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  • how to get entire document in scrapy using hxs.select

    - by Chris Smith
    I've been at this for 12hrs and I'm hoping someone can give me a leg up. Here is my code all I want is to get the anchor and url of every link on a page as it crawls along. from scrapy.contrib.spiders import CrawlSpider, Rule from scrapy.contrib.linkextractors.sgml import SgmlLinkExtractor from scrapy.selector import HtmlXPathSelector from scrapy.utils.url import urljoin_rfc from scrapy.utils.response import get_base_url from urlparse import urljoin #from scrapy.item import Item from tutorial.items import DmozItem class HopitaloneSpider(CrawlSpider): name = 'dmoz' allowed_domains = ['domain.co.uk'] start_urls = [ 'http://www.domain.co.uk' ] rules = ( #Rule(SgmlLinkExtractor(allow='>example\.org', )), Rule(SgmlLinkExtractor(allow=('\w+$', )), callback='parse_item', follow=True), ) user_agent = 'Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; MSIE 9.0; WIndows NT 9.0; en-US))' def parse_item(self, response): #self.log('Hi, this is an item page! %s' % response.url) hxs = HtmlXPathSelector(response) #print response.url sites = hxs.select('//html') #item = DmozItem() items = [] for site in sites: item = DmozItem() item['title'] = site.select('a/text()').extract() item['link'] = site.select('a/@href').extract() items.append(item) return items What I'm doing wrong... my eyes hurt now.

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  • Webfaction apache + mod_wsgi + django configuration issue

    - by Dmitry Guyvoronsky
    A problem that I stumbled upon recently, and, even though I solved it, I would like to hear your opinion of what correct/simple/adopted solution would be. I'm developing website using Django + python. When I run it on local machine with "python manage.py runserver", local address is http://127.0.0.1:8000/ by default. However, on production server my app has other url, with path - like "http://server.name/myproj/" I need to generate and use permanent urls. If I'm using {% url view params %}, I'm getting paths that are relative to / , since my urls.py contains this urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^(\d+)?$', 'myproj.myapp.views.index'), (r'^img/(.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT + '/img' }), (r'^css/(.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT + '/css' }), ) So far, I see 2 solutions: modify urls.py, include '/myproj/' in case of production run use request.build_absolute_uri() for creating link in views.py or pass some variable with 'hostname:port/path' in templates Are there prettier ways to deal with this problem? Thank you. Update: Well, the problem seems to be not in django, but in webfaction way to configure wsgi. Apache configuration for application with URL "hostname.com/myapp" contains the following line WSGIScriptAlias / /home/dreamiurg/webapps/pinfont/myproject.wsgi So, SCRIPT_NAME is empty, and the only solution I see is to get to mod_python or serve my application from root. Any ideas?

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  • First could access the repository next cannot

    - by Banani
    Hi! I have configured svnserve (1.6.5,plain, without apache) on Fedora 12. I could ran the following svn subcommands which access the repository after configuration. Such as, commit, update,checkout, list. But, when next time ( after stopping,ctrl-c and then starting svnserve)I tried above commands, could not access the repository. This is happening both from local and remote machine. I ran svn and svnserve as below. 'svn commit svn://127.0.0.1/myrepository/' from local client. 'svnserve -d --foregorund --listen-port=3690 -r /path-to-repository/mypository/' To understand the problem better, I created another repository and found similar behavior . Frist I could access the repository and next I could not. I tried doing strace on svnserve, but don't uderstand much of it. Below is the partial output. accept(3, {sa_family=AF_INET, sin_port=htons(54425), sin_addr=inet_addr("127.0.0 .1")}, [16]) = 4 fcntl64(4, F_GETFD) = 0 fcntl64(4, F_SETFD, FD_CLOEXEC) = 0 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) clone(child_stack=0, flags=CLONE_CHILD_CLEARTID|CLONE_CHILD_SETTID|SIGCHLD, chil d_tidptr=0xb7743758) = 9737 close(4) = 0 accept(3, 0xbfcdf2bc, [128]) = ? ERESTARTSYS (To be restarted) --- SIGCHLD (Child exited) @ 0 (0) --- sigreturn() = ? (mask now []) waitpid(-1, [{WIFEXITED(s) && WEXITSTATUS(s) == 0}], WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = 9737 waitpid(-1, 0xbfcdf31c, WNOHANG|WSTOPPED) = -1 ECHILD (No child processes) My question: Why user are not able to access the repository anymore? What information the strace output gives about this problem? Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. Banani

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  • .Net 2.0 ServiceController.GetServices()

    - by Miles
    I've got a website that has windows authentication enable on it. From a page in the website, the users have the ability to start a service that does some stuff with the database. It works fine for me to start the service because I'm a local admin on the server. But I just had a user test it and they can't get the service started. My question is: Does anyone know of a way to get a list of services on a specified computer by name using a different windows account than the one they are currently logged in with? I really don't want to add all the users that need to start the service into a windows group and set them all to a local admin on my IIS server..... Here's some of the code I've got: public static ServiceControllerStatus FindService() { ServiceControllerStatus status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; try { string machineName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceMachineName"]; ServiceController[] services = ServiceController.GetServices(machineName); string serviceName = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["ServiceName"].ToLower(); foreach (ServiceController service in services) { if (service.ServiceName.ToLower() == serviceName) { status = service.Status; break; } } } catch(Exception ex) { status = ServiceControllerStatus.Stopped; SaveError(ex, "Utilities - FindService()"); } return status; } My exception comes from the second line in the try block. Here's the error: System.InvalidOperationException: Cannot open Service Control Manager on computer 'server.domain.com'. This operation might require other privileges. --- System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception: Access is denied --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetDataBaseHandleWithAccess(String machineName, Int32 serviceControlManaqerAccess) at System.ServiceProcess.ServiceController.GetServicesOfType(String machineName, Int32 serviceType) at TelemarketingWebSite.Utilities.StartService() Thanks for the help/info

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  • Debugging a Google Web Toolkit application that has an error when deployed on Google App Engine

    - by gerdemb
    I have a Google Web Toolkit application that I am deploying to Google App Engine. In the deployed application, I am getting a JavaScript error Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'f' of null. This sounds like the JavaScript equivalent of a Java NullPointerException. The problem is that the GWT JavaScript is obfuscated, so it's impossible to debug in the browser and I can't reproduce the same problem in hosted mode where I could use the Java debugger. I think the reason I'm only seeing the error on the deployed application is that the database I'm using on the GAE server is triggering something differently than the test database I'm using during testing and development. So, any ideas about the best way to proceed? I've thought of the following things: Deploy a non-obsfucated version of my application. Despite a lot of Googling, I can't figure out how to do this using the automatic deploy script provided with the Google Eclipse Plugin. Does anyone know? Download and copy my GAE data to the local server Somehow point my development code to use the GAE server for data instead of the local test database. This seems like the best idea... Can anyone suggest how to proceed here? Finally, is there a way to catch these JavaScript errors on the production server and log them somewhere? Without logging, I won't have anyway to know if my users are having errors that don't occur on the server. The GWT.log() function is automatically stripped out of the production code...

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  • C++ operator new, object versions, and the allocation sizes

    - by mizubasho
    Hi. I have a question about different versions of an object, their sizes, and allocation. The platform is Solaris 8 (and higher). Let's say we have programs A, B, and C that all link to a shared library D. Some class is defined in the library D, let's call it 'classD', and assume the size is 100 bytes. Now, we want to add a few members to classD for the next version of program A, without affecting existing binaries B or C. The new size will be, say, 120 bytes. We want program A to use the new definition of classD (120 bytes), while programs B and C continue to use the old definition of classD (100 bytes). A, B, and C all use the operator "new" to create instances of D. The question is, when does the operator "new" know the amount of memory to allocate? Compile time or run time? One thing I am afraid of is, programs B and C expect classD to be and alloate 100 bytes whereas the new shared library D requires 120 bytes for classD, and this inconsistency may cause memory corruption in programs B and C if I link them with the new library D. In other words, the area for extra 20 bytes that the new classD require may be allocated to some other variables by program B and C. Is this assumption correct? Thanks for your help.

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  • using a database and deploying the application

    - by evan
    I have a WPF application that stores a large amount of information in XML files and as the user uses the application they add more information to the XML files. It's basically using the XML files as a database. Since over the life of the program the XML files have gotten quite large, and I've been think about putting the data on a website, I've been looking into how to move all the information into an SQL database. I've used SQL databases with web applications (PHP, Ruby, and ASP.NET) but never with a Desktop application. Ideally I'd like to be able to keep all the information in one database file and distribute it along with the application without requiring the user to connect to a remote database (so they don't need an internet connection - though eventually it would be nice if could compare the local file's version with one online somewhere and update if necessary) and without making them install a local database server on their computer. Is this possible? I'd also like to use LINQ with any new database solution so switching to a database doesn't force to many changes (I read the XML with LINQ). I'm sure this question has been asked and that there are already some good tutorials on the subject but I just can't find them.

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  • How to specify path for file from different project in WPF?

    - by MartyIX
    Hello, I've got two projects in WPF and one project is the main one and the second one is just for testing (it uses files of the main project - files are added via Project - add - Existing items... - selected file - add as link so that the file is only in the main project really). Folders with projects are these: C:\Work\...\Projects\Main C:\Work\...\Projects\XXXTestProject where XXX stands for different parts of the Main project which I test separately. I've got the code: <Window x:Class="Sokoban.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:Sokoban" xmlns:diag="clr-namespace:System.Diagnostics;assembly=WindowsBase" Title="Window1" Height="559" Width="419"> <Window.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="GameDesk.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <Rectangle local:GameDeskProperties.FieldSize="30" Name="myrect" Style="{DynamicResource GameDesk}" MouseEnter="Rectangle_MouseEnter" /> </Grid> </Window> ... which should use XAML resources from GameDesk.xaml which is in the main project and it seems that I can't use Pack URI (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa970069.aspx). How can I specify the file? Should I use absolute path? (C:\Work...\Main\Resources\GameDesk.xaml) Or is there any other way? Thank you for help!

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  • Windows Service Installation

    - by Goober
    Scenario I have a server, that has NO Visual Studio Installed. It literally has a normal command prompt and nothing installed yet. We don't want to install anything (except the .Net framework which we have already done). We just want to install a bunch of C# Windows Services that we have written. So far I have been installing and running the windows service on my local machine using a "setup and deploy" project that I built into the application, which I could then use to install the service locally. Question How can I install the service on the server? I imagine it can be done from the command prompt only, but what else do I need? - If anything? and where do I put the files that I want to install BEFORE I install them? I imagine I will have to compile the application on my local machine in Visual Studio, then copy it over to the server, and then run an install utility to install it on the server? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Can I version dotfiles within a project without merging their history into the main line?

    - by istrasci
    I'm sure this title is fairly obscure. I'm wondering if there is some way in git to tell it that you want a certain file to use different versions of a file when moving between branches, but to overall be .gitignored from the repository. Here's my scenario: I've got a Flash Builder project (for a Flex app) that I control with git. Flex apps in Flash Builder projects create three files: .actionScriptProperties, .flexProperties, and .project. These files contain lots of local file system references (source folders, output folders, etc.), so naturally we .gitignore them from our repo. Today, I wanted to use a new library in my project, so I made a separate git branch called lib, removed the old version of the library and put in the new one. Unfortunately, this Flex library information gets stored in one of those three dot files (not sure which offhand). So when I had to switch back to the first branch (master) earlier, I was getting compile errors because master was now linked to the new library (which basically negated why I made lib in the first place). So I'm wondering if there's any way for me to continue to .gitignore these files (so my other developers don't get them), but tell git that I want it to use some kind of local "branch version" so I can locally use different versions of the files for different branches.

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  • How to prevent session hijacking with SID (CGI perl)

    - by Gnippots
    I have a web app used by a small number of people (internal only) and am using a randomised sessionID that is stored under the user record and placed in various links. I have had a problem where users are sending links to each other which is allowing them to hijack the sender's session. What are some ways of preventing this from happening while still letting users send links to one another? Edit: The session ID in the link (which also contains $username) is just compared to what is stored in the User table. &incorrectLogin just prints an error followed by die; if ($sid) { $sth = $dbh->prepare("SELECT * FROM tbl_User WHERE UserID = '$username'"); $sth->execute(); $ref = $sth->fetchrow_hashref(); $session_chk = $ref->{'usr_sessionID'}; unless ($sid eq $session_chk) {&incorrectLogin;} } The problem is that if someone uses a link that is created by someone else, the page will load as them. I am not using cookies, and I recall being told in the past that CGI perl cookie handling is quite poor.

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  • Use queried json data in a function

    - by SztupY
    I have a code similar to this: $.ajax({ success: function(data) { text = ''; for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { text = text + '<a href="#" id="Data_'+ i +'">' + data[i].Name + "</a><br />"; } $("#SomeId").html(text); for (var i = 0; i< data.length; i++) { $("#Data_"+i).click(function() { alert(data[i]); RunFunction(data[i]); return false; }); } } }); This gets an array of some data in json format, then iterates through this array generating a link for each entry. Now I want to add a function for each link that will run a function that does something with this data. The problem is that the data seems to be unavailable after the ajax success function is called (although I thought that they behave like closures). What is the best way to use the queried json data later on? (I think setting it as a global variable would do the job, but I want to avoid that, mainly because this ajax request might be called multiple times) Thanks.

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  • Old fashioned html onclick return false doesnt in IE work when jquery script included

    - by user292662
    Ok, so im quite new to jquery but found this bizzar problem just now, If we ignore jquery for a second and consider this scenario, if i have two links like below both with an href and both with and onclick event. The first link will not follow the href because the onclick returns false, and the second link will because the onclick returns true. <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Dont follow</a> <a href="/page.html" onclick="return false;">Follow</a> This works just hunky dory in every browser as it should, the thing is, as soon as i include the jQuery script on the page this stops working in all versions of IE which then always follows the href whether the onclick returns false or not. (it continues to work fine in other browsers) Now if i add an event using jquery and call .preventDefault() on the event object instead of doing it the old fashioned way this behaves correctly, and you may say, well just do that then? But i have a site with thousands of lines of code and i am adding jquery support, i dont want to run the risk that i might miss an already defined html onclick="" and break the website. I cant see why jQuery should prevent perfectly normal javascript concepts from working, so is this a jQuery bug or am I missing something?

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  • Text piped to PowerShell.exe isn't recieved when using [Console]::ReadLine()

    - by crtracy
    I'm getting itermittent data loss when calling .NET [Console]::ReadLine() to read piped input to PowerShell.exe: >ping localhost | powershell -NonInteractive -NoProfile -C "do {$line = [Console]::ReadLine(); ('' + (Get-Date -f 'HH:mm :ss') + $line) | Write-Host; } while ($line -ne $null)" 23:56:45time<1ms 23:56:45 23:56:46time<1ms 23:56:46 23:56:47time<1ms 23:56:47 23:56:47 Normally 'ping localhost' from Vista64 looks like this, so there is a lot of data missing from the output above: Pinging WORLNTEC02.bnysecurities.corp.local [::1] from ::1 with 32 bytes of data: Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Reply from ::1: time<1ms Ping statistics for ::1: Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms But using the same API from C# recieves all the data sent to the process (excluding some newline differences). Code: namespace ConOutTime { class Program { static void Main (string[] args) { string s; while ((s = Console.ReadLine ()) != null) { if (s.Length > 0) // don't write time for empty lines Console.WriteLine("{0:HH:mm:ss} {1}", DateTime.Now, s); } } } } Output: 00:44:30 Pinging WORLNTEC02.bnysecurities.corp.local [::1] from ::1 with 32 bytes of data: 00:44:30 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:31 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:32 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:33 Reply from ::1: time<1ms 00:44:33 Ping statistics for ::1: 00:44:33 Packets: Sent = 4, Received = 4, Lost = 0 (0% loss), 00:44:33 Approximate round trip times in milli-seconds: 00:44:33 Minimum = 0ms, Maximum = 0ms, Average = 0ms So, if calling the same API from PowerShell instead of C# many parts of StdIn get 'eaten'. Is the PowerShell host reading string from StdIn even though I didn't use 'PowerShell.exe -Command -'?

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  • Website Live Chat Script - Interface With Windows Live Messenger?

    - by Sootah
    Hello again fellow StackOverflow users! What I am looking for currently is your opinions on the what the best live chat script would be for my website. I'd be using this on both my local computer repair (which I've not really set up yet) company's site, as well as my other technical support site that is geared more towards showing people how to fix whatever problem they have themselves. It'll be a little bit before I launch it on either site, as I need to find a good design for my local computer repair company's site, as well as redesign TweaksForGeeks.com's layout so that it's more magazine like. (If you have any suggestions on good Wordpress templates for these, that'd also be swell. :) ) Features I'd like for the live chat script to have: (if possible) Real-time posting of messages (or as close to real time as possible) Integration into my Windows Live Messenger account - By this I mean it'd be handy if instead of me having to man a separate open browser window and constantly check it for new messages, it'd be much more convenient if it would instead just allow me to receive and respond to messages via my Windows Live account the same way I'd chat with any other person on my contact list. Sound notification of new messages when the chat isn't the focused window - In the event that using Windows Messenger isn't possible then I'd need it to notify me upon receipt of a new message. Recording of chat transcripts - This is a MUST HAVE Easy customization - I'll likely want to modify how it looks and whatnot, in addition to the fact that I'm going to set it up so that the chat transcripts can be posted to my site easily in order to be useful to my other visitors later on. With all that in mind, what is available out there? I've not really researched this at all yet; aside from doing a cursory search just before I decided to ask my StackOverflow brothers. As always, thank you! -Sootah

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  • XPath - get parent node

    - by chris.shi
    //* [ local-name()='component' and namespace-uri()='urn:hl7-org:v3' ] using thispath ,I can get a node like this: <component xmlns="urn:hl7-org:v3"> <structuredBody> <component> <section> <code code="10164-2" codeSystem="2.16.840.1.113883.6.1" codeSystemName="LOINC"/> <title>History of Present Illness</title> <text> </text> </section> </component> <component> ...... </component> <component> ...... </component> <structuredBody/> <component/> in order to get the node as below: <component> <section> <code code="10164-2" codeSystem="2.16.840.1.113883.6.1" codeSystemName="LOINC"/> <title>History of Present Illness</title> <text> </text> </section> </component> I change the path to : //* [ local-name()='component' and namespace-uri()='urn:hl7-org:v3' and position()=1] but ,how can I get the same result by using [code="10164-2"] as a qualification. ( I do not know how to describe this question ,as a result ,the title of this question is a little simple ,sorry .) thanks

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • Why doesn't Default route work using Html.ActionLink in this case?

    - by StuperUser
    I have a rather perculiar issue with routing. Coming back to routing after not having to worry about configuration for it for a year, I am using the default route and ignore route for resources: routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I have a RulesController with an action for Index and Lorem and a Index.aspx, Lorem.aspx in Views Rules directory. I have an ActionLink aimed at Rules/Index on the maseter page: <li><div><%: Html.ActionLink("linkText", "Index", "Rules")%></div></li> The link is being rendered as http://localhost:12345/Rules/ and am getting a 404. When I type Index into the URL the application routes it to the action. When I change the default route action from "Index" to "Lorem", the action link is being rendered as http://localhost:12345/Rules/Index adding the Index as it's no longer on the default route and the application routes to the Index action correctly. I have used Phil Haack's Routing Debugger, but entering the url http://localhost:12345/Rules/ is causing a 404 using that too. I think I've covered all of the rookie mistakes, relevant SO questions and basic RTFMs. I'm assuming that "Rules" isn't any sort of reserved word in routing. Other than updating the Routes and debuugging them, what can I look at?

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  • hiding buttons in master page

    - by pankaj
    Hi, I am working on an app where i am having some linkbuttons in master page. I want to display them depending upon the authorization given to them once they logs in. I have initially made all of them visible false and then i am checking the authorisation in the aspx.cs class of master page. I make the link button visible depending upon the right granted to the user. But it is making all the link buttons visible. Instead it should only make two of them visible and rest should be hidden. Following is my code from MasterPage.aspx.cs: ArrayList arrlstUserRoles = new ArrayList(); arrlstUserRoles = (ArrayList)Session["Roles"]; for (int j = 0; j < arrlstUserRoles.Count; j++) { if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 1) { lbtnRetailer.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 2) { lbtnCategory.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 3) { lbtnCouponTemplate.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 4) { //lbtnStoreManagement.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 5) { lbtnStoreManagement.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 6) { lbtnContentManagement.Visible = true; } else if (int.Parse(arrlstUserRoles[j].ToString()) == 7) { //lbtnStoreManagement.Visible = true; } }

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  • How to let one external stylsheet selectively overrule the other

    - by Ferdy
    I'm stunned by a simple thing that I want to accomplish but does not work. I have a website and I want it to support themes, which are a named set of CSS + images. No matter which theme is selected, I always include the main CSS file, which is the default theme. On top of that I'm loading a second stylesheet, the one that is theme-specific, like so: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/main.css" title=main" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="themes/<?= $style ?>/css/<?= $style ?>.css" title="<?= $style ?>" media="screen" /> My idea is that the theme specific css should not be a full copy of the main css file. Instead, it should only contain CSS rules that overrule those of the main.css file. This makes themes much smaller and easier to maintain. I thought I could simply load two external stylesheets after each other and that for conflicting rules it will always use the theme specific css, the second file. However, it does not seem to work. If I make a dramatic styling change in the theme file then it has no effect. If I then comment the main CSS file, the theme CSS does have effect. Was I too naive in expecting this to work like this? I know I can use inline styles to overrule anything, but I prefer a setup like this if possible.

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  • Why is this JLabel continuously repainting?

    - by Morinar
    I've got an item that appears to continuously repaint when it exists, causing the CPU to spike whenever it is in any of my windows. It directly inherits from a JLabel, and unlike the other JLabels on the screen, it has a red background and a border. I have NO idea why it would be different enough to continuously repaint. The callstack looks like this: Thread [AWT-EventQueue-1] (Suspended (breakpoint at line 260 in sItem)) sItem.paint(Graphics) line: 260 sItem(JComponent).paintToOffscreen(Graphics, int, int, int, int, int, int) line: 5124 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paintDoubleBuffered(JComponent, Image, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1475 RepaintManager$PaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1406 RepaintManager.paint(JComponent, JComponent, Graphics, int, int, int, int) line: 1220 sItem(JComponent)._paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 5072 sItem(JComponent).paintImmediately(int, int, int, int) line: 4882 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions(Map<Component,Rectangle>) line: 803 RepaintManager.paintDirtyRegions() line: 714 RepaintManager.seqPaintDirtyRegions() line: 694 [local variables unavailable] SystemEventQueueUtilities$ComponentWorkRequest.run() line: 128 InvocationEvent.dispatch() line: 209 summitEventQueue(EventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 597 summitEventQueue(SummitHackableEventQueue).dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 26 summitEventQueue.dispatchEvent(AWTEvent) line: 62 EventDispatchThread.pumpOneEventForFilters(int) line: 269 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForFilter(int, Conditional, EventFilter) line: 184 EventDispatchThread.pumpEventsForHierarchy(int, Conditional, Component) line: 174 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(int, Conditional) line: 169 EventDispatchThread.pumpEvents(Conditional) line: 161 EventDispatchThread.run() line: 122 [local variables unavailable] It basically just continually hits that over and over again as fast as I can press continue. The code that is "unique" to this particular label looks approximately like this: bgColor = OurColors.clrWindowTextAlert; textColor = Color.white; setBackground(bgColor); setOpaque(true); setSize(150, getHeight()); Border border_warning = BorderFactory.createCompoundBorder( BorderFactory.createMatteBorder(1, 1, 1, 1, OurColors.clrXBoxBorder), Global.border_left_margin); setBorder(border_warning); It obviously does more, but that particular block only exists for these labels that are causing the spike/continuous repaint. Any ideas why it would keep repainting this particular label?

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  • How can I use JSONP to download client-side javascript objects?

    - by Alex Mcp
    I'm trying to get client-side javascript objects saved as a file locally. I'm not sure if this is possible. The basic architecture is this: Ping an external API to get back a JSON object Work client-side with that object, and eventually have a "download me" link This link sends the data to my server, which processes it and sends it back with a mime type application/json, which (should) prompt the user to download the file locally. Right now here are my pieces: Server Side Code <?php $data = array('zero', 'one', 'two', 'testing the encoding'); $json = json_encode($data); //$json = json_encode($_GET['']); //eventually I'll encode their data, but I'm testing header("Content-type: application/json"); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="backup.json"'); echo $_GET['callback'] . ' (' . $json . ');'; ?> Relevant Client Side Code $("#download").click(function(){ var json = JSON.stringify(collection); //serializes their object $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "http://www.myURL.com/api.php?callback=?", //this is the above script dataType: "jsonp", contentType: 'jsonp', data: json, success: function(data){ console.log( "Data Received: " + data[3] ); } }); return false; }); Right now when I visit the api.php site with Firefox, it prompts a download of download.json and that results in this text file, as expected: (["zero","one","two","testing the encoding"]); And when I click #download to run the AJAX call, it logs in Firebug Data Received: testing the encoding which is almost what I'd expect. I'm receiving the JSON string and serializing it, which is great. I'm missing two things: The Actual Questions What do I need to do to get the same prompt-to-download behavior that I get when I visit the page in a browser (much simpler) How do I access, server-side, the json object being sent to the server to serialize it? I don't know what index it is in the GET array (silly, I know, but I've tried almost everything)

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  • Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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  • Rails rake test returns an error message

    - by eakkas
    I am a rails newbie and receive the following message when I run rake test. This is a an application based on rails community engine. I tried creating a test application just to make sure that my gems etc. are fine and I am able to run rake test successfully in that application. It would be great if someone could shed a light on what is going wrong... /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/whiny_nil.rb:52:in `method_missing': undefined method `merge' for nil:NilClass (NoMethodError) from /home/eakkas/NetBeansProjects/hello_ce/vendor/plugins/community_engine/app/controllers/users_controller.rb:17 from /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `gem_original_require' from /usr/local/lib/site_ruby/1.8/rubygems/custom_require.rb:31:in `require' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:158:in `require_without_desert' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/ruby/object.rb:8:in `require' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/ruby/object.rb:32:in `__each_matching_file' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/ruby/object.rb:7:in `require' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:265:in `require_or_load' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/rails/dependencies.rb:27:in `depend_on' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/rails/dependencies.rb:26:in `each' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/desert-0.5.3/lib/desert/rails/dependencies.rb:26:in `depend_on' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:136:in `require_dependency' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:414:in `load_application_classes' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:413:in `each' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:413:in `load_application_classes' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:411:in `each' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:411:in `load_application_classes' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:197:in `process' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `send' from /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/rails-2.3.5/lib/initializer.rb:113:in `run'

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  • Simple way of getting the Last.fm artist image for recently listened songs?

    - by animuson
    On the Last.fm website, your recently listened track include the 34x34 (or whatever size) image at the left of each song. However, in the RSS feed that they give you, no image URLs are provided for the songs. I was wondering if there was a good way of figuring out the ID for the image that needs to be used for that artist and displaying it based on the data that we're given. I know it is possible to load the artist page from their website and then grab the image values from JavaScript, but that seems overly complicated and would probably take quite some time to do. What we're given: <item> <title>Owl City – Rainbow Veins</title> <link>http://www.last.fm/music/Owl+City/_/Rainbow+Veins</link> <pubDate>Thu, 20 May 2010 18:15:29 +0000</pubDate> <guid>http://www.last.fm/user/animuson#1274379329</guid> <description>http://www.last.fm/music/Owl+City</description> </item> and the 34x34 image for this song would be here (ID# 37056785). Does anything like this exist? I've considered storing the ID number in a cache of some sort once it has been checked once, but what if the image changes?

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