transformers on a couple of the columns. So nothing taxing; you'd expect it to run just fine. And as it stands, it is; the app is responsive and everything draws pretty much instantly. Scrolling, changing column sizes, resizing the window; whatever you do the redraws keep up with the mouse-pointer. Tonight, I thought I'd try adding a little visual flair to the app with Core Animation (which I've never used before,) but I've found that if anything above the NSTableView in the hierarchy is set 'Wants Core Animation Layer,' then the NSTableView redraws go to hell. Scrolling is usually fine, but resizing columns or the window causes it to pick up an effect like texture tearing, where some of the rows have the new size, and some have the old one, and everything flickers horribly. It looks terrible. Basically it looks like what you'd expect if rendering the individual rows or columns was taking a long time. I've put it through Shark and, sure enough, it looks like it's spending most of its time drawing the text in the cells; what I don't understand is why that should take longer when there's a Core Animation layer involved than when there isn't - and quite noticeably longer at that. Has anyone got any ideas? Is there any Core Animation initialisation or config I've missed or something (I've literally just ticked the "Wants Core Animation Layer" box in IB)? Cheers, Will

    Read the article

  • C# Gui setting control.Enabled to false fires OnClick event???

    - by Daniel
    For some really weird reason when i set the .Enabled property to false on a simple text box on a small GUI, it fires a radio buttons OnClick event and its causing lots of problems. I have breakpointed the txtBox.Enabled = false; and after stepping over OR into it i jump straight to the OnClick event of the radio button control Here is the call stack as that happened: TestGUI.exe!TestGUI.frmMain.radiobuttonClicked(object sender = {Text = "Download Single Episode" Checked = true}, System.EventArgs e = {System.EventArgs}) Line 67 C# System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(System.EventArgs e) + 0x70 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.RadioButton.OnClick(System.EventArgs e) + 0x27 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.RadioButton.OnEnter(System.EventArgs e = {System.EventArgs}) + 0x3e bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.Control.NotifyEnter() + 0x20 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.UpdateFocusedControl() + 0x195 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.AssignActiveControlInternal(System.Windows.Forms.Control value = {Text = "Download Single Episode" Checked = true}) + 0x54 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.ActivateControlInternal(System.Windows.Forms.Control control, bool originator = false) + 0x76 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.SetActiveControlInternal(System.Windows.Forms.Control value = {Text = "Download Single Episode" Checked = true}) + 0x73 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.SetActiveControl(System.Windows.Forms.Control ctl) + 0x33 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.ContainerControl.ActiveControl.set(System.Windows.Forms.Control value) + 0x5 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.Control.Select(bool directed, bool forward) + 0x1b bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.Control.SelectNextControl(System.Windows.Forms.Control ctl, bool forward, bool tabStopOnly, bool nested, bool wrap) + 0x7b bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.Control.SelectNextControlInternal(System.Windows.Forms.Control ctl, bool forward, bool tabStopOnly, bool nested, bool wrap) + 0x4a bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.Control.SelectNextIfFocused() + 0x61 bytes System.Windows.Forms.dll!System.Windows.Forms.Control.Enabled.set(bool value) + 0x42 bytes What the hell? It wouldn't have anything to do with the way i subscribe to the events would it? this.radioBtnMultipleDownload.Click += radiobuttonClicked; this.radioBtnSingleDownload.Click += radiobuttonClicked; this.radioCustomUrl.Click += radiobuttonClicked;

    Read the article

  • WPF DataGrid HeaderTemplate Mysterious Padding

    - by Jake Wharton
    I am placing a single button with an image in the header of a column of a DataGrid. The cell template is also just a simple button with an image. <my:DataGridTemplateColumn> <my:DataGridTemplateColumn.HeaderTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button ToolTip="Add New Template" Name="AddNewTemplate" Click="AddNewTemplate_Click"> <Image Source="../Resources/add.png"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </my:DataGridTemplateColumn.HeaderTemplate> <my:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button ToolTip="Edit Template" Name="EditTemplate" Click="EditTemplate_Click" Tag="{Binding}"> <Image Source="../Resources/pencil.png"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </my:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </my:DataGridTemplateColumn> When rendered, the header has approximately 10-15px of padding on the right side only which causes the cells to obviously render at that width leaving the cell button having empty space on both sides. Being a pixel-perfectionist this annoys the hell out of me. I had initially thought that it was space for the arrows displayed when sorted but I have sorting disabled on both the entire DataGrid and explicitly on the column. Here's a image: I assume this is padding form whatever is the parent element of the button. Does anyone know a way to eliminate it?

    Read the article

  • Threading 101: What is a Dispatcher?

    - by Water Cooler v2
    Once upon a time, I remembered this stuff by heart. Over time, my understanding has diluted and I mean to refresh it. As I recall, any so called single threaded application has two threads: a) the primary thread that has a pointer to the main or DllMain entry points; and b) For applications that have some UI, a UI thread, a.k.a the secondary thread, on which the WndProc runs, i.e. the thread that executes the WndProc that recieves messages that Windows posts to it. In short, the thread that executes the Windows message loop. For UI apps, the primary thread is in a blocking state waiting for messages from Windows. When it recieves them, it queues them up and dispatches them to the message loop (WndProc) and the UI thread gets kick started. As per my understanding, the primary thread, which is in a blocking state, is this: C++ while(getmessage(/* args &msg, etc. */)) { translatemessage(&msg, 0, 0); dispatchmessage(&msg, 0, 0); } C# or VB.NET WinForms apps: Application.Run( new System.Windows.Forms() ); Is this what they call the Dispatcher? My questions are: a) Is my above understanding correct? b) What in the name of hell is the Dispatcher? c) Point me to a resource where I can get a better understanding of threads from a Windows/Win32 perspective and then tie it up with high level languages like C#. Petzold is sparing in his discussion on the subject in his epic work. Although I believe I have it somewhat right, a confirmation will be relieving.

    Read the article

  • Android Live Wallpaper: waitForCondition(ReallocateCondition)

    - by jstatz
    I've been developing a live wallpaper using GLWallpaperService, and have gotten good results overall. It runs rock-solid in the emulator and looks good. I've dealt with OpenGL many times before so have a solid command of how to do things... unfortunately I'm having a hell of a time getting this to actually be stable on the actual hardware. The basic symption occurs when you slide the physical keyboard on a Motorola Droid in and out a few times. This causes the wallpaper to get destroyed/recreated several times in quick succession -- which would be fine, as I have my assets clearing in onDestroy and reloading in onSurfaceChanged. The problem is after a few iterations of this, (four or five, maybe) the calls to onSurfaceChanged completely stop, and i get an endless string of this printed to the log: 04-02 00:53:18.088: WARN/SharedBufferStack(1032): waitForCondition(ReallocateCondition) timed out (identity=337, status=0). CPU may be pegged. trying again. Is there something I should be implementing here aside from the Android-typical onSurfaceCreated/onSurfaceChanged/onSurfaceDestroyed triumvirate? Browsing through the WallpaperService and WallpaperRenderer classes doesn't pop up anything obvious to me.

    Read the article

  • AutoMapper a viable alternative to two way databinding using a FormView?

    - by tbone
    I've started using the FormView control to enable two way databinding in asp.net webforms. I liked that it saved me the trouble of writing loadForm and unloadForm routines on every page. So it seemed to work nicely at the start when I was just using textboxes everywhere....but when it came time to start converting some to DropDownLists, all hell broke lose. For example, see: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435185/not-possible-to-load-dropdownlist-on-formview-from-code-behind ....and I had many additional problems after that. So I happened upon an article on AutoMapper, which I know very little about yet, but from the sounds of it, this might be a viable alternative to two-way databinding a form to an domain entity object? From what I understand, AutoMapper basically operates on naming convention, so, it will look for matched names properties(?) on the source and destination objects. So, basically, I have all my domain entities (ie: Person) with properties (FirstName, LastName, Address, etc)....what I would like to be able to do is declare my asp controls with those exact same names, and have automapper do the loading and unloading. One obvious caveat is that AutoMapper would have to know the proper property name for each control type, ie: Person.FirstName -- form.FirstName*.Text* Person.Country -- form.Country.SelectedValue Person.IsVerified -- form.IsVerified.Checked ....so it would have to have the smarts to find the control on the form, determine its type, and then load/unload between the domain object and the webform control into the proper property of the control. So if this worked, a person could just get rid of the cursed FormView control entirely, and it would be just one line of code each for binding and unbinding a webform. Possible?

    Read the article

  • UINavigationController crash because of pushing and poping UIViewControllers

    - by Wayne Lo
    My question is related to my discovery of a reason for UINavigationController to crash. So I will tell you about the discovery first. Please bare with me. The issue: I have a UINavigationController as as subview of UIWindow, a rootViewController class and a custom MyViewController class. The following steps will get a Exc_Bad_Access, 100% reproducible.: [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_1stInstance animated:YES]; [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_2ndInstance animated:YES]; Hit the left back tapBarItem twice (pop out two of the myViewController instances) to show the rootViewController. After a painful 1/2 day of try and error, I finally figure out the answer but also raise a question. The Solutio: I declared many objects in the .m file as a lazy way of declaring private variables to avoid cluttering the .h file. For instance, #impoart "MyViewController.h" NSMutableString*variable1; @implement ... -(id)init { ... varialbe1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; ... } -(void)dealloc { [variable1 release]; } For some reasons, the iphone OS may loose track of these "lazy private" variables memory allocation when myViewController_1stInstance's view is unloaded (but still in the navigation controller's stacks) after loading the view of myViewController_2ndInstance. The first time to tap the back tapBarItem is ok since myViewController_2ndInstance'view is still loaded. But the 2nd tap on the back tapBarItem gave me hell because it tried to dealloc the 2nd instance. Executing [variable release] resulted in Exc_Bad_Access because it pointed randomly (loose pointer). To fix this problem is simple, declare variable1 as a @private in the .h file. Here is my Question: I have been using the "lazy private" variables for quite some time without any issues until they are involved in UINavigationController. Is this a bug in iPhone OS? Or there is a fundamental misunderstanding on my part about Objective C? Please help.

    Read the article

  • Custom HTTPHandler causing caching or session issues?

    - by Jan de Jager
    So i have a custom CMS running under .Net 3.5 written entirely in c#. The engine is optimized to render for mobile devices, but also server to normal web browsers. It also supports cookieless sessions. Great... I've chosen not to cache anything (including browser data) in order to control the rendering completely from data. This has been all good until lately. The engine implements a basic login function that simply logs the user state within a session object. The behavior is rather strange. User will click through the site no problem. Then login. The login will either go through successfully or just redisplay the login screen, suggesting a cached page being returned or redisplayed... If the login is successful the concurrent page hits will switch arbitrarily between logged in and logged out state... Also suggesting either the session state is not accessible or a cached page being returned. I have debugged the hell out of the thing.... including using fiddler and the like. When debugging the behavior disappears. Huh? One of the sites running on the engine is http://www.wiseguy.mobi (sorry customized for South Africa, so you'll probably not be able to get the password Text Message)!

    Read the article

  • How to weed out the bad programmers from the competent ones in the interview process

    - by thaBadDawg
    I am getting ready to add another developer to my team and I want to try and fix the mistakes I made in my last hiring cycle. I like to think of myself as a competent programmer (I can be given a project, I can deliver on that project and the deliverable work with very few if any bugs) and so I ask questions that I would ask myself in an interview. I've come to the conclusion that my interviewing skills are completely lacking because the last two people I've hired interviewed incredibly well but have been less than ideal at the tasks that they've been given. My CTO (who was completely useless in giving any guidance as to how) suggested I improve on my interviewing skills. The question is this - How does one programmer interview another programmer and get an understanding of the other programmer's abilities? Edit: Though slightly different, the answers provided to this question could be of use to you. That question concerns specific interview questions while yours seems to be more general about interview approaches and not just about the questions themselves. Update: Just for the hell of it I asked two of the guys I worked with if they could do FizzBuzz. 45 minutes and 80 minutes to work it out. And these aren't bottom level guys either.

    Read the article

  • WPF Background Thread Invocation

    - by jeffn825
    Maybe I'm mis-remembering how Winforms works or I'm overcomplicating the hell out of this, but here's my problem. I have a WPF client app application that talks to a server over WCF. The current user may "log out" of the WPF client, which closes all open screens, leaves only the navigation pane, and minimizes the program window. When the user re-maximizes the program window, they are prompted to log in. Simple. But sometimes things happen on background threads - like every 5 minutes the client tries to make a WCF calls that refreshes some cached data. And what if the user is logged out when this 5 minute timer triggers? Well, then the user should be prompted to log back in...and this must of course happen on the UI thread. private static ISecurityContext securityContext; public static ISecurityContext SecurityContext { get { if (securityContext == null) { // Login method shows a window and prompts the user to log in Application.Current.Dispatcher.Invoke((Action)Login); } return securityContext; } } So far so good, right? But what happens when multiple threads hit this spot of code? Well, my first intuition was that since I'm syncrhonizing across the Application.Current.Dispatcher, I should be fine, and whichever thread hit first would be responsible for showing the login form and getting the user logged in... Not the case... Thread 1 will hit the code and call ShowDialog on the login form Thread 2 will also hit the code and will call Login as soon as Thread 1 has called ShowDialog, since calling ShowDialog unblocked Thread 1 (I believe because of the way the WPF message pump works) All I want is a synchronized way of getting the user logged back into the application...what am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • jQuery + InnovaStudio WYSIWYG Editor

    - by Phil Sturgeon
    I am trying to avoid hard-coding each instance of this WYSIWYG editor so I am using jQuery to create an each() loop based on function name. Annoyingly InnovaStudio seems to explode when I try. Documentation Attempt #1 <script type="text/javascript"> /* id = $(this).attr('id'); if(id.length == 0) { id = 'wysiwyg-' + wysiwyg_count; $(this).attr('id', id); } WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count] = new InnovaEditor('WYSIWYG[' + wysiwyg_count + ']'); WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count].REPLACE(id); */ var demo = new InnovaEditor('demo'); demo.REPLACE('wysiwyg-1'); console.log('loop'); </script> Effect Works fine, but of course only works for a single instance of the editor. If I want multiple instances I need to use an each. Attempt #2: <script type="text/javascript"> var wysiwyg_count = 1; //var WYSIWYG = []; var demo; (function($) { $(function() { $('.wysiwyg-simple').each(function(){ /* id = $(this).attr('id'); if(id.length == 0) { id = 'wysiwyg-' + wysiwyg_count; $(this).attr('id', id); } WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count] = new InnovaEditor('WYSIWYG[' + wysiwyg_count + ']'); WYSIWYG[wysiwyg_count].REPLACE(id); */ demo = new InnovaEditor('demo'); demo.REPLACE('wysiwyg-1'); console.log('loop'); }); }); })(jQuery); </script> Effect Replaces the entire HTML body of my page with JUST WYSIWYG related code and complains as no JS is available (not even Firebug, so can't debug). Does anybody know what the hell is going on here?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57  | Next Page >